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1
Q

What are the aircrew flight restrictions related to crew rest?

A

Aircrew will not fly if:
* Appropriate crew rest was not obtained
* Any alcohol consumed within 12 hours prior to takeoff
* Impaired by alcohol or any intoxicating substances
* Physical or psychological condition is detrimental to safe performance
* Self-medicating unless in accordance with DAFMAN 48-123
* Within 72 hours of donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow
* Within 24 hours of compressed gas diving

Specific conditions related to crew rest must be adhered to ensure safety.

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2
Q

How long must crew rest be before the flight duty period (FDP)?

A

Crew rest must be a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the FDP begins.

Crew rest includes time for meals, transportation, and uninterrupted sleep.

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3
Q

What happens if crew rest is interrupted?

A

If crew rest is interrupted, the aircrew must notify the PIC and begin a new crew rest period or refrain from flying.

Official business conducted after crew rest may interrupt the rest period.

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4
Q

When does the Flight Duty Period (FDP) begin and end?

A

FDP begins when an aircrew member first reports for official duty and ends at final engine shutdown after the final flight.

The PIC can extend FDP a maximum of 2 hours for unplanned mission delays.

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5
Q

What is the definition of IMC?

A

IMC = weather conditions with visibility and ceilings less than the minima specified for VMC.

IMC refers to conditions that require instrument flight rules (IFR).

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6
Q

What are the priorities for weather sources?

A
  • MAJCOM-approved weather source
  • Regional Operational Weather Squadron (OWS)
  • Other DoD military weather sources
  • Other U.S. Government weather facilities
  • Foreign civil or military weather service (only when DoD or USG services are unavailable)

AETC aircrew must only use approved weather sources for planning.

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7
Q

When must a flight plan be filed?

A

File a flight plan in accordance with FLIP GP or MAJCOM guidance, or once airborne as soon as practicable if unable to file on the ground.

Mission requirements determine the selection of flight rules (VFR/IFR).

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8
Q

Who is responsible for signing the flight plan?

A

The PIC signs the flight plan.

The PIC is ultimately responsible for the flight plan’s accuracy and compliance.

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9
Q

When is an alternate airport required?

A

An alternate is required when:
* No compatible instrument approach is available
* Weather forecast within +/- 1 hour from ETA is below minimums
* Crosswinds are out of limits
* Denial of RVSM prevents non-RVSM compliant aircraft from reaching the destination

Additional considerations for alternate include weather reporting capabilities and approach minimums.

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10
Q

What disqualifies an alternate airport?

A

An alternate is disqualified if:
* Weather within +/- 1 hour ETA is below 1000/2 or 500 above and 1 mile above lowest compatible mins
* No compatible instrument approach procedure published

Weather conditions and approach availability are critical for alternate airport selection.

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11
Q

When should minimum or emergency fuel be declared?

A

Declare ‘minimum fuel’ or ‘emergency fuel’ when the aircraft may land with less than the MDS-specific minimum reserve or emergency fuel.

Specific fuel amounts for T-6 are 150/100.

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12
Q

What is the fuel reserve requirement?

A

Ensure enough usable fuel to increase total planned flight time by 10% or a minimum of 20 minutes, whichever is greater.

Fuel reserves must be computed using MAJCOM-defined consumption rates.

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13
Q

What is the minimum weather requirement for IFR departure?

A

Do not depart IFR unless weather at destination +/- 1 hour ETA is at or above the lowest compatible approach minimums.

Temporary conditions may be below minimums.

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14
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient?

A

The standard IFR climb gradient is 200 feet per nautical mile.

This is the minimum required climb performance for IFR departures.

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15
Q

What are Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs)?

A

ODPs are IFR departure procedures specifically designed for obstacle avoidance, described in the ‘Trouble T’ section of terminal procedures.

These procedures ensure safe clearance from obstacles during departure.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

A

A SID simplifies clearance delivery procedures and assists in meeting environmental, capacity, and ATC requirements.

SIDs are published for specific airfields and require ATC clearance to fly.

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17
Q

What are takeoff obstacle notes?

A

Takeoff obstacle notes identify obstacles within 3SM of the DER requiring a climb gradient greater than 200 ft/nm.

These notes alert pilots to the height and location of obstacles.

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18
Q

What defines low close-in obstacles?

A

Low close-in obstacles require a climb gradient above 200 ft/nm for a short distance, only until the aircraft reaches 200 feet above the DER.

These obstacles pose a risk during the initial climb phase.

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19
Q

What are takeoff obstacle notes?

A

Obstacles within 3SM of the DER that require a climb gradient greater than 200 ft/nm.

