NAVEDTRA 15009A, Yeoman Basic Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
Which year saw the inception of the Yeoman Rating?
A
1917.
2
Q
What term best describes the word “Yeoman”?
A
Administrative Assistant.
3
Q
Which of the following statements best defines the Navy’s Occupational Standards
(OCCSTDs)?
A. Minimum standards of knowledge and heritage
B. Minimum standards of knowledge
C. Minimum language skills
D. Maximum standards of knowledge and skill
A
B. Minimum standards of knowledge
4
Q
Aboard a surface ship, what office is responsible for maintaining the ship’s master instructions?
A
Captain’s Office.
5
Q
On a Frigate, who is responsible for the Ship’s Office?
A
Executive Officer.
6
Q
Who provides agency-level technical expertise concerning physical security?
A
Special Security Office (SSO)
7
Q
Which two instructions provide policy and guidance for administering Navy Reserve personnel not on Full-Time Active Duty orders?
A
COMNAVRESFORINST 1001.5 (series) and BUPERSINST 1001.39 (series)
8
Q
The general appearance of an office can be greatly affected by which of the following
actions?
A. Always leaving the trash full
B. Adding more chairs and desks into your office
C. Adding more equipment on your desk
D. Clearing your desk on a daily basis
A
D. Clearing your desk on a daily basis.
9
Q
Of the following grades pay, which one is not authorized for conversion to LN? A. E2 B. E3 C. E4 D. E5
A
A. E2
10
Q
Information on Navy Schools may be obtained from what publication?
A
Catalog of Navy Training Courses (CANTRAC).
11
Q
What is a Yeoman’s most important quality? A. Voice B. Appearance C. Attitude D. Personality
A
A. Voice
12
Q
Which of the following is an example of a personal award or special recognition? A. Battle Efficiency “E” award B. Sailor of the Year C. Yellow sticky of commendation D. Meritorious Unit Commendation
A
B. Sailor of the Year
13
Q
Onboard a Submarine, to whom does the Leading Yeoman report directly?
A
Executive Officer.
14
Q
What document lists in detail the tasks and responsibilities of a Submarine Leading
Yeoman?
A
The Submarine Force Personnel Manual, COMNAVSUBFORINST 1306.1 (series).
15
Q
Who is responsible for the management of the CO’s personal correspondence? A. The Executive Officer B. The Administrative Officer C. The Captain’s Yeoman D. The Ship’s Secretary
A
D. The Ship’s Secretary
16
Q
The duties, responsibilities, authority, distinctions, and responsibilities of various commands, officials, and individuals in the Navy are outlined in what publication?
A
United States Navy Regulations
17
Q
What publication issues regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all U.S. Navy
members?
A
Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (SORN)
18
Q
Under the authority of the Military Justice Act, who issued the Manual for Courts-Martial?
A
The President of the United States.
19
Q
What authority publishes the Decedent Affairs Manual?
A
The Bureau of Medicine and Surgery publishes the Decedent Affairs Manual, NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
20
Q
The Manual of Navy Officer Manpower and Personnel Classifications is issued in how many volumes?
A
Two
21
Q
What publication contains a lineal list of officer personnel?
A
Active Duty Register (Naval Register)
22
Q
The Joint Federal Travel Regulations (JFTR) is issued in a total of how many volumes?
A
Two
23
Q
What volume of the DoD Travel Regulations applies to all federal civilian employees?
A
Volume II
24
Q
What manual is issued for the information, guidance, and compliance of all personnel in
the administration of military pay?
A
The Department of Defense Financial Management Regulations (DODFMR), DoD 7000.14
25
Who is designated as the developer and issuer of the Navy travel and transportation management policy?
Deputy CNO
26
What authority covers matters pertaining to wearing of decorations and medals?
U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations
27
What memorandum is the most formal?
Letterhead
28
Where are the words JOINT LETTER typed when a standard naval letter is drafted?
Two lines below the date.
29
When preparing a From-To memorandum, what form can you use?
