NavyBMR Flashcards
(1394 cards)
1
Q
Assessment of FMAs will be conducted by the Type Commander (TYCOM) or what with cognizance over the FMA.
A
Fleet Commander
2
Q
Assessments will be performed annually, not to exceed how many months, to evaluate the ability of the FMA to execute maintenance in accordance with applicable technical directives and specifications?
A
18
3
Q
Strike Force FMA/Amphibious Ready Group FMA (CV\CVN, LHA, LHD) assessments will occur once during the inter-deployment training cycle, normally during what phase?
A
Advanced
4
Q
Observation of what is preferred to the assignment of projects or mockups in core capability areas?
A
in process work
5
Q
The Commanding Officer will submit a findings status report to the TYCOM via the administrative chain of command within how many days following the date of the official assessment report?
A
60
6
Q
Findings classified as “Immediate Corrective Action Required” require the immediate attention of the Commanding Officer and must be corrected within how many days following the date of the assessment out-brief?
A
15
7
Q
Findings classified as “Corrective Action Required” require the prompt attention of the Commanding Officer to preclude them from developing into “Immediate Corrective Action Required” deficiencies and must be corrected within how many days following receipt of the official assessment report?
A
60
8
Q
The maximum interval between boiler inspections and other occasions requiring boiler inspections, including responsibilities for continuation and standardization of the boiler inspection program, are formally assigned in what instruction?
A
OPNAVINST 9220.3
9
Q
What shall provide the overall management of the SGPI and NSWCCD LCEM Inspection programs?
A
NAVSEA
10
Q
What shall provide management of technical data and boiler history?
A
NSWCCD
11
Q
Who shall host the semi-annual SGPI seminars on an alternating coast basis?
A
Fleet Commanders
12
Q
Student certification must be conducted on what type boilers with Automatic Boiler Controls (ABC)?
A
D
13
Q
What shall provide a qualified SGPI when requested by the ship, Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC) or Type Commander (TYCOM)/Class Squadron (CLASSRON)?
A
Regional Maintenance Center (RMC)
14
Q
Who shall assist Commanding Officers in arranging for the corrective action of items beyond the capability of Ship’s Force, when requesting?
A
ISIC
15
Q
Who shall conduct boiler inspections as required by appropriate Planned Maintenance System (PMS) item?
A
Ship Commanding Officers/Officers In Charge
16
Q
Who shall maintain applicable SGPI certifications?
A
Senior Inspectors
17
Q
Commanding Officers/Officers In Charge of ships/craft shall request boiler inspections by letter or message via the chain of command. In addition, what shall be submitted to the RMC requesting boiler inspections?
A
OPNAV 4790/2-Kilo
18
Q
Boiler inspection services shall be coordinated by geographic areas for maximum utilization of SGPIs/NSWCCD LCEM Inspectors. Who will combine inspection requests and schedule inspections?
A
ISICs
19
Q
Observance of good engineering practices and careful control of boiler water chemistry will reduce the frequency of what entry?
A
Pressure vessel
20
Q
Ensure “idle boiler condition” is accomplished per the provisions of the Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS) and what?
A
NSTM Chapter 221
21
Q
Water washing of what is not authorized without TYCOM and NAVSEA approval?
A
Firesides
22
Q
The decision to overrides normal safety precautions will be made by the Commanding Officer/Officer in Charge and will be reported to the what by message?
A
TYCOM
23
Q
Routine Inspections of propulsion, auxiliary and waste heat boilers will be conducted at least once every Inter-Deployment Training Cycle and shall not exceed how many months from its last inspection?
A
24
24
Q
The normal interval between routine boiler inspections shall be how many months?
A
18
25
To provide scheduling flexibility, boiler inspections may be performed as early as how many months or as late as 24 months after the previous inspection?
12
26
Boiler inspections that exceed the 18 month interval shall will require a minor what to the TYCOM with recommendation from RMC?
Departure From Specification (DFS)
27
Any boiler which exceeds the inspection interval shall be placed out of commission until inspected by a certified what?
SGPI
28
The PSOI/PSAI will be scheduled by the what, as approved by the cognizant TYCOM?
ISIC
29
The normal interval between Strength and Integrity Inspections shall be how many months?
60
30
Strength and Integrity Inspections may be performed as early as 48 months or as late as how many months after the last Strength and Integrity Inspection to provide scheduling flexibility?
72
31
What will be conducted before reinstallation of steam drum internals and de-superheater for the Strength and Integrity Inspection?
COI/CAI
32
The Newly Constructed Ship Acceptance Inspection shall be accomplished in conjunction with what?
INSURV Acceptance Trials
33
The SGPI shall ensure a maintenance ready 2-Kilo for every discrepancy found during the inspection is entered into the what?
Current Ship's Maintenance Project
34
The Senior Inspector will forward a copy of the BIRMIS report with cover letter to the ship's Commanding Officer no later than how many days after completion of all discrepancies?
Ten
35
The SGPI shall report RBO deficiencies discovered during the inspection to the CLASSRON and ship's Commanding Officer by message within what time frame?
24 hours
36
The ship's Commanding Officer shall submit a proposed Plan of Actions and Milestones for deficiency correction for CLASSRON approval within what time frame of boiler inspection?
10 days
37
The ship's Commanding Officer shall report corrected deficiencies, by message, to the ISIC, CLASSRON and TYCOM within what time frame of the completed inspection?
30 days
38
Who is the sole authority for deferral of deficiencies?
TYCOM
39
Boiler inspections will be conducted using what appropriate forms?
BIRMIS
40
Ships equipped with ABCs shall use the controls at all times while what?
Steaming
41
When ABCs cannot be operated in automatic, this fact shall be reported by a what?
CASREP message
42
Prior to boiler light off, all ABCs shall be tested in accordance with what?
EOSS
43
What is the desired boiler flexibility performance level?
Level I
44
All personnel who are required in the course of their duties to test, treat and/or manage boiler water/feedwater programs shall be certified as specified in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 9220.2
45
The primary use of the water jet machine is for what cleaning?
Boiler waterside
46
When a water jet machine is out of commission for more than what time frame, the status shall be reported utilizing the CASREP procedures?
24 hours
47
Initial qualification to perform diesel inspections will be for a period of how many months?
36
48
A DEI whose certification either expired or was revoked may request reinstatement of his certification by submitting a letter to the Program Manager via his chain of command and the what?
RMC
49
If the DEI's certification has been expired for more than how many months prior to the request or was revoked, the two most recent inspections shall be completed under the instruction of a certified DEI?
Six
50
The normal interval between routine diesel inspections is how many months?
18
51
In no case shall the interval between routine diesel engine inspections exceed what time frame?
24 monthly
52
For Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) onboard nuclear powered vessels, industrial activity work on the diesel engine(s) or its support systems will not normally be approved except during a what?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) Availability
53
Who will make the final determination of whether the overhaul/repair was extensive enough to warrant a Post Overhaul/Repair Inspection?
DEI
54
Units shall contact the local RMC/ISIC Diesel Inspector to schedule the diesel inspection how many days prior to the desired inspection date?
120
55
Units shall submit a work request (OPNAV 4790/2K) to the appropriate RMC a minimum of how many days in advance of the desired dates for the diesel inspection to allow for DEI scheduling?
90
56
It is the responsibility of whom to schedule the diesel inspection with the RMC during a period where the inspection's condition assessment can be best utilized for repair planning?
Fleet Maintenance Managers
57
The diesel inspection may require that each engine being inspected normally be placed out of commission for how many days at the minimum?
Five to seven
58
SSDGs normally have the operational phase performed inport, whereas operational assessment of MPDEs requires the ship to be underway for a minimum of how long?
One day
59
TYCOMs may approve a minor DFS for diesel inspections in a how many month window?
18 to 24
60
For inspection deferrals of greater than 24 months, the TYCOM will forward endorsement to what for approval of the DFS?
NAVSEA 05Z
61
Discrepancies beyond Ship's Force capability will be scheduled to be corrected through the Fleet Maintenance Managers, utilizing the what?
Current Ship's Maintenance Project
62
What discrepancies include those for which continued unrestricted operation could endanger personnel and/or cause serious damage to the engine or associated equipment?
Repair Before Operating (RBO)
63
Any deficiency that has been noted as major shall require either immediate correction within how many days of discovery or reported by Naval message?
30
64
The DEI shall ensure a maintenance ready what for every discrepancy found during the inspection is entered into the Current Ship's Maintenance Project?
2-Kilo
65
Per NAVSEA S9086-HB-STM-010 the light loading of a diesel engine (less than what percent) should be avoided?
60%
66
In situations where light loading of a diesel engine is unavoidable, arrangements should be made to operate the engine at 60-80 percent rated load capacity for a minimum of thirty minutes, preferably how many hours, unless other guidance exits specific to the engine's application?
Three
67
Per what reference diesel engines that have online purification capability shall operate the purifier continuously while the diesel engine is operating?
NAVSEA S9086-H7-STM-010
68
Engine Operating Hours since Overhaul is zeroed only when the engine is what?
Overhauled
69
Ship's what shall ensure all diesel records are readily available for the inspector's review and Ship's Force use?
Commanding Officers
70
Who provides technical oversight on all scheduled and emergent work performed by the RMC personnel, and contractor, as required?
Subject Matter Expert (SME)
71
Significant repairs and I/D-Level work packages shall be accomplished by what?
Directive maintenance
72
What maintenance is defined as maintenance that is directed by the engine's condition?
Condition based
73
Each engine's condition data shall be analyzed on what basis to identify any abnormalities, downward tends or other issues?
Monthly
74
Results of each Continuous Assessment shall be reported, with recommendations for corrections of any problems/potential problems, to the Ship's Engineer Officer and ISIC and documented in the what?
Shipboard Automated Maintenance Module (SAMM)
75
Fuel dilution of what percent is a cautionary condition and requires monitoring by daily sampling?
1.0-2
76
Fuel dilution greater than what percent is a hazard condition and considered unacceptable for continued use?
2
77
Fuel dilution greater than what percent is a RBO?
5
78
Engines with fuel dilution levels greater than what percent may be operated at the discretion of the Commanding Officer if operational circumstance dictates (e.g., restricted maneuvering) with a TYCOM DFS?
2
79
Light loading of Pielstick PC2.5 MPDE is defined as operation below what percent of the engine rating?
60%
80
What must be properly operated and maintained or serious health hazard can result?
Sewage systems
81
The most common pollution abatement sewage system in use on ships and craft is the what?
Collection, Holding and Transfer system
82
The purpose of what is to confirm that the system, as installed, meets established design requirements, that adequate logistic support is available onboard, and that major installation deficiencies are corrected?
MSD certification
83
The TYCOM/Immediate Superior In Command shall ensure surface ships participate in the pollution abatement program to the maximum extent possible by utilizing their pollution control equipment when within U.S. territorial waters (how many miles)?
NAVSEAINST 9593.1
84
All Fleet Maintenance Activities are capable of accomplishing repair and overhaul of all MSD components on what basis?
Ship-to-shop
85
The only authorized MSD pipe cleaning process is what cleaning?
Hydroblast
86
Pipe sections which can be removed from the system may be cleaned how using the procedures of NAVSEA S9086-T8-STM-010?