Published under “TAKEOFF OBSTACLE NOTES” to alert pilots about height and location of obstacles.

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20
Q

Define low close-in obstacles.

A

Obstacles that require a climb gradient above 200 ft/nm for a very short distance until the aircraft is 200 ft above DER.

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21
Q

When is supplemental oxygen use required?

A

When cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet MSL.

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22
Q

What is the right of way rule for aircraft in distress?

A

Aircraft in distress have right-of-way over all other air traffic.

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23
Q

List the right-of-way hierarchy for different aircraft categories.

A
  • Balloons
  • Gliders
  • Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft
  • Airships
  • Rotary or fixed wing aircraft
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24
Q

What is the minimum IFR altitude when flying off airway?

A

At least 1,000 feet above all obstacles within 4NM in non-mountainous terrain or 2,000 feet in mountainous terrain.

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25
What is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?
Restricted to 250 knots indicated.
26
What are the weather minimums for VFR flying?
Do not operate under VFR when unable to maintain flight visibility or cloud clearances.
27
What is the standard holding pattern design?
A racetrack design consisting of two 180-degree right turns and two straight legs.
28
How long should a holding pattern be at or below 14,000 feet MSL?
1 minute.
29
What is the maximum holding airspeed at 14,001 feet and above?
265 knots.
30
What must pilots ensure regarding VFR flight plans upon landing?
Pilots must ensure VFR flight plan is closed to prevent unnecessary search and rescue operations.
31
What is the maximum distance for TORA?
The runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of aircraft taking off.
32
What is a visual approach?
IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC, complying with controller instructions for vectors toward the airfield.
33
What is the altitude requirement over congested areas?
At least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot radius.
34
Fill in the blank: The maximum indicated airspeed in Class B airspace is _______.
200 knots indicated unless authorized by ATC.
35
True or False: Aircraft established on final approach has right-of-way over other aircraft on the ground.
True.
36
What are declared distances marked with?
Inverse D symbol.
37
What is the altitude requirement over national parks?
No lower than 2,000 AGL.
38
What must pilots do if conditions prevent completing a VFR mission?
Alter route to maintain VFR, obtain IFR clearance, or land at a suitable location.
39
What is prohibited use for RNAV?
Substituting for a navaid providing lateral course guidance during the final approach of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach.
40
What is the maximum holding airspeed below 6,000 feet?
200 knots.
41
What is the requirement for filing a flight plan requiring direct navigation to a fix?
The primary nav equipment onboard must be certified for the appropriate RNAV capability.
42
What are IFR alternate minimums?
Some civil and foreign approaches may have alternate minimums or alternate not authorized (ANA) in the remarks.
43
What does the letter 'A' signify in an approach?
Indicates that only circling minimums are provided on an instrument approach.
44
Define a visual approach.
An IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC, following controller instructions for vectors toward the airfield.
45
True or False: A VFR approach alters the responsibility for IFR flight plan cancellation.
False
46
What must a pilot maintain when cleared for a visual approach?
Visual reference to the terrain.
47
What occurs if the glideslope fails?
The approach reverts to an approach without glidepath guidance.
48
When must an ILS or LOC approach be discontinued?
If the localizer course becomes unreliable or full-scale deflection of the CDI occurs on final approach.
49
What is the ILS critical area restriction?
Vehicles and aircraft are not authorized in or over the ILS critical area with a ceiling less than 800 feet or visibility less than 2 miles.
50
What does 'front course' refer to in a localizer BC approach?
The inbound course depicted on the ILS or LOC approach for the opposite runway.
51
Fill in the blank: The runway environment includes _______.
[runway markings, runway end identifier lights, runway lights, VGSI, threshold markings, touchdown zone markings, approach light system]
52
What should a pilot do when descending below MDA, DA, DH?
Establish sufficient visual references with the runway environment.
53
What is the Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA)?
A single altitude providing 1,000 feet of clearance (2,000 in mountainous terrain) within 100 NM of the facility.
54
What is the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)?
Provides 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance within 25 NM of the facility, can be expanded to 30 NM.
55
What constitutes the final approach segment?
Glideslope or glidepath angles, intercept altitudes, FAF, stepdown fixes, VDP, VDA, MAP, MDA, and DA.
56
When is timing required in an approach?
When the final approach does not terminate at a published fix.
57
What constitutes runway environment?
[runway markings, runway end identifier lights, runway lights, VGSI, threshold markings, touchdown zone markings, approach light system]
58