OPNAV 5215/144A or OPNAV 5215/144B
30
How many workdays do you have to respond to a congressional correspondence?
Within 5 working days of receipt.
31
When a naval message is prepared, what individual verifies that the drafter has met the
requirements for NTP 3?
Releaser
32
In regard to centralized and decentralized files, you would most likely keep what type (a)
on a destroyer and (b) at a large shore command?
A. (a) Centralized (b) Decentralized
B. (a) Decentralized (b) Centralized
C. (a) Centralized (b) Centralized
D. (a) Decentralized (b) Decentralized
A. (a) Centralized (b) Decentralized
33
Messages are usually destroyed how many days after the release date?
30 days.
34
Of the following types of folders, which one spaces the labels across the drawer so that a
label will not be hidden by the folder in front of it?
A. One cut
B. Straight cut
C. One-third cut
D. One-fourth cut
C. One-third cut
35
Standard file folders are available in a total of how many sizes?
Two.
36
How many types of messages are there and what are they?
There are four types of classified and unclassified narrative messages: single-address, multipleaddress,
book, and general messages.
37
Messages are filed in what kind of order?
Date time group
38
How many types of memorandums are used for executive correspondence?
Two
39
Identify the Message Priority codes and speed of service.
(FLASH Z=As fast as possible with an objective or less than 10 minutes
(IMMEDIATE O)=30 minutes
(PRIORITY P)=3 hours
(ROUTINE)=6 hours
40
What is the OPNAV form number for the Report Analysis form?
OPNAV Form 5214/10
41
Each request to collect information from the public must be approved ______________.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
42
Report data should be arranged in what way?
In Logical Format.
43
The submission of reports is based on what?
Timing and frequency
44
How many types of reports are there?
Nine
45
What is the name for an interim report explaining the amount of work completed or to be completed on an establish report?
Status Report
46
What type of report conveys essentially the same type of information at prescribed intervals?
Recurring Report
47
An established report that changes is what kind of report?
Revised Report
48
Who approves revised reports?
Reports Control Manager
49
What kind of report remains within one organization for its own use?
Internal Report
50
Who assigns Report Control Symbols (RCSs) for a command?
Reports Control Manager
51
What numbers assigned to a report control symbol cannot be reused?
Consecutive numbers
52
What OPNAV form is available to assist the reports manager to establish a inventory system?
OPNAV Form 5214/5
53
What manual is the Department of the Navy Forms Management Manual?
SECNAV M-5213.1
54
How many levels of form precedence are there?
Four
55
Fourth level forms are what kind of forms?
Internal
56
What level of authority would establish DD forms?
DOD
57
Third level forms are established for whom?
More than one command
58
What manual is the Navy and Marine Corps Records Management Program Manual?
SECNAV M-5210.1
59
What is the SF152 used for?
Request for Clearance or Cancellation of a Standard
| or Optional Form
60
Who is responsible for the overall management of official mail?
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Logistics)(CNO N4)
61
What is the Naval Postal Instruction?
OPNAVINST 5112.6(series)
62
What level should Mobile commands designate as command OMM?
Either an Officer or a Chief Petty Officer
63
Navy commands receive postage from what organization?
Consolidated Mailing Facility (CMF)
| or host installation metering site serving their area.
64
What are the preferred methods of payment to be used to purchase postal services?
Treasury check, cash, Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT), and Advance Deposit Trust
Accounts (ADTAs)
65
Envelopes are available for purchase through what system?
supply
66
To have a continuous chain of receipts for a letter you are mailing, what class/type of mail
service should you use?
Registered Mail
67
What publication discusses how the registered mail system is used to transmit classified information?
Department of the Navy Information Security Program (ISP) Regulation, SECNAV M-5510.36.
68
How long should the Commanding Officer hold mail addressed to Navy members who are
deceased?
Until it can be determined that all of the next of kin have been notified of the Navy members' death.
69
What is the maximum amount of hours a Temporary Secure Working Area (TSWA) can be used?