Acid cleaned
87
Training courses in the maintenance and operation of MSD systems are offered by what?
Fleet Training Centers
88
What is not flammable but supports and rapidly accelerates the combustion of all flammable materials?
oxygen
89
What is an almost totally inert gas, does not burn, and does not support combustion or respiration?
Gaseous nitrogen
90
What which include (liquid oxygen and liquid nitrogen) are extremely dangerous, and they can cause severe burns or frostbite if they contact the skin?
Cryogenic fluids.
91
What is to be sampled and tested for production and stowage in accordance with NAVSEA S9086-SX-STM-010 and Planned Maintenance System procedures?
Liquid oxygen/nitrogen.
92
For shipboard produced liquid oxygen, the limit for methane, when sampled at the storage tanks, is how many parts per million?
75
93
Certification high pressure gaseous storage flasks shall be performed in accordance with what?
MIL-STD-1330.
94
Equipment such as O2N2 producing plants, storage tanks, and pump-vaporizer units shall be operated only under the supervision of a Fleet Cryogenics School graduate that holds what current Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC) qualification?
NEC 4283.
95
The Environmental Protection Agency Clean Air Act, Section what prohibits individuals from knowingly venting ozone depleting compounds, used as refrigerants, into the atmosphere while maintaining, servicing, repairing, or disposing of air-conditioning or refrigeration equipment?
608.
96
Nuclear Propulsion Plant Test and Support Equipment is commonly referred to as what?
Nuclear Test Equipment (NTE).
97
What is the validation that the equipment is certified based on a review of records and is in a physically acceptable condition for issue and use?
Verification.
98
What is the detailed technical evaluation of the equipment to conclude that the item conforms to the required specification?
Certificaton.
99
Who is designated as the custodian of NTE?
Nuclear Repair Officer.
100
The requirements for General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment to support nuclear electrical/electronics testing are contained in the applicable what?
Ship's Portable Electronic Test Equipment Requirements List.
101
NTE shall be certified using a Formal Work Package (FWP) for Electronic/Electrical Test Equipment and a what for Mechanical Test Equipment?
Controlled Work Package (CWP).
102
What page (current and superseded) shall be retained by the Nuclear Repair Officer for the life of the equipment?
Certification Record.
103
Requests for test equipment are normally made using what form and identifying the appropriate Master Job Catalog routine Job Sequence Number?
OPNAV 4790/2L.
104
Prior to issue by the repair facility mechanical NTE which is expected to be subjected to pressure greater than how many pounds per square inch will be operationally pressure tested to the highest pressure expected during use in the propulsion plant?
10.
105
NTE will inventoried at least how often?
Annually.
106
Shipboard weapons and cargo handling elevators are supported through the elevator assessment and repair program, which is executed by the what?
Elevator Support Unit (ESU).
107
Prior to commencement of any ESU evolution, a pre-brief will be conducted by the ESU representative and attended by the ship's what and all applicable departmental representatives?
Maintenance Manager.
108
What is conducted with Ship's Force to promote self-sufficiency?
On the Job Training (OJT).
109
What is designed to correct discrepancies identified in the ship's CSMP that could not be repaired during the assessment visit?
Repair Visit.
110
Who will schedule all ESU visits through the TYCOM sponsored Quarterly Scheduling Conference?
ISIC.
111
Before departing the ship, the ESU will debrief the Commanding Officer, or designated officer, on the material condition of the elevator system. The ESU shall provide the ISIC and TYCOM a report outlining the results, not later than how many days following the visit?
30.
112
When TWDs are utilized, the locally developed what should direct execution of the check lists and need only direct other actions that are not included in the check lists?
FWP.
113
What do not require retention after the test has been satisfactorily completed, documented in the FWP or TWD, and the FWP or TWD is closed?
System Check Lists.
114
When who accepts the completed retest, the check list may be discarded?
FMA Quality Assurance Officer.
115
For FMA shop testing of controlled work, the completed check lists, or copies, shall be provided with the test documentation required by the what until the FMA Quality Assurance Officer or Quality Assurance Supervisor accepts the testing objective quality evidence?
Controlled Work Package.
116
All outside activity work on ship's systems and components, regardless of who performs the work, requires formal authorization through a what for the specific work to be accomplished?
Work Authorization Form (WAF).
117
Work requiring what may include Planned Maintenance System (PMS), troubleshooting, corrective maintenance (repair) or alterations?
Formal authorization.
118
Work on the Fleet's ships is conducted under positive what in order to ensure rigorous personnel and ship safety standards are met at all times?
Work Authorization Control.
119
What is the vehicle by which work requiring formal control is authorized for accomplishment and tracked to completion or otherwise no longer requiring isolation or authorization?
WAF.
120
Who has overall responsibility for ensuring maintenance is accomplished following 3-M System and quality maintenance procedures and that the 3-M System functions effectively within the command?
Commanding Officer.
121
Who is the command's 3-M System Manager?
Executive Officer.
122
Who is the functional manager of the 3-M System?
3M System Coordinator.
123
The 3M System Coordinator supervision of all administrative facets of the 3-M System program. This position will be assigned in writing as the PRIMARY DUTY of an Officer, Chief Petty Officer or Petty Officer First Class (who has been assigned what secondary Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC))?
9517.
124
The 3M System Coordinator Ensure all routing review signatures have been applied prior to forwarding 3-M documents to the designated data processing activity within how many working days of document origination or as operationally feasible?
7.
125
Who is responsible for the final approval of the 3-M Quarterly Schedule?
Department Head.
126
What shall be submitted requesting a LOEP change for new adds and for equipment removals?
PMS FBR.
127
Department LCPO shall be 3-M PQS qualified up to what level?
Department 3-M System Assistant.
128
Who will review, approve, and close out weekly schedules?
Division Officer.
129
The Division Officer shall ensure all Work Center weekly schedules are updated how often?
Daily.
130
The Division LCPO/LPO shall be qualified 3-M PQS up to what level?
Division Officer.
131
Who is responsible to the Division Officer via the LCPO/LPO for the effective operation of the 3-M System within their respective Work Center?
Work Center Supervisor.
132
What will the Work Center Supervisor use as a daily working document for the scheduling of any maintenance actions not included on the PMS schedules?
Current Ship's Maintenance Project (CSMP).
133
What has been developed to provide the Command's Maintenance Team with the tools to plan, schedule, and control planned maintenance effectively?
PMS.
134
The maintenance procedures developed in accordance with what principles for planned maintenance are the minimum required to maintain equipment within specifications?
Reliability-Centered Maintenance (RCM).
135
What contains information relative to PMS requirements for specific equipment for which the command is responsible?
PMS Master File.
136
Who is the PMS Master File maintained by?
3M System coordinator.
137
What reflects that portion of the PMS Master File that contains only the planned maintenance requirements applicable to a particular Work Center?
Work Center PMS Manual.
138
What provides a listing of the MIPs for systems and equipment assigned to each Work Center, and systems and equipment not requiring PMS or currently being evaluated for PMS?
LOEP.
139
What are basic PMS reference documents?
MIPs.
140
How many SYSCOM MIP control numbering systems have been developed based on changing PMS philosophy and are currently in use?
Three.
141
The SYSCOM MRC Control Number is a how many character alphanumeric code which is assigned to each MRC?
7.
142
What delineates how frequently the maintenance requirement must be performed?
Periodicity Code.
143
What following the periodicity code indicates a Safety of Ship item?
Asterisk (*).
144
What following the periodicity code indicates that this procedure is intended to be scheduled and performed by Off-Ship Maintenance Personnel?
Single plus (+).
145
What following the periodicity code indicates that this procedure is intended to be scheduled and performed by either Ship's Force or Off-Ship Maintenance Personnel?
Double plus (++).
146
What are maintenance requirements that must be accomplished concurrently with another maintenance requirement?
Mandatory related.
147
What are maintenance requirements that can be accomplished concurrently with another maintenance requirement for saving of time or manpower considerations?
Convenience related.
148
All or part of the related MRC is performed when specific conditions are present or not met on the referencing MRC is known as what type of maintenance?
Conditional related.
149
What type of maintenance is corrective in nature used to return system or equipment to operational condition within predetermined tolerances or limitations?
Unscheduled Maintenance (U).
150
ICMP tasks are not applicable to submarines and what else?
Carriers.
151
What provide detailed procedures for performing maintenance requirements and describes who, what, how, and with what resources a specific maintenance requirement will be accomplished?
MRC's.
152
What defines an event that must occur for an MRC to be scheduled?
Situational requirement.
153
What type of event is a persistent event that can be tracked over duration of time (in days)?
State.
154
What type of event is a single occurrence or action that may have a maintenance action tied to it?
Trigger.
155
What type of event is an event that is based on the current value of a measurement i relation to the value at the time of the last accomplishment?
Metered.
156
What is an aid that is used to determine when the MRC is scheduled based on the occurrence of the event?
Offset Information.
157
What specifies the situation that must exist in order for the maintenance to be accomplished, and has no effect on scheduling?
Prerequisite.
158
What maintenance requirements are those documented actions required to restore a system/equipment to an operational condition within predetermined tolerances or limitations?
Unscheduled.
159
What is used only for General Purpose Electrical and Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE) listed in the Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment Index (TMDE-I)?
Category I.
160
What established allowances for GPETE for ships and shore activities under NAVSEA cognizance?
SPETERL.
161
What are defined as any items, which are an integral part of the equipment?
Parts.
162
What block details the sequence of steps to be followed in performing the maintenance action?
Procedure.
163
What are associated with equipment safety, e.g., failure to accomplish the step could result in damage to equipment?
Cautions.
164
The three segment code used in cataloging MRC's is located as a footer on what side of each page of each MRC card?
Right.
165
What documents provide new or changed procedures that have not been given a final engineering validation?
Preliminary.
166
What are authorization for and a record of changes to an existing MIP or MRC, or the addition of a new MRC?
Advance Change Notices (ACNs).
167
What represents a new MIP and at least one new MRC?
Special Issue.
168
What changes are authorized revisions to any aspect of existing PMS documentation and are authorized in TFBR responses?
Pen & Ink.
169
Individual ships sometimes consider it desirable or necessary to shift maintenance responsibility from one Work Center to another, to combine two or more existing Work Centers, or to split an existing Work Center. These requests for changes of PMS maintenance responsibility require concurrence from whom and may require final approval by the applicable TYCOM?
Executive Officer.
170
Who is the only person that can authorize the splitting of a MIP if an MRC requires another Work Center to completely perform the MRC?
Executive Officer.
171
Who will develop a split MIP log to manage all split MIPs for the command?
3-M Coordinator.
172
What type of Maintenance events occur when a MR requires another Work Center's resources to perform that maintenance?
Collaborative.
173
What are used to report problems and also to request PMS coverage for newly installed systems or equipments?
Feedback forms.
174
How many types of Feedback Reports (FBR) are there?
Two.
175
What type of FBR is Non-technical i nature and is intended to meet PMS needs which do not require technical review?
CAT A.
176
A TFBR will be considered what when the reason for submission of a PMS TFBR involves safety of personnel, ship, or potential for damage to equipment and relates to the technical requirements of PMS?
Urgent.