What must a pilot do if executing a missed approach prior to MAP?
Fly the instrument procedure as specified on the approach plate to the MAP at or above MDA, DA, DH.
59
What should be done if unable to maintain visual references while circling?
Execute the missed approach specified for the procedure flown.
60
What are inoperative approach lighting systems corrections based on?
Published in DoD FLIP Inoperative Components Table.
61
What is the constant descent final approach (CDFA)?
A preferred method that allows for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision approach as a continuous descent.
62
What is the purpose of the Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)?
Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain).
63
Define Minimum En Route Altitude (MEA).
The lowest published altitude assuring acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
64
What does Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA) ensure?
Obstacle clearance requirements for the entire segment and acceptable navigational signal coverage within 22 NM of VOR.
65
What is Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?
The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding to a higher minimum en route IFR altitude.
66
What is Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?
Established for ATC use, providing 1,000 ft clearance above the highest obstacle.
67
What does RVSM stand for?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum.
68
What is a prohibited area in airspace?
Airspace where flight is prohibited due to security or national welfare reasons.
69
What are restricted areas in airspace?
Airspace where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft, with activities confined due to their nature.
70
What is the purpose of warning areas?
To warn others of potential danger in areas extending from 12 NM outward from the coast of the US.
71
What does MOA stand for?
Military Operations Area.
72
What does TFR stand for?
Temporary Flight Restriction.
73
What is the usable range for a localizer?
Within 10 degrees, 18 NM; within 35 degrees, 10 NM.
74
What do outer and middle markers identify?
VHF marker beacons used for ILS approaches.
75
What is joker fuel?
Pre-briefed fuel quantity above bingo at which separation or event termination should begin.
76
What is bingo fuel?
Pre-briefed fuel quantity that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing.
77
Fill in the blank: Minimum fuel is declared when remaining fuel is less than _______.
[150 pounds]
78
What is the minimum fuel amount for emergency declaration?
100 pounds
79
When should LDG flaps be used?
For full-stop landings when landing distance is greater than or equal to 80% of field length.
80
What is the restriction for a low approach?
Aircrew will not touchdown when cleared for a low approach.
81
What should be added to each radio transmission once established in the pattern?
Fuel status ## Footnote Include the amount of fuel remaining in minutes.
82
When should LDG flaps be used?
For full-stop landings when heavy weight flaps up landing distance is greater than or equal to 80% of the actual field length.
83
What is the minimum altitude aircrew will not descend below when cleared for a restricted low approach?
500 feet.
84
What is the surface wind restriction for conducting flights over land?
Steady state surface winds exceeding 35 knots.
85
What is required for surface winds exceeding 25 knots in training or operating areas?
OG/CC approval.
86
What is the maximum wave height requiring OG/CC approval during over-water flights?
Wave heights exceeding 10 feet.
87
What does MSA stand for?
Minimum Safe Altitude.
88
What is Minimum Sector Altitude?
Lowest altitude providing at least 1000’ clearance above obstacles within 25 nm radius of a NAVAID.
89
What is Emergency Safe Altitude?
Altitude providing at least 1,000’ clearance within 100 miles of the navigation facility.
90
What squawk code is used for IFR flight plan in case of two-way radio failure?
7600.
91
What should pilots do during radio failure regarding altitude?
Maintain the highest of last assigned altitude, minimum altitude for IFR operations, or expected altitude.
92
What types of icing are there?
* Clear ice * Rime ice * Mixed icing * Frost
93
What is clear ice?
Glossy ice formed during freezing rain, most serious type of ice.
94
What is rime ice?
Milky, opaque, granular deposit formed by instantaneous freezing of small supercooled droplets.
95
What is mixed icing?
Forms when drops vary in size or are intermingled with snow or ice particles.
96
What must be done when icing is first indicated?
Ascend or descend from the icing layer.
97
What is the restriction for aerobatics after an icing encounter?
Prohibited until ice accumulation is melted or sublimated.
98
By how much must approach speed be increased during landing with ice accumulation?
10 KIAS.
99
What is the maximum aircraft in pattern as per uncontrolled airfield operations?
Refer to specific regulatory guidance.
100
What does FDE stand for in GPS use?
Fault Detection and Exclusion.
101
What is the significance of the winds regarding windshear?
Windshear causes significant changes in airspeed and vertical speed.
102
What is the altitude range where low-level windshear is particularly hazardous?
Within 2,000 feet of the ground.
103
What is the expected action if no transmissions are received during radar approaches?
Initiate lost comm procedures.
104
What is the maximum airspeed at an NTA?
Refer to specific regulatory guidance.
105
What should be done when surface winds exceed 35 knots?
Units/aircrew will not conduct flights over land.

Nav Gk (1 decks)

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