40 hours a month
70
What does the acronym SAER stand for?
Security Access Eligibility Report
71
How many days is the initial response time to a Letter of Intent (LOI)?
Member will be allotted 15 calendar days to respond, with the ability to get 45 additional days, for a total of 60 days.
72
The Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA) is maintained for how many years
from the date of signature?
70 years or death (whichever comes first)
73
Secret clearances must be updated how often?
Every 10 years.
74
Confidential clearances must be updated how often?
Every 15 years
75
How many categories of PSI are listed in the PSP Manual?
Eight.
76
Who conducts counterintelligence briefings?
Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS) Agent
77
What is OPNAV Form 5511/14?
Security Termination Statement
78
When a security debriefing has been conducted for a member, what disposition is made of the
original OPNAV Form 5511/14?
Filed in the ESR.
79
The initial determination of a person’s loyalty, reliability, and trustworthiness is based on what
investigation or check?
PSI.
80
How many members sit in on a PSAB Board?
Three.
81
What agency conducts the NACLC?
OPM
82
A person who enters military service undergoes what type of agency check?
A person who wishes to enter military service undergoes a NACLC. The NACLC determines the
suitability of an individual for entry into federal service.
83
Which checks may be used as the investigative basis for an initial Top Secret clearance?
The completion of a favorable SSBI or PR
84
The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security
should carry what classification?
Top Secret.
85
The disclosure of information that could cause exceptionally serious damage to national
security should carry what classification?
Secret.
86
The disclosure of information that could cause identifiable damage to national security should
carry what classification?
Classified.
87
After a Top Secret document has been transferred, downgraded, or destroyed the record of
disclosure should be maintained for how many years?
Two Years.
88
What is the highest classification allowed for mailing classified material via USPS?
Secret
89
The Command Security Manager must be a _____________?
military officer or civilian employee in paygrade GS-11 or above.
90
How many user levels are there in JPAS?
Nine.
91
Who initiates a Personal Security Investigation via JPAS?
PSI must be initiated by either a Security Manager or the SSO via JPAS
92
Fingerprint cards are sent to what command?
OPM
93
What system is e-QIP initiated through?
JPAS
94
What form is used to ensure all areas that transmit classified information is secured for the day?
SF-701, Activity Security Checklist
95
Top Secret receipts are kept for how many years?
5 Years.
96
Secret receipts are kept for how many years?
2 Years.
97
Who assists commands with queries regarding the status of personnel security investigations
at the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) issuing Letters of Intent (LOI) and Letters of
Notification (LON)?
DONCAF.
98
For Navy personnel who should receive a copy of the security manager’s designation letter?
A copy of the Security Manager's designation letter must be forwarded to CNO.
99
Who offers the Naval Security Manager course?
NCIS.
100
What are the primary functions of an administrative fact–finding body?
Search out, develop, assemble, analyze, and record all available information about the matter under investigation.
101
The time period for an administrative fact–finding body to submit its investigation should not
normally exceed how many days?
Not to exceed 30 days from the date of the convening
| order.
102
How many kinds of administrative fact-finding bodies are there?
Three
103
At least how many officers must be appointed to a court of inquiry?
Three
104
Before an officer may convene a fact-finding body required to conduct a hearing, the officer must have what authority?
To convene a general or special court-martial
105
A fact-finding body required to conduct a hearing consists of what minimum number of officers?
One.
106
When a suspect desires to waive his or her rights regarding self-incrimination, what form may
be used by investigative personnel?
Suspect’s Rights Acknowledgement/Statement, NAVJAG 5810/10
107
YNC Echols has been accused of larceny. Before security personnel interrogate or request a
statement from YNC Echols, they must comply with what UCMJ article?
UCMJ Article 31.
108
The Charge Sheet, DD Form 458, consists of how many sections?
Five Sections.
109
The term “minor offense” means misconduct not more serious than that usually handled at what forum?
Summary court-martial
110
The NDAWS acronym stands for what?
Navy Department Awards Web Service
111
In general, who retains awarding authority for all awards?