177
NAVSEA has established a goal of providing the answer to a TFBR in what time frame?
One day.
178
Technical review activities are required to answer all TFBRs submitted to them within how many working days?
21.
179
Safety-related PMS updates are required to be implemented within how many working days of receipt?
2 to 5.
180
What provides for a day to day, year to year record of changes to a commands preventive maintenance program?
CSAL.
181
Each work center shall receive an audit once per quarter by a supervisory individual, (what grade or above)?
E-7.
182
Who is responsible for the effective assessment of the material condition of the activity?
Commanding Officer.
183
What will emphasize safety preservation, damage control readiness, material condition and cleanliness, as well as specific items of interest, and will be structured to ensure rapid correction of major discrepancies that could cause injury to personnel, damage to equipment or constitute a fire hazard?
Zone inspections.
184
All material condition deficiencies that require corrective maintenance, regardless of significance, shall be entered into the what?
Maintenance Data System (MDS).
185
What classification is given to an equipment which has been analyzed by the designated technical review activity, and the need for PMS requirements established?
MRS.
186
What term can be assigned to equipment only if no maintenance other than normal housekeeping actions is required to keep the equipment in good operating condition?
NMR.
187
The intentional placement of a piece of equipment/system in a hibernated state for a specific duration with the intention of reactivating at the end of that duration defines what type of equipment?
Inactive.
188
The intentional placement of a piece of equipment/system out-of-service with no intention of reactivating the equipment/system defines what type of equipment?
Deactivated.
189
Who is responsible for determining equipment IEM Status?
Department Head.
190
What maintenance actions prepare the equipment for periods of prolonged idleness, and are usually performed only once at the beginning of the inactive period?
Lay-Up.
191
What maintenance actions are accomplished on a recurring basis during the inactive period to prevent equipment deterioration?
Periodic.
192
What maintenance actions ensure that equipment is in a condition suitable for operation or to reactivate an equipment or system that has been inactivated for a prolonged period?
Start-Up.
193
To administer any management program effectively, you must be thoroughly versed in the what?
Instructions.
194
Day-to-day maintenance of a program keeps you out of what mode?
Crisis management.
195
Using good quality feedwater will help prevent damage to the what?
Boiler watersides.
196
What is the universal solvent as it tends to dissolve everything it touches?
Water.
197
What in feedwater contributes to scale buildup in boilers?
Hardness.
198
Hardness is caused primarily by calcium and what else?
Magnesium.
199
What act as insulators in the boiler?
Scale deposits.
200
What is an aggressive ion, which attacks and inhibits the formation of the magnetite layer on the boiler metal?
Chloride.
201
What causes localized corrosion and pitting?
Dissolved oxygen.
202
As dissolved oxygen contacts the boiler metal it forms what, which dissolved the metal to form a black iron oxide that covers the pit?
Anode.
203
The Navy uses two types of boiler water treatment. The older treatment method is the coordinated phosphate (Cophos) treatment. The newer treatment method is what treatment?
CHELANT.
204
The boiler is a receiver for all contaminants the feedwater system puts into it. One way to prevent these contaminations from damaging the boiler is to precipitate them into what?
Sludge.
205
The Navy uses three treatment chemicals to maintain the phosphate pH relationship. The chemicals are trisodium phosphate (TSP), disodium phosphate (DSP), and what else?
Caustic soda.
206
What is used to control pH and add some of the needed phosphates?
TSP.
207
What occurs when there is a pH rise above the Cophos curve?
Free caustic.
208
You use caustic soda as a treatment chemical only in casualty situations and only with the approval of whom?
Chief engineer.
209
Inject caustic soda at the rate of 1 ounce per how many gallons of boiler water and only when boiler is steaming?
1,000.
210
All 1200 psi and some 600 psi boilers are designed as what?
Type B.
211
What chelates dissolved metals, including calcium and magnesium, by surrounding and bonding to the metal at several places?
EDTA.
212
Metal chelates are removed from the boiler by continuous what?
Blowdown.
213
Continuous blowdown amounts to about a daily blowdown at what percent of normal boiler loads?
4.
214
Initial treatment with the CHELANT system is achieved by what?
Batch treatment.
215
The boiler is tested as often as required to maintain limits, but must not exceed what time frame?
24 hours.
216
Who maintains the boiler water/feedwater chemistry logs?
Oil king.
217
Review of the boiler water/feedwater chemistry logs and records shall be conducted by the main propulsion assistant (MPA) and the chief engineer how often?
Daily.
218
Who reviews the monthly water treatment log package?
Commanding Officer (CO).
219
What is essentially a shipboard laboratory?
Oil shack.
220
Temperature of the laboratory should be maintained below what temperature?
100 oF.
221
The primary fuel tests are visual, bottom sediment and water (BS&W), flash point, and what else?
API gravity.
222
The most common fuel tests are the visual and what?
BS&W.
223
Only water in mechanical suspension is of concern to the engineer. The suspended water is referred to as what?
Free water.
224
What provides spectrometric analysis of lube oil at a designated laboratory?
Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP).
225
A basic requirement of fueling station personnel is a thorough knowledge of what system?
Fuel receiving.
226
Fuel Tanks should be filled only to what percent mark?
95.
227
The final soundings, after temperature and gravity corrections, will determine the amount of fuel received, measure the volume and gravity at a standard temperature of what?
60oF.
228
The specific order of refueling is necessary to maintain the ship's stability. You can find this information in the what?
Ship's Information Book (SIB).
229
What has the responsibility of making the final decision on transferring liquid?
DCC.
230
What system allows controlled flooding of designated fuel tanks for stability control?
Ballasting.
231
What is used for ballast?
Seawater.
232
Consult what instruction before pumping contaminated fuel off the ship?
OPNAVINST 5090.1.
233
Newer ships require inspection of one service tank per fireroom every how many months?
36.
234
Never use jury-rigged extension cords, extension cords should not exceed what in length?
25 feet.
235
What program provides a procedure to prevent improper operation of equipment, components, or systems?
Tag-out.
236
As a minimum, all electrical systems require how many tags to isolate the component?
2.
237
Specific procedures for tag-outs are contained in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 3120.32.
238
Personnel should be trained to notify the EOOW if the dry-bulb temperature reaches or exceeds what in engineering spaces?
100oF.
239
The basic features of an effective training program are compatibility, evaluation and instruction, and what?
Analysis and improvement.
240
Training schedules are made out for how many-month periods?
18.
241
Information on training programs, duties of personnel involved in training, and scheduling training is contained in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 3120.32.
242
For a ship to answer bells and meet commitments, the turbines must be available for what at all times?
Propulsion.
243
How many major types of turbines are used in naval ships?
5
244
What propulsion unit consists of one or more ahead element, each contained in a separate casing and identified as a single casing turbine?
Type I
245
What propulsion unit is a two element straight through unit?
Type II-A
246
What propulsion unit consists of three ahead elements, known as the HP elements, intermediate pressure (IP) element, and LP element?
Type III
247
What transfers steam from the turbine chest to the inlet area of the first stage nozzles in the quantity required to produce the desired power level?
Nozzle control valve
248
What system provides a continuous supply of oil to the turbine and reduction gear bearings?
Main lube oil
249
Under normal operating conditions, the temperature of the oil leaving the lube oil cooler should be between 120oF and what?
130oF
250
The outlet temperature of the bearing should be between 140oF to 160oF but not greater than what?
180oF
251
The maximum temperature rise allowable in the bearing is what?
50oF
252
The bearings and gears require a high grade mineral oil (What TEP)?
2190
253
When operating the turbines, do not rotate them if they have a lube oil temperature below what?
90oF
254
The lube oil purifier should be operated at least how many hours a day when the ship is underway?
12
255
To ensure that a failure of the lube oil supply is handled properly, you should ensure all personnel are trained in the casualty procedures outlines in what books?
Engineering Operating Casualty Control (EOCC)
256
The temperature of oil supplied to the bearings ranges between 120oF and what, and comparisons should be made on the basis of equal inlet temperature?
130oF
257
Any bearing temperature increase above normal operating temperature is considered a what?
Hot bearing
258
Turbine rotors should not remain at rest for more than how long while stream, including gland seal steam, is being admitted to the turbines?
5 minutes
259
The radial position of the turbine is maintained by the what?
Journal bearings
260
The axial position bye the turbine is maintained by the what?
Thrust bearing
261
What is the quickest means of detecting any change in the relief position of the rotor caused by bearing wear?
Depth gauge micrometer
262
The axial position of a turbine rotor is maintained by means of a thrust bearing, usually what type?
Kingsbury type
263
Any large increase in the what will allow the clearances between the rotating and stationary blading to decrease causing parts to rub together?
Thrust clearance
264
Use what to check the clearance between the rotating and stationary blading of the high-pressure and low-pressure turbines?
Taper gauge
265
When a thrust collar is to be re-machined, the bore should be square with the what?
Faces
266
Discoloration of bearing surfaces almost always indicates what problems?
Lubrication
267
One of the more common troubles with nozzle control valves is the leakage of steam between the valve seat and what?
Disk
268
What in conjunction with the gland seal system keeps steam from leaking out of, or keeps air from leaking into, the turbine?
Shaft packing
269
Worn labyrinth packing should be replaced. However, if spare rings are not available, you can repair the packing by using a chisel bar and a what?
Hand chisel
270
How many people are usually needed to raise or lower a main turbine casing?
Ten or twelve
271
What are attached to lifting devices so that chain hoists maybe used in lifting the rotor?
Shackles
272
Before oil is circulated through the lube-oil system, fit what in the lube-oil strainers?
Muslin bags
273
What is one of the largest and most expensive units of machinery found in the engineering department?
Main reduction gear
274
Reduction gears are coupled to what through various arrangement of gears?
Turbine shaft
275
Reduction gears are classified according to the number of steps used to reduce speed and the arrangement of the gearing. A combination of gears is called a what?
Train
276
The correct quantity and quality of lubricating oil must, at all times, be available in the what?
Main sump
277
For most main reduction gears, the normal temperature of oil leaving the lube-oil cooler should be between what and 130oF?
120oF
278
Ships should take every opportunity to have laboratory tests made of the lube oil. Good engineering practice dictates that this be done every how often, or more frequently in unusual conditions?
3 months
279
When the neutralization number exceeds what, replace the lube oil?
0.50
280
What will cause wiped bearings and worn gear teeth?
Emulsified oil
281
To prevent misunderstanding and confusion in preparing to get underway, use what?
EOSS
282
When the ship is underway, observe all oil pressures and temperature to see that they remain normal. Record these pressure and temperatures every how often?
Hourly
283
A rumbling sound that occurs at low-shaft rpm is generally caused by the low pressure turbine gearing floating through its what?
Backlash
284
The most common causes of vibration in a main reduction gear are faulty alignment, bent shafting, damaged propellers, and what?
Improper balance
285
During drills the shaft should not be locked more than how long, if possible?
5 minutes
286
Under normal conditions, what should handle major repairs and major items of maintenance on a main reduction gear?
Shipyard
287
Enough spares are carried aboard to replace what percent of the number of bearings in the main reduction gear?
50
288
To maintain shaft parallelism, ensure that bearings on the ends of gear or pinion shafts do not differ more than what?
0.002 inch
289
Start a lube-oil service pump to circulate oil through the system. Change the muslin bags at how many minute intervals until they no longer pick up dirt? Then you can engage and start the turning gear?
30
290
The simplest means of checking end play is to use what on any accessible flange on the main shaft while the engines are going slowly ahead and then astern?
Dial indicator
291
If it is not practical to measure the end play while the engine is running, the next choice is to what (while it is still warm) fore and aft at some convenient main shaft flange?
Jack the shaft
292
Pitting that is progressive and continues at an increasing rate is known as what?
Destructive pitting
293
What term demotes a general roughening of the whole tooth surface?
Scoring
294
You may scrape gear teeth to remove a local hump or deformation; however, you may not scrape gear teeth to obtain contact without the approval of what?
Naval Sea Systems Command
295
What is the play between the unloaded surfaces of the teeth in mesh on the pitch circle?
Backlash
296
How many sets of readings are required to get an accurate check of the propulsion shafting?
Two
297
The high pressure turbine shaft and the low pressure turbine shaft are connected to their respective first reduction pinions by what?
Flexible couplings
298
When conditions warrant or if trouble is suspected, submit a work request to a naval shipyard to perform a what of the main reduction gear?
10 year inspection
299
The 10 year inspection may be extended by whom when operating conditions indicate that a longer interval between inspections is desirable?
Type commander
300
All inspection covers, whether hinged, pinned, or bolted, should be secured by locks of a high security type. The custody of keys for these locks is the responsibility of whom?
Engineering officer
301
Plates and panels secured with more than how many bolts or nuts need not be locked?
12
302
In an emergency, when the ship is steaming at a high speed you can stop the main shaft and hold it stationary by the what until the ship has slowed down to a speed at which you can safety lock the main shaft?
Astern turbine.
303
Who are responsible for ensuring the proper installation of operation of PMS within the ships under their command?
Type Commanders (TYCOMs)
304
Prior to the PMS installation, equipment configuration information will be verified by the what?
Configuration Data Manager (CDM)
305
What contains information relative to PMS requirements for specific equipment for which the command is responsible?
PMS Master File
306
How many months prior to the start of overhaul (SOH) will the responsible Regional Maintenance Center (RMC) initiate a letter of request to NAVSEALOGCEN Det Norfolk/San Diego as appropriate for a PMS update package?
3
307
What provide the maintenance and material managers throughout the Navy with the means of plan, acquire, organize, direct, control, and evaluate manpower and material resources expended or planned for expenditure in support of maintenance?
MDS
308
3-M Organizational Level Maintenance provides a means to effectively manage and control organizational maintenance. It is primarily managed via the what?
Current Ship's Maintenance Project (CSMP)
309
what 3-M Systems Central Database is the focal point for receipt and distribution of maintenance and material data?
Naval Sea Logistics Center (NAVSEALOGCEN)
310
What is the source for configuration and logistic support data available to ships and other fleet and shore activities?
CDMD OA database
311
The Division Officer shall check the Work Candidate/JSN log at least how often?
Weekly
312
What type of maintenance action is not expected to be accomplished by ship's force within the time frame prescribed by the TYCOM?
Deferred
313
For non-automated sites, what Ship's Maintenance Action Form is used to report a deferred maintenance Action?
OPNAV 4790/2K
314
What occurs when a maintenance action alters the design or operating characteristics of the equipment?
Modification
315
What provide the management of configuration and scheduling information for each equipment requiring periodic maintenance or calibration?
PMRs
316
What is a process that provides the capability for data collection on unique data elements, related to specific equipment, that are in addition to the standard Work Candidate (2-Kilo) submission?
SLR
317
The value contained in the what controls whether an individual equipment record is regarded as an SLR record?
SEI
318
As a general rule equipment will automatically be removed from SLR after a period of how many years?
3
319
Who are responsible for informing applicable TYCOMs/Fleet Commanders if the SLR data is not being received?
SYSCOMs
320
What provides the TYCOM with the means of determining urgent repairs for scheduling IMA availability, shipyard overhauls, or restricted availability?
CSMP
321
Who is responsible for evaluating and resolving errors in the CSMP?
3-M Coordinator
322
Who may request assist visits from the type commaders who can recognize problems the command may be having difficulty in effectively identifying, scheduling, performing, and documenting maintenance actions?
Commanding Officer
323
The ship shall phase out PMS coverage of equipment in concert with the what?
Decommissioning plan
324
The ship shall stop MDS reporting how many months prior to its decommissioning date?
2
325
How many weeks prior to transfer of an operational (hot ship) to a foreign navy will the ship document all outstanding maintenance for inclusion in the CSMP?
2
326
What was established by Congress as a board to periodically examine naval vessels and make recommendations to the Secretary of the Navy if any should be stricken from the Naval Vessel Register?
INSURV
327
Examination of naval vessels is conducted as a what, which consists of operational tests or demonstrations of major systems and equipment?
Material Inspection (MI)
328
The INSURV Board prepares material deficiency documents to record conditions found during the inspection using what?
Fleet Standard Assessment Tool Set
329
Who shall pay particular attention to ensuring that the mechanisms to identity, document and correct material deficiencies identified by ship's force or others are accurately reflected within the CSMP?
ISIC
330
What is "the sole source of work to be accomplished by industrial activities, FMAs, and organizational level activities" and therefore should reflect the deficient material items requiring maintenance action?
CSMP
331
What capital letter indicates that, in the INSURV reviewer's opinion, correction of the deficiency is the responsibility of the contractor because he or his subcontractors or vendors failed to meet the requirements of the contract?
K
332
What capital letter indicates that is the INSURV reviewer's opinion correction of the deficiency is the responsibility of the government?
G
333
What enhances force readiness and helps identify material problems?
3-M System
334
What aids managers by determining how efficiently the command's 3-M program is operating, and help identify areas with potential problems?
Assist visit
335
The TYCOM or ISIC under TYCOM direction shall conduct a complete inspection of each command under their cognizance, not to exceed how many months, to determine the effectiveness of the 3-M program with that command?
24
336
What provides correct information to allow effective planning and estimating of deferred maintenance actions?
CSMP
337
Submarine PMT Program was established by whom as a method of collecting objective engineering evidence of ship system performance?
Chief of Naval Operations.
338
The deficiencies and recommendations that result from PMT inspection and monitored maintenance are published in an engineering memorandum called what?
On Site Analysis Report (OSAR)
339
What is a finite period of time usually corresponding to a patrol period for SSBN's or aligned with maintenance availabilities taking the IDTC into account for the SSN's?
Monitoring period
340
The data collected per the datasheets attached to the "K" MRC's, as well as the deficiency reports is entered into the PMT's engineering analysis system and real-time uploaded to a main database. Over how many years of data exists for the data that is collected?
10
341
What is the CNO strategy for maintaining ship, aircraft, and infrastructure material designed to optimize maintenance program costs throughout the life cycle?
Condition Based Maintenance (CBM)
342
What provides both the maintenance engineering principles used to determine objective evidence of need and the methodology for determining and continuously improving applicable and effective maintenance requirements and assessment procedures and tools?
Reliability Centered Maintenance
343
New or modified Common Assessment Procedures shall be developed as what?
Maintenance Requirements Card (MRCs)
344
What tasks shall be used to call out use of the Common Assessment Procedure included in the appropriate CMPs?
Class Maintenance Plan
345
Who shall oversee the core processes for Class Maintenance Plans in acquisition program and in-service ships, including development of Common Assessment Procedures?
COMNAVSEA
346
What process applies "Backfit" Reliability-Centered Maintenance (RCM) methodology in a broad-based MER to examine maintenance requirements for systems or equipment that are exhibiting negative maintenance and reliability trends in execution?
FLEETMER
347
The recommended maintenance requirement changes from FLEETMER are documented as Technical Feedback Reports (TFBRs) and assigned as either Planned Maintenance System (PMS) or as what actions?
Class Maintenance Plan (CMP)
348
FLEETMER is a lean process using the concepts of what to efficiently analyze and update the entire maintenance plan for selected systems and equipment in a collaborative environment of maintenance stakeholders?
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
349
What is responsible for coordinating and executing MERs per approved processes/procedures and to ensure those resources available for reviewing and improving maintenance are efficiently utilized?
Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA)
350
Who is responsible for the complete analysis and data capture for the assigned FLEETMER systems, including the RCM review as directed by the system project plan?
System Analyst
351
During the FLEETMER, who assists systems subject matter experts, including the TWH/ISEA, in the RCM analysis and performs quality assurance checks?
Facilitator
352
What is the Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command's lead organization tasked with continuously improving Class Maintenance Plans (CMPs) across ship enterprises?
Common Maintenance Planning Working Group (CMPWG)
353
Who provides system/equipment expertise to system analysts prior to FLEETMER to assist upfront analysis and scope determination?
Commodity Specialist (NAVSEALOGCEN Dets)
354
Who provide technical expertise prior to the FLEETMER in the area of off-ship maintenance requirements?
System Specialists
355
Who provide technical expertise for fleet maintenance issues including Navy repair processes and best practices?
Port Engineers
356
What process identifies cross enterprise High Maintenance Burden systems and components and ranks them through analysis of 3-M, CASREP, Material Condition Assessment (MCA), cost, safety, Fleet/TYCOM recommendations, and mission criticality data?
MP-EA
357
What consists of shipboard and shore maintenance experts, the PMS commodity specialist, and the NAVSEA Technical Community who provide technical assistance in MER preparation, MER analysis, and post MER evaluation of changes?
Community of Practice
358
The creation of a what enables the Community of Practice to analyze and make decisions related to the structure of the maintenance program for the system/systems being reviewed?
CFBD
359
What is a tool to be used to generate a broader understanding of the maintenance program associated with a particular system?
Matrix
360
What metrics will address the cost impact and benefits of the FLEETMER?
Return On Investment (ROI)
361
What meeting will be coordinated following each FLEETMER to identify strengths and weaknesses of the process?
Lessons Learned
362
Ship's maintenance information is reported by fleet personnel to what which is located in Mechanicsburg, PA, for processing into the Ships' Maintenance and Material Management (3-M) System Database?
Naval Sea Logistics Center (NAVSEALOGCEN)
363
The Ships' 3-M On-line database is a historical repository of corrective maintenance actions spanning from what year through the current date?
1995
364
What is an intuitive, flexible tool that operates in a Windows environment and was designed to make retrieving maintenance and material management information quick and easy?
OARS
365
What contains a mirror image of all code tables implemented within the current releases of the Organization Maintenance Management System - Next Generation (OMMS-NG) and the Maintenance Resource Management System (MRMS), and the Regional Maintenance Automated Information System (RMAIS)?
MMBU Standard Codes Forum
366
What describes the format of all data records processed through the legacy Shipboard Non-Tactical ADP Program (SNAP) systems, which are found within Ships' 3-M?
Ships' 3-M Data Record Layout
367
The ships' 3-M System consists of the Planned Maintenance System (PMS) along with what else and is the nucleus for managing maintenance aboard all ships and shore stations of the Navy?
Maintenance Data System (MDS)
368
What is responsible for maintaining a 3-M?
Naval Education Training Command (NETC)
369
Who must ensure adequate 3-M Program training for all personnel within the command associated with maintenance, configuration and logistics support management?
TYCOMs
370
What is the program manager for fleet-wide 3-M training?
Center for Service Support (CSS)
371
Who establishes and maintains a viable 3-M system training program to sustain that level of knowledge and awareness received during formal training?
Commanding Officer
372
What is developed to provide the maintenance task requirement needed to plan, schedule, and control Intermediate and Depot-level planned maintenance effectively?
CMP
373
How many categories of CMP maintenance tasks are there?
2
374
What type of CMP maintenance tasks are performed by a non-time based event or objective evidence of need?
Unscheduled tasks
375
Who shall oversee the core processes for CMPs in acquisition program and in service ships?
COMNAVSEA
376
Each tag-out log is administered by a what?
Authorizing Officer
377
For submarines underway on the surface, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) may designate the officer or Petty Officer in Charge (POIC) of the control room as the Authorizing Officer. During this time no tag will be issued or cleared without the verbal concurrence of the what?
OOD
378
What is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and adequacy of tag-out before signing the TORS?
Repair Activity (RA)
379
Ship's Force qualification in the Tag-out Users Manual should be done by the completion of what Personnel Qualification Standard, and if required, completion of departmental qualifications?
3M 301
380
Use what to prohibit the operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems or components?
Danger tags
381
Use what to provide temporary special instruction(s) or to indicate that unusual action must be exercised to operate equipment?
Caution tags
382
What are tag-outs that have been approved for use for a specific work item with a specific set of ship/system conditions?
Certified tag-outs
383
Work on any component that has a danger tag or caution tag attached is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the what and, when required, the appropriate RA supervisor?
Department Head
384
The Department Head shall ensure that tag out audit are performed every how often?
2 weeks
385
For ships that are in overhaul, conversion, or restricted availability, conduct audits of the propulsion plant tag-out log(s) how often?
Weekly
386
During Chief Of Naval Operations availabilities, the tag-out process shall be monitored by the what?
Shipyard
387
What is a red tag prohibiting operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components?
Danger Tag
388
What contains the number of tags required for the tag out, the location of each tag, the position of the tagged item (e.g., open, shut, off, on, etc.) and the permission and notification requirements for the maintenance and tag-out action?
TGL
389
TGLs are to be prepared by whom, reviewed independently by the Division Officer, and approved by the Department Head prior to use?
Work Center Supervisor (WCS)
390
An audit will be performed of the Instrument Log and associated labels how often?
Monthly
391
Who is the person with authority to sign for issuing and clearing tags and labels?
Authorizing Officer
392
What is a yellow tag used as a precautionary measure to provide temporary special instruction or to indicate that unusual action must be exercised to operate equipment?
Caution Tag
393
What is a red tag prohibiting operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components?
Danger Tag
394
What is a temporary wire used to modify a circuit, such as by completing or bypassing the circuit?
Electrical Jumper
395
What is the control document for administering labels (OOC and CAL)?
Instrument Log
396
Out-of-Calibration Labels are labels of what color used to identify instruments that are out of calibration and will not accurately indicate parameters?
Orange
397
What is a red label used to identify instruments that will not correctly indicate parameters because they are defective, or isolated from the system?
Out-of-Commission
398
What is any activity other than Ship's Force involved in the construction, testing, repair, overhaul, refueling, or maintenance of the ship?
RA.
399
For Ship's Force maintenance conducted in nuclear propulsion plants, what contains the requirements regarding when a WAF is needed?
Engineering Department Manual
400
When the job description on the WAF covers multiple components and their associated Technical Work Document (TWD), what is addition to the WAF may be used to document this work?
TWD Record Sheet
401
What is the process by which Ship's Force transfers the authority to approve all actions within a system or portion of a system to a shipyard and subsequent return of systems back to Ship's Force prior to major events?
Transfer of systems
402
Normally, Ship's Force retains responsibility for PMS, unless otherwise specified in the what?
MOA
403
Electrical power, a vital part of today's modern Navy, is provided throughout naval ships by steam-driven what?
Turbogenerators
404
What in a turbine indicates that the unit is not in proper working condition?
Vibration
405
What items for turbines are required for each preventive maintenance task?
Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
406
What prevents leakage of steam from an ingress of air into the turbines under all conditions of operation?
Packing
407
To obtain maximum effective sealing, maintain the tip width of packing teeth at what?
0.010 inch
408
Never use what material to remake a steam casing joint?
Sheet gasket
409
To seal the joint of a turbine, coat the surfaces with a thin layer of linseed oil and graphite or what?
Copalite
410
What turbines are usually provided with an opening in the casing t check blade clearance?
Axial flow
411
Labyrinth packing and, in a few cases, what are used between the inner bore of the nozzle diaphragm and the rotor to seal against steam leakage?
Carbon seals
412
Where water or dampness remains in contact with the casing, what can seriously weaken the casing?
Corrosion
413
Turbogenerator reduction gears are generally of the single-reduction, single helical type, with a reduction of about what ratio?
8 to 1
414
The installation of new bearings requires a thorough check on the alignment of the gear mesh to assure at least what percent contact?
90
415
Most journal bearings are cylindrical and of the steel-backed, what type?
Babbitt-lined
416
All of the oil supplied to the bearings, except that supplied by the hand pump before starting, passes through the oil manifold and the what?
Strainer
417
The hand valve should be set to maintain about what psig on the lube-oil system?
8 to 10
418
When the turbogenerator is operating, clean the lube-oil strainers at least once each what?
Watch
419
All turbine-driven generators have a lube-oil low-pressure alarm. The alarm contactor is located in the lube-oil line leading to the bearings and is set at the factory to operate when the oil pressure drops to what psig?
4
420
The high-pressure gauge is labeled OIL PUMP PRESSURE; and the normal reading is from 50 to what psig, depending on the type of governor used?
100
421
The low-pressure gauge is labeled BEARING OIL PRESSURE, and the normal reading for this gauge is about what psig?
8 to 10
422
If it is found that one of the pinion bearings or one of the main gear bearings is worn more than what amount more than the other bearing, replace or restore or restore the bearings to design clearance?
0.002 inch
423
What is a term used to express the change in speed that occurs with a change in load?
Regulation
424
What governor is defined as a governor which controls and regulates the admission of the steam to a turbine?
Constant speed
425
What is a device that automatically releases the operating oil pressure under the throttle valve operating piston?
Overspeed trip
426
What is used to stop the flow of steam to the turbine in an emergency?
Manual trip
427
Three devices are used to protect the turbine against excessive exhaust pressure: a sentinel valve, a back pressure tripping device, and a what?
Relief valve
428
The sentinel valve is spring loaded and set to function at what psig?
2
429
The back pressure trip is set at the factory to function at what psig?
5
430
The relief valve is normally set to open at what psig?
10 to 15
431
Examine and clean the lube-oil strainers at least once each how many hours of operation, and more often if operating conditions indicate the need for more frequent cleaning?
4
432
Under normal operating conditions, what side of a main condenser should be inspected in accordance with the planned maintenance system?
Saltwater
433
For short-term lay-ups, the saltwater side should be kept full. Circulate the water once a day for at least how long by running the circulating pump?
10 minutes
434
The most common cause of tube leakage is what, which starts at the saltwater side of the tube and proceeds through the tube wall of the steam side?
Deterioration
435
Tube deterioration caused by impingement erosion of the tube ends can be minimized by proper regulation of circulating water through condensers and by proper venting of what?
Water chests
436
If what impinges on condenser tubes at high velocity, the surface of the tubes will rapidly erode?
Wet steam
437
What or distribution pipes installed within the condenser shell prevents direct impingement of water and steam from the auxiliary exhaust line, the recirculating line, and the makeup feed line?
Baffles
438
Before any work is begun in retubing a main condenser, authorization must be obtained from what?
NAVSEA
439
Only what type of tubes conforming to NAVSEA specification may be used in condensers that are saltwater cooled?
Copper-nickel
440
Nearly all condensers installed aboard naval ships have the inlet tube ends expanded in the what, forming a metal-to-metal joint?
Tube sheet
441
A tube expander must be properly set for a given job. To do this, you must ensure that the overall length of the rolls are not less than three-sixteenths inch nor more than what size greater than the thickness of the tube sheet into which the tube is expanded?
Five-eighths inch
442
Use what packing, in accordance with Navy specifications, to pack the outlet ends of packed condenser tubes?
Flexible metallic
443
When a condenser is secured, keep what side empty?
Steam
444
Never subject condensers to a test pressure in excess of what?
15 psig
445
The most frequent casualty to a main condenser is a reduction i what?
Vacuum
446
When the gate valve in the circulating-water overboard piping is used to regulate the water flow through the condenser, this valve should be kept at least what?
One-quarter open
447
During standby most installations fitted with properly functioning air ejectors will produce a maximum vacuum of about how many inches of mercury with cold injection temperature?
29 1/2
448
What remove gases from the feedwater by using the principle that the volubility of gases in feedwater approaches zero when the water temperature approaches the boiling point?
Deaerating Feed Tanks (DFTs)
449
What should be operated as required to maintain the oil (inlet) temperature to the bearings at the designed valve?
Oil coolers
450
With reasonable care, lube-oil coolers on Navy ships will remain in service for several years. When salt water is used as the cooling medium, failure is usually caused by erosion, because of high water velocity, or by corrosion, because of what?
Electrolytic action
451
Most oil cooler failures have occurred to units that are supplied with cooling water from a what?
Service main
452
What are used for closed circuit cooling of machinery?
Air coolers
453
Clean the air cooler at least every how often?
6 months
454
General information on starting, shifting, and securing air ejectors is given in each ship's what?
Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS)
455
In general, air ejector nozzles maybe cleaned with what?
Reamers
456
What pumps are generally restricted to use as emergency feed pumps, fuel-oil pumps, and lube-oil tank stripping pumps?
Reciprocating
457
Many emergency feed pumps can use what; however, the air and steam should never be interfaced?
LP air
458
Obstructions in the suction line often cause operating problems in what pumps?
Fire and bilge
459
Hot liquid will often vaporize and cause reciprocating pumps to slow down and lose pump to operate erratically or stop?
Worn piston rings
460
When packing a pump with tucks, flax, or other soft packing, soak the packing in hot water for how long before fitting and installing?
12 hours
461
What is a frequent source of trouble with pumps?
Improper alignment
462
In some cases, when steam cylinder foundation pad bolts are slacked off, the cylinder pads pull away from the foundation as much as what distance?
One-half inch
463
What are widely used on board ship to pump water and other non-viscous liquids and have several advantages over reciprocating pumps?
Centrifugal pumps
464
Flexible couplings for the centrifugal pump will take care of only very slight misalignment, usually about how much?
0.002 to 0.004 inch
465
A vapor bound feed pump will require about how many seconds to overheat, causing the wearing rings to seize?
15
466
For an installation designed to operate at 50 psi of booster pressure, the main feed pump should not be turned over when there is less than what psi of booster pressure?
40
467
What are rapidly replacing conventional packing in most centrifugal and rotary pumps?
Mechanical seals
468
Mechanical seals use what from the liquid being pumped to help seal the shaft and stuffing box?
Bleed pressure
469
What types of bearings are installed in main condensate pumps and main condenser circulating pumps?
Water-Lubricated
470
Most water lubricated bearings are now made of rubber or what material?
Phenolic
471
In what type of bearings, the journal is supported by the races and rolling elements rather than the oil film?
Rolling contact
472
All pump and driving unit rotating parts are balanced dynamically for all speeds from at rest to what percent of rated speed?
125
473
There are currently two types of flexible couplings in use. The most common type is what?
Self-lubricated type
474
How many methods are used for checking alignment in shafts connected by flange-type rigid couplings?
3
475
Whenever new rotors are installed, you must establish the proper settings for what?
Locating cap
476
On ships built since when, the attached lube-oil pump is driven from the main reduction gear by an assembly of bevel and spur gears?
World War II
477
What pumps are fitted with devices to control or limit the speed of the unit or to regulate the discharge pressure of the unit?
Turbine driven
478
What are set to give a rated speed at rated load conditions?
Speed limiting governors
479
With the governor properly set, the turbine speed should not exceed the rated speed for any condition of load by more than what?
5 percent
480
Speed limiting governors should be inspected and tested in accordance with what?
3-M systems
481
Turbine driven main feed pumps and fire pumps are fitted with what type of governors?
Constant pressure
482
Ensure that overspeed trips are set to shut off steam to the unit when the rated speed is exceeded by what percent?
10
483
The chloride content of distillate discharged to the ship's tanks must not exceed what equivalent per million?
0.065
484
A failure to get what is one of the most frequent troubles in the operation of a distilling plant?
Full rated capacity
485
A distilling plant cannot maintain its full output unless it is supplied with dry steam at the designed pressure. The orifices must pass the proper amount of steam to ensure plant output with a pressure of about what psig above the orifice?
5
486
Inspect the orifice how often?
Annually
487
The pressure in the first effect tube must range from how many inches of mercury, with clean tubes, to 3 inches of mercury as scale forms?
14
488
On newer ships, the water levels are automatically controlled by what types of feed regulators?
Weir
489
Most manufacturer's technical manuals call for a vacuum of approximately how many inches of mercury in the last effect shell when the temperature of the seawater is 85oF?
24
490
The primary causes of air ejector problems are low steam pressure, wet steam, an obstructed nozzle, or a what?
Clogged steam strainer
491
An insufficient flow of circulating water is indicated if the temperature of the water rises more than what in passing through the condensing section of the distiller condenser?
20oF
492
The concentration of what is the evaporators, to a certain extent, has a direct bearing on the quality of the distillate?
Brine
493
In what year did the Chief of Naval Operations decided that the Navy would install the sewage collecting holding, and transfer (CHT) system (a type of MSD) aboard naval ships that could use that method of sewage pollution control without serious reduction in military capabilities?
1972
494
Navy ships have how many types of CHT systems?
2
495
CHT systems with tanks with a capacity of more than how many gallons use a comminutor and aeration system?
2000
496
The goal of the CHT system is to provide the capacity to hold shipboard sewage generated over a period of what time frame?
12 hours
497
What aboard ship include fuel oil tanks, fuel oil piping, fuel oil pumps, and the equipment we use to strain, measure, and burn the fuel oil?
Fuel oil systems
498
Navy ships use how many kinds of tanks that are part of the ship's system to receive, hold, and distribute fuel oil?
4
499
The fuel oil filling systems operate with a minimum pressure of approximately what psi at the deck connections?
40
500
What system can clear the tanks of sludge and water before oil is pumped from these tanks by the fuel oil booster and transfer pumps or by the fuel oil service pumps?
Fuel oil tank stripping
501
Aboard some ships, what can be used as boiler fuel in emergencies?
JP-5
502
If the transfer pump is having difficulty moving the fuel, and the fuel in the tank is below 50oF, you may heat fuel oil to approximately what to dissolve the waxy constituents?
75oF
503
When ships are refueled where the ambient temperature is below 40oF, do not fill storage tanks above what percent of capacity?
95%
504
As a rule, man fueling stations how long before fueling time?
30 minutes
505
If you are using a sounding rod during refueling, sound the tank every 3 or 4 minutes until it is nearly how full and then take continuous readings?
75%
506
Whenever a liquid is shifted from one place to another aboard ship, there is an effect on the ship's list, trim, or what?
Stability
507
What system allows controlled flooding of certain designated tanks to control the ship's stability?
Ballasting
508
Any soot blower head must be discarded immediately if it has a thickness of what percent less than the original thickness specified on the applicable drawings or is shown to be structurally unsound by examination?
50%
509
Most soot blowers require the occasional addition or renewal of what?
Packing
510
What packing is usually used on soot blowers?
Split-ring
511
Bearings for the soot blower elements are made of 25 percent chrome, 20 percent nickel or 20 percent chrome, 12 percent what?
Nickel
512
On many soot blowers, the blowing arcs are controlled by what?
Cams
513
What provides a means to prevent combustion gases from backing up into the soot blower head?
Scavenging air system
514
Most boiler explosions occur during what?
Boiler light off
515
What was designed specifically for inspecting the furnace for unburned fuel?
Boiler Inspection Device (BID)
516
What are used to observe the water level from various locations in the fireroom?
Remote Water Level Indicators (RWLIs)
517
In what year did Congress pass a law prohibiting the discharge of refuse in navigable waters of the United States
1899
518
What Act prohibits the discharge of oil of any kind (fuel oil, sludge, oily waste, and so forth) into navigable waters?
Oil Pollution Act of 1924
519
The Oil Pollution Act of 1961 prohibits the discharge of oil or oily mixtures, such as ballast, within the prohibited zones established by any nation, and those zones range from 50 to how many miles seaward from the nearest land?
150
520
The Oil Pollution Act of 1924 was repealed by what legislation?
Water Quality Improvement Act of 1979
521
In what year, Congress passed two acts that declared a national policy to improve the environment?
1970
522
The Navy's environmental quality program is the Environmental and National Resource Program Manual, what instruction number?
OPNAVINST 5090.1
523
The Navy will not discharge oil products within any prohibited zone, and we will not discharge trash and garbage within what distance of shore?
12 miles (50NM)
524
The preferred method to reduce and control environmental pollution is what?
Prevention
525
All oil spills and slicks or sheens within the how many mile prohibited zone of the United States shall be reported immediately?
50
526
What regulations require the Navy to control sewage discharges?
Secretary of Defense
527
The Navy intends that all naval ships will be equipped with what that will allow them to comply with the sewage discharge standards without compromising mission capability?
Marine Sanitation Devices (MSD)
528
On burners with safety shutoff valves or other automatic safety devices, the thickness of the what is very important?
Gaskets
529
Navy boilers are fitted with safety valves on the steam drum and the what?
Superheater outlet
530
What safety valve system replaces the pilot safety valve as the superheater outlet safety valve?
Greno Industrial Supply (GIS)
531
After a period of service, safety valves may simmer when they are within what percent of their popping pressure?
1%
532
For satisfactory operation of safety valves, essential what must be retained?
Original dimensions
533
Safety valve springs, spindles (stems), and adjusting screws will not be what?
Painted
534
Settings for safety valves of all ships are issued by what?
NAVSEA
535
On boilers with a drum pressure of 325 psi or below (300 psi nominal standard safety valves), the maximum tolerance is plus or minus what?
3 psi
536
On boilers with a steam drum pressure of 326 to 710 psi ( 600 psi nominal standard safety valves), the maximum tolerance is plus or minus what?
5 psi
537
On boilers with a steam drum pressure of 711 to 1410 psi (1500 psi nominal standard safety valves), the maximum tolerance is plus or minus what?
10 psi
538
Blowdown range between what percent of individual safety valve lift (popping) pressure is acceptable, if the boiler valves reseat in proper sequential order?
3 to 6 %
539
One common problem with spring loaded safety valves is leakage past the valve's what?
Seating surfaces
540
Don't place gags on the safety valves of a steaming boiler until the boiler pressure is what psi below the lowest safety valve setting?
100 to 200
541
What is used to lift the safety valves during emergency conditions and also to check that safety valve internals are free without over-pressurizing the boiler?
Safety valve hand easing gear
542
You need to check the hand easing gear operation every how many operating hours?
1,800 to 2,000
543
What are installed to remove soot from the boiler firesides while the boilers are steaming?
Soot blowers
544
Soot blowers elements should be rotated at a rate of how many seconds for each 90 degrees of rotation?
10 to 15
545
Most rotary soot blowers operate at what?
300 psi
546
Stationary soot blowers operate at what?
150 psi
547
Soot blower piping is inspected according to what?
PMS
548
Insulation and lagging should NOT be used on soot blower steam piping located underneath the what?
Floor plates
549
Brine density, which should never exceed what ratio, is dependent mainly on the quantity of brine pumped overboard and the amount of fresh water being produced?
1.5/32
550
What is used to measure the degree of salinity or the concentration of brine?
Salinometer
551
In the flash type of distilling plant, the temperature of the water is never raised beyond what?
175oF
552
Flash evaporation takes place at temperatures as low as what?
104oF
553
What term means that water is converted to steam as it enters an evaporating chamber, without further addition of heat?
Flash evaporation
554
What is a gas or liquid heat exchanger that raises the feedwater temperature before it enters the flash chamber of the first evaporator stage?
Saltwater heater
555
Perform a hydrostatic test on the shell of the saltwater heater before replacing the heads at what psig?
8 to 110
556
The capacity of the compressor is controlled by unloading and loading the what?
Cylinders
557
Unloading of the cylinders in the compressor is accomplished by lifting the suction valves off their seats and holding them open. This method of capacity control unloads the cylinders completely and still allows the compressor to work at as much as what percent of its rated capacity?
25
558
A capacity control valve of what type controls oil pressure from the capacity control valve?
Regulating
559
To test the compressor discharge valves, pump down the compressor to what psig?
2
560
Do not check the compressor suction valve efficiency of new units until after the compressor has been in operation for at least how many days?
3
561
What have a solvent action and will loosen any foreign matter in the system?
Refrigerants
562
The compressor discharge line terminates at the what?
Refrigerant condenser
563
What valve is essentially a reducing valve between the high pressure side and low pressure side of the system?
Thermostatic expanasion
564
Thermostatic expansion valves used in most shipboard systems can be adjusted to maintain a superheat ranging approximately from 4oF to what at the cooling coil outlet?
12oF
565
Under normal operating conditions, when the compressor stops, the receiver of a properly charged system is about what percent full of refrigerant?
85
566
If the temperature of the liquid leaving the receiver is more than what amount lower than the temperature corresponding to the discharge pressure, the system should be purged?
5oF
567
You should always defrost the cooling coils before the frost thickness reaches what of an inch?
Three-sixteenths
568
Dehydrated air should be heated to about what temperature?
240oF
569
A two stage pump is started for operation in what so that maximum displacement may be obtained during the initial pump down stages?
Parallel
570
Reactivation is accomplished by removing the drying agent and heating it for how many hours at a temperature of 300oF to bake out the moisture?
12
571
In most installations, it is only necessary to prevent the humidity from exceeding what percent?
55
572
The two position control system can easily be checked out in a reasonably short time. The checkout should be made at least every how many months or more often if necessary?
3
573
How many people shall be present at all times while refrigerant is being charged into a refrigeration system?
2
574
Ensure that ventilation in the space is adequate to keep the concentration of refrigerant below how many parts per million?
1,000
575
Where available, use a what with an alarm to continuously monitor the atmosphere in the space where refrigerant is used?
Halide monitor
576
Most modern naval vessels have what type of steering gear?
Electrohydraulic
577
The direction and rate of rudder travel are controlled by changing the position of the what in the hydraulic pump?
Tilting block
578
All electric power to the crane controllers should be disconnected at the what?
Power distribution panel
579
Carriers have how many or more electrohydraulic elevators capable of handling airplanes between the flight and hangar decks at relatively high speed?
2
580
Two types of conveyors are used for shipboard handling; gravity and what else?
Powered
581
What type of conveyors should require little or no maintenance?
Gravity
582
What conveyors consists of a drive system that includes a drive motor, clutch, speed reducer, motor brake, drive shafts with chain sprockets, and connecting roller chain?
Vertical
583
Properly installed hydraulic piping and valves are seldom a source of trouble, except for what?
Leakage
584
On modern hydraulic transmissions, shaft packing materials are of how many general classifications?
5
585
Packings for use in hydraulic systems containing petroleum-base fluid cannot be used in systems using what fluids and vice versa?
Phosphate ester
586
Large internal leaks can usually be located by installing a what in various parts of the equipment?
Pressure gauge
587
What noises indicate that air is entering the pump intake line?
Popping and Sputtering.
588
If air becomes trapped in a hydraulic system, what will occur in the equipment or in the transmission lines?
Hammering
589
What noises occur as a result of a partial vacuum produced in the active fluid during high speed operation or when a heavy load is applied?
Pounding or rattling
590
The cause of what noise is most likely to be dry bearings, foreign matter in the oil, worn or scored parts, or over-tightness of some adjustment?
Grinding
591
What is term sometimes used to identify noises caused by a vibrating spring-actuated valve, by long pipes improperly secured, by air in the lines, or by binding of some part of the equipment?
Hydraulic chatter
592
If the packing is too tight around some moving part, what types of noises may occur?
Squeals or squeaks
593
The overall goal in maintaining compressed air systems is to prevent a reduction in what?
Compressor capacity
594
To help keep the air supply clean, what are fitted to compressor intakes?
Filters
595
The use of what is prohibited for cleaning air filters, because of explosive fumes that may collect in the compressor or air receiver?
Gasoline or kerosene
596
What is generally the cause of leaking valves?
Dirt
597
Because of the great variety of controls regulating the unloading devices used with compressors, detailed instructions on their adjustment and maintenance must be obtained from what?
Manufacturers' instruction books
598
The one nonreciprocating type of air compressor that is found aboard ship is referred to as a rotary compressor, a centrifugal compressor, or what type of compressor?
Liquid piston
599
The rotary-centrifugal compressor is used to supply what type of compressed air?
Low pressure
600
Details for outline tests and inspections of high pressure air plants may be obtained from the appropriate manufacturer's instruction book or from the what?
Naval Ships' Technical Manual
601
What may result from rapid pressurization of a low pressure dead end portion of the piping system, malfunctioning of compressor aftercoolers, leaky or dirty valves, and many other causes?
Ignition temperatures
602
What can cause an idle forced draft blower to rotate backwards?
Stuck shutter
603
In case of an emergency, you can make minor repairs to fan blades aboard ship; but, you must not make major repairs without specific instructions from what?
NAVSEA
604
The military value of a naval ship depends to a large extent on its what, which in turn depends upon the efficiency with which a propulsion plant is operated?
Cruising radius
605
The primary purpose of the peacetime Navy is to train and prepare personnel for what?
Wartime conditions
606
When a ship is underway, the MMC or MM1 will normally stand watch as the what?
Engineering Officer of the Watch (EOOW)
607
The present machinery arrangement has the basic propulsion plant, consisting of boilers, main engines, turbogenerators and auxiliary machinery of the associated engine room and fireroom, in one compartment. This compartment is called what?
Main machinery room
608
What are provided each ship for the purpose of furnishing a general and uniform guide by which type commanders or their subordinates may estimate or evaluate the engineering performance and readiness of the ships assigned to their command?
Administrative instructions
609
What provide the minimum requirements necessary to qualify on a watch station?
Personnel Qualification Standards
610
What is a general indication of the ship's readiness to operate economically and within established standards?
Fuel performance ratio
611
What is computed in (1) gallons of makeup feed per engine mile, (2) gallons of makeup feed per hour at anchor, and (3) gallons of potable water per person per day?
Water consumption
612
What will not only interfere with the safe operation of the boilers but will also result in a large waste of fuel oil?
Fast accelaration
613
While increasing the economy of the plant, what also reduces the quantity of air necessary for ventilating and cooling the space?
Insulation
614
Feed water and potable water consumption rates are entered on what report?
Fuel and water
615
High feed water consumption indicates a what?
Uneconomical plant
616
What can be an indirect cause of excess fuel oil consumption and improper bearing lubrication?
Cold lube oil
617
Who established the SOY Program to recognize the one Sailor representing the best of the Navy by demonstrating both professional and personal dedication?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
618
What year was the SOY Program expanded to recognize one outstanding Sailor to represent the many superior petty officers serving in shore establishments Navywide?
1973
619
What year was the SOY Program expanded to include the Navy Enlisted Reservist of the Year (inactive)?
1982
620
Who is typified by a history of sustained superior performance, command impact, mission contribution, proven leadership, dedication to self improvement, outstanding professionalism, and superior personal appearance?
SOY candidate
621
Sailors selected for advancement to chief petty officer or officer commissioning (unless formal declination has been approved) or Canvasser recruiters/support personnel eligible for what program are inelligible to compete for SOY?
Enlisted Recruiter of the Year
622
What dates will be SOY Program competitive cycle run through?
October 1st - September 30th
623
Each SOY category coordinator will forward competition dates to the Office of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON) on later than what date of each year?
December 15th
624
Which date of each year must all commands selecting a SOY have their selection boards completed and packages ready for submission to their respective force commander to allow adequate time for subsequent levels of competition?
December 1st
625
How many years of sustained superior performance will each SOY selection board review in order to remain consistent with a chief petty officer selection board process as the final candidates will be advanced to chief petty officer?
5
626
Which Sailor of the Year Grading Sheet form will be used at all competition levels?
OPNAV 1650/17
627
Which Sailor of the Year competition levels and above will award the Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal to all participants?
Force
628
Which medal will be awarded by the respective echelons for all selected SOYs below the force level of competition?
NAM
629
Where will SOYs selected for advancement of Chief Petty Officer be assigned as students at the earliest opportunity following their advancement?
Senior Enlisted Academy (SEA)
630
Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four elements of the Navy's suicide prevention program?
Reporting
631
At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full time contractors who work on military installations?
Annually
632
MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors?
OPNAVINST 3100.6
633
What is a self inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit or explicit) of the intent to die?
Suicide
634
Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by the medical examiner?
60
635
How many weeks after a member's suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the DoDSER and respond to unforeseen questions?
6-8
636
What is a self inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non fatal outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence (either implicit or explicit) of intent to die?
Suicide attempt
637
Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DoDSER be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by competent medical authority?
30
638
Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully implemented?
SPC
639
Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy?
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education) (CNO (N1))
640
Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibit suicide related ideations, communications or behaviors?
Chief, BUMED
641
Who develops the written procedures to ensures that chaplains/religious program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities throughout the Navy?
OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (N097)
642
Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies?
Commander, Navy Installations Command
643
The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include rate specific suicide intervention training at "A" schools and "C" schools for hospital corpsman, religious program specialists and which other rate?
Master-at-arms
644
What should the minimum rank of the SPC be whenever it is possible?
E-7
645
How often should Commanding Officers ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel?
Annually
646
What are any self reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors defined as?
Suicide Related Ideations
647
What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide threat
648
What is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
649
What is a self inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)?
Self-harm
650
Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located which offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young men and women to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps?
Annapolis, Maryland
651
What are Naval Academy students designated as?
Midshipmen
652
What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the U.S. Marine Corps Reserve?
Second Lieutenants
653
How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate?
5
654
What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy?
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)
655
Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action?
3
656
How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day?
17
657
What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?
OCS
658
How many weeks long is OCS?
13 weeks
659
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for OCS graduates?
4 years
660
How old must OCS applicants be?
19 years
661
How many consecutive "good-low" final PRT scores prior to entry into the OCS program must applicants have?
Two
662
Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps?
MECP
663
How many consecutive calendar months do MECP selectees have to complete degree requirements?
36
664
How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates?
8
665
MECP applicants must be able to complete the nursing degree requirements and be commissioned prior to what age?
35
666
What is the maximum amount of months that MSC IPP program selectees have to complete their degrees (dependent upon the program)?
48
667
What will MSC IPP Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as after they complete their degree?
Lieutenant
668
What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for MSC IPP programs?
E-5
669
Which commissioning programs provide commissioning opportunities to qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree?
LDO and CWO
670
Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills?
LDOs
671
Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field?
CWOs
672
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for LDO?
4 years
673
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES personnel who are selected for LDO?
3 years
674
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for CWO?
4 years
675
What shall E-9 Active duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO be appointed as that have completed 2 years TIR as of 1 October of the year in which the CWO board convenes?
CWO3
676
What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active duty CWOs selected for LDO be appointed as?
LTJG (02E)
677
Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for LDO applicants?
3
678
Active duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?
16
679
What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must meet at the time of application and appointment?
Satisfactory medium
680
Active Duty CWO applicants must no have more than how many years of active duty service?
24
681
Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Navy or Naval Reserve to earn a degree and receive a commission?
STA 21
682
How many components make up STA-21?
Three
683
Which program was designed to improve STA-21 applicants academic skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)?
BOOST
684
Which 9 week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university assignment?
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
685
Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance?
OPNAVINST 1160.6A
686
All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what course?
NSI
687
Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to supplement tuition cost, books, and fees?
10,000
688
Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they eligible for tuition assistance under the navy's tuition assistance montgomery GI bill (MGIB) educational benefits?
BUPERSINST 1780.1
689
How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a baccalaureate degree in?
36
690
What age must STA-21 candidates be able to complete degree requirements and be commissioned prior to?
31
691
Within how many years of STA-21 application due date must candidates have certified copies of SAT or ACT test scores?
3
692
What is the minimum ACT English score required for STA-21 candidates?
20
693
Which personnel are prohibited from having unduly familiar personal relationships?
Officer and Enlisted
694
Which term is traditionally used to identify personal relationships which contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate relationships?
Fraternization
695
Which U.S. Navy Regulations article prohibits fraternization?
Article 1165
696
What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members?
Customs and traditions
697
What commands are personal relationships between Chief Petty Officers (E-7 to E-9) and junior personnel (E-1 to E-6) which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank prohibited?
Same command
698
What can fraternization be punishable as an offense under?
UCMJ
699
Which personnel provide leadership both in their direct chain of command as well as for the entire unit?
Chief Petty Officers
700
Which action cannot excuse or mitigate conduct which constitutes fraternization between the offending parties?
Marriage
701
Who is responsible for ensuring that Navy fraternization training is provided in General Military Training?
Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division (N13)
702
How often will fraternization training be provided by Commanders?
Annually
703
What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure?
Human error
704
What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits?
ORM
705
Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance?
OPNAV (N09F)
706
Who is the ORM model manager?
NAVSAFECEN
707
How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness?
Biennially
708
Which activity shall integrate specific applications of ORM process into Navy occupational standards for the Navy's individual training standards?
Naval Manpower Analysis Center
709
Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training of all military and civilian command personnel?
Command ORM manager
710
How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination?
Annually
711
What decision making tools is used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks?
ORM
712
How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process?
Four
713
In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on?
Time critical
714
Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task?
In depth
715
Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task?
Deliberate
716
Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level?
ABCD
717
The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step?
Supervise
718
Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation?
Identify and Assess the hazards
719
What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an intuitive fashion with help screens and process information?
TRACS
720
What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death, or property damage?
Hazard
721
What is the foundation of the entire risk management process?
Hazard identification
722
What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation?
Root cause
723
What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occurs as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or task?
Severity
724
Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission?
Category I
725
Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category II
726
Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category III
727
Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact or mission capability or unit readiness?
Category IV
728
What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called?
Probability
729
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards hat are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time?
A
730
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time?
B
731
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that may occur in time?
C
732
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are unlikely to occur but that are not impossible?
D
733
How many basic actions are there which ultimately lead to making informed risk decisions?
Three
734
Which type of controls take the form of barriers to guard against a hazard?
Physical
735
What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level?
TCRM
736
Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn new or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding?
ABCD
737
Which ORM steps does the "A" in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model combine?
Identify and Assess hazards
738
Which parts of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions?
Balance resources
739
Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-sep ORM process?
Communicate to others
740
Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the "D" in the mnemonic of the ABCD model correlated to?
Implement controls and Supervise
741
Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training?
Accession point
742
Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command ORM manager?
XO
743
Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command?
ORM manager
744
How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course?
Triennially
745
What is used to measure ORM implementation?
ORM evaluation
746
How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by any activity or command for self assessment?
2
747
How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?
Annually
748
What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called?
Acceptable risk
749
Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual's or crew's attention during the execution of a mission or task?
Additive Condition
750
Which technique guides group in an interactive exchange of ideas, deferring judgment until the end of the session?
Brainstorming
751
Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel, or the mission?
Consequential
752
What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as?
Controls
753
What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard?
Exposure
754
How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process?
6
755
What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards?
Operational Analysis
756
What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an operation, task, or mission?
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
757
What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified and selected?
Residual risk
758
What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people or equipment?
Resource
759
What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity?
Risk
760
What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help determine hazard abatement priorities?
Risk Assessment Code (RAC)
761
What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the current environment mirrors reality?
Situational Awareness (SA)
762
Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel?
SECNAVINST 5300.26D
763
What promotes positive command morale and Quality of Life (QOL) by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
764
Who monitors the Navy's progress toward accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates?
CNO
765
How often must the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO Climate Assessment describing the "health" and organizational effectiveness of the Navy?
Annually
766
Which office is responsible for providing the overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates?
Navy Equal Opportunity Offie (NEO)
767
By which date each year must be OJAG provide a summary of the fiscal years UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150 actions relating to unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Navy EO Office?
November 15th
768
Who is the investigative authority for all Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment complaints against flag officers or SES officials?
Naval Inspector General
769
Which center function as the Navy's equal opportunity training manager and develops the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels?
Center for personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
770
Within how many days of assuming command will Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate?
90
771
How often must Commanding officers and Officers in Charge provide Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment training and grievance procedure instruction as required per SECNAVINST 5350.16A for all assigned command members as part of CPPD generated GMT?
Annually
772
What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service for officers to be the CMEO Manager?
4
773
How long at a minimum should CMEO Managers serve in their position?
One year
774
How many years must CO's/OIC's ensure that completed copies of all Navy Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint Forms are maintained in the CMEO Manager record file?
Three
775
CO's/OIC's shall ensure that detailed Naval messages, are sent upon receipt of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH, per which reference?
DOD Directive 1325.6
776
Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO's/OIC's ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC?
60
777
Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?
EOA
778
Who function as the single point of contact, when practicable, for command equal opportunity issues?
CMEO Manager
779
How many years will CMEO Managers maintain CMEO record files?
Three
780
Which representatives are assigned by the commander to ensure that complainants, accused, and witnesses in equal opportunity and sexual harassment cases are informed of the complaint process and are advised of the available support and counseling services?
Advocates
781
What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity?
Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
782
What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified?
Equal Opportunity (EO)
783
Which NEC is held by Equal Opportunity Advisors?
NEC 9515
784
Which system resolve Equal Opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level?
Informal Resolution System (IRS)
785
Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment?
Reasonable Person Standard
786
Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication?
Reprisal
787
Which process identifies areas of concern or issue related to command climate by finding areas of commonality in a minimum of three areas of the command assessment?
Triangulation Method
788
Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive?
Unwelcome
789
Where must unwelcome sexual behavior occur in or impact to be considered Sexual Harassment?
Work environment
790
Which type of Sexual Harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
Quid pro quo
791
Which color light on the traffic light scale would touching which could not reasonable be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) be identified as?
Green
792
Which color light on the traffic light scale would repeated requests for dates, leering, staring, or whistling be that many would find unacceptable?
Yellow
793
Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment?
Red
794
What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?
Chain of command
795
Which instruction contains the DoN's policy on military Equal Opportunity complaint processing?
SECNAVINST 5350.16A
796
How many days within the offending incident should Equal Opportunity complaints be made?
60
797
Which form can individuals use to file Equal Opportunity complaints?
NAVPERS 5354/2
798
Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a formal Equal Opportunity complaint submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority?
1
799
Within how many hours of receiving a formal Equal Opportunity complaint must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender as well as any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing?
24
800
Within how many hours after receiving an Equal Opportunity complaint submission must the investigation commence?
72
801
Within how many days after the Equal Opportunity investigation commences must a close out message be sent describing what actions were actions were taken?
20
802
How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity complaint investigation is not completed at the 20 days point until the close out message describing case disposition is released?
Every 14 days
803
How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must commands conduct a follow up debrief?
30-45
804
How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity complaints and investigations for?
36
805
Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders and Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers providing assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?
EOAs
806
How often must EOA's conduct a review of subordinate commands' executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander?
Annually
807
The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused, and witness in an EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are advised of available support and counseling services?
Personal advocate
808
What are provided each ship for the purpose of furnishing a general and uniform guide by which type Commanders or their subordinates may estimate or evaluate the engineering performance and readiness of the ships assigned to their command?
Administrative instructions
809
What are provided each ship for the purpose of furnishing a general and uniform guide by which type commanders or their subordinates may estimate or evaluate the engineering performance and readiness of the ships assigned to their command?
Administrative instructions
810
What provide the minimum requirements necessary to qualify on a watch station?
Personnel Qualification Standards
811
What is a general indication of the ship’s readiness to operate economically and within established standards?
Fuel performance ratio
812
What is computed in (1) gallons of makeup feed per engine mile, (2) gallons of makeup feed per hour at anchor, and (3) gallons of potable water per person per day?
Water consumption
813
What will not only interfere with the safe operation of the boilers but will also result in a large waster of fuel oil?
Fast acceleration
814
While increasing the economy of the plant, what also reduces the quantity of air necessary for ventilating and cooling the space?
Insulation
815
Feed water and potable water consumption rates are entered on what report?
Fuel and water
816
High feed water consumption indicates a what?
Uneconomical plant
817
What can be an indirect cause of excess fuel oil consumption and improper bearing lubrication?
Cold lube oil
818
What are conducted to furnish evidence of the ship’s engineering plant readiness for peacetime or wartime steaming conditions?
Trial performances
819
The ability of engineering department personnel to control engineering damage and make emergency repairs is measured by what during training exercise and actual emergencies?
Performance Observed
820
What consists of conducting battle problems and other operational exercises that involve all divisions aboard ship?
Operational Readiness Inspection (ORI)
821
In peacetime, almost all of the engineering casualties occur during a what, at which time the key personnel may not be present?
Steaming watch
822
What will ensure that no important step is overlooked or forgotten?
Check off sheets
823
What list the various units of machinery and the readiness requirements of the engineering department?
Steaming orders
824
At the time specified by the steaming orders, the senior watch stander will direct the spaces to start warming up the plant in accordance with the what?
Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS)
825
It is very important to hold what to a minimum until the main feed pump can be warmed up and is ready to feed the boiler?
Boiler load
826
What should never be opened or closed without orders from the officer of the watch in main engine control, and when such orders are received the valves should be opened (or closed) as soon as possible?
Split plant valves
827
What must be tested before the engineering plant is ready to get underway?
Main engines
828
On a small ship, such as a destroyer, the EOOW will request permission from the OOD to test main engines, usually about what time frame prior to the ship getting underway?
15 minutes
829
The interval of time between testing main engines and getting underway many be prolonged by weather, traffic, casualties, or other conditions; during this time the main engines must be turned by steam at least once every how often?
3 to 5 minutes
830
The operating pressure of the double furnace boiler with controlled superheat is approximately 615 psig with a maximum superheater outlet temperature of what?
850oF
831
In most installations, it is usually necessary to be underway and making about how many knots before the fires can be lighted under the superheater side of the boiler?
12
832
From the standpoint of maintenance and repairs to the steam piping, turbine casings, and superheater handhole plates, it is not feasible to put superheaters into operation until it is expected that the ship’s speed will more than how many knots for a considerable period of time?
10
833
When the boiler pressure exceeds what psi of the auxiliary steam line, steam flow must be provided through the superheater by the use of high pressure drains, auxiliary machinery, and throttling the steam in the auxiliary exhaust line?
150
834
It is permissible to bring in the incoming boilers without their superheaters in operation, if the superheater outlet temperature of the steam boilers is lowered to what?
600oF
835
Except in an emergency, the temperature of the superheaters should NOT be lowered or raised at a faster rate than 50oF every how often?
5 minute
836
Maintaining a designed vacuum in the main condenser makes available more useful work from each pound of what?
Steam
837
When the ship is still out in the open sea, main engine control should request permission to pump bilges. The EOOW must keep in mind the guidelines set forth in what instruction which governs the discharge of oil waste overboard?
OPNAVINST 6240.3
838
What was established to provide personnel with information and guidance necessary to administer a uniform policy of maintenance and repair of ships and submarines?
QA program
839
Which element of the QA program includes training and qualifying personnel, monitoring and auditing programs and completing the QA forms and records?
Administrative
840
Which element of the QA program includes preparing work procedures, meeting controlled material requirements, requisitioning material, conducting in process control of fabrication and repairs, testing and re-certifying, and documenting any departure from specifications?
Job Execution
841
The QA concept is fundamentally the prevention of what?
Debts
842
The fundamental rule for you to follow for all maintenance is that what must be met at all times?
Technical Specifications
843
What is concerned with regulating events rather than being regulated by them?
Prevention
844
To obtain full benefits from a QA program, what must be achieved