SECNAV
112
```
Which member, when serving on Active Duty, is eligible for an award?
A. Sea Cadets
B. Merchant Marines
C. Naval Reserve Officer Training Corps
D. Civilian
```
C. Naval Reserve Officer Training Corps
113
Which United States Code prohibits and imposes a suitable penalty for the unauthorized wear,
manufacture, or sale of any decoration, medal, or ribbon?
18 U.S.C. §704
114
What is the recommended timeframe to submit a personal award recommendation?
To final awarding authority at least 60 days prior to presentation date
115
What is the time limit for presenting and awarding most military decorations?
Time limits are three years for submitting most personal military decorations and five years for awarding them.
116
How many parts does the body of an award citation contain?
Three
117
In what margin of the OCDR do you write the NSIPS transaction date?
NSIPS transaction dates are written on the right margin of the ODCR.
118
What section of the EDVR shows an alpha roster of all enlisted Sailors onboard the
command?
Section 3 – Alpha List
119
What supporting document do you need to help verify the NECs of the personnel assigned to your command?
AMD
120
What section of the EDVR shows Prospective Losses of your command?
Section 2 – Prospective Losses
121
What section of the EDVR shows Prospective Gains of your command?
Section 1 – Prospective Gains
122
What BUPERSINST covers the EDVR?
BUPERSINST 1080.53(series)
123
How many standard sections are in the EDVR?
12
124
A customer asks you for a copy of their “Page Four.” Where do you obtain the information they are asking for?
The NAVPERS 1070/604 (“Page Four”) has been replaced by the Training, Education, and Qualification History (NAVPERS 1070/881) within NSIPS and
contains the same information
125
Which office is responsible for entry or correction of ASVAB scores within a member’s
ESR?
Navy College Office
126
Where is punishment (not affecting pay or entitlements) recorded within a member’s record?
Punishment that does not affect pay is recorded on the Administrative Remarks, NAVPERS 1070/613
127
Military pay is broken down into a total of three parts. What are they?
Pay is broken down into three types—Basic, Special, and Incentive
128
What term identifies an amount of money paid to a member to provide for food, quarters, or services that are not provided by the Navy?
Allowance
129
What DD Form is used for Request and Authorization for TDY travel of DOD Personnel?
DD Form 1610
130
When a member is on a travel status, the first day or the last day or travel equals what percentage of MI&E?
75%
131
What volume within the DODFMR regards lodging expenses?
Volume 1
132
Allowance designed to offset the cost of lodging, meals, and incidental expenses incurred by a member while performing travel is what?
Per diem
133
What is the form number for a travel voucher?
DD Form 1351-2
134
The Records of Disposal Act was established in what year?
1943
135
What directive establishes the policies and procedures for lifecycle management of records?
Department of the Navy (DON) Records Management Program Manual, SECNAV M-5210.1,
136
How many parts comprise the SECNAV M-5210.1?
5
137
What are all of the methods used to dispose of records?
Donation, transfer, retirement, destruction, and microfilm
138
```
The first milestone in the history of a ship is generally a simple ceremony called:
A. The Commissioning Ceremony
B. The Christening Ceremony
C. The Keel-laying ceremony
D. A Change of Command ceremony
```
The Keel-laying ceremony
139
How many emergency conditions are listed in the Records Disposal Act?
Two
140
What is the minimum rank of the senior member of an administrative board?
LCDR (O4)
141
How many forms of “formal invitations” exist?
Five. Fully engraved, Semi-engraved, Computer generated, Hand Written, or a phone call followed by a “To remind” card.
142
Which NAVPERS form is used for Evaluations E1 to E6?
NAVPERS 1616/26
143
Which NAVPERS form is used for Evaluations E7 to E9?
NAVPERS 1616/27
144
Which NAVPERS form is used for Fitness Reports W2 to 0-6?
NAVPERS 1610/2
145
What NEC is assigned to personnel qualified to serve as Flag Writer?
2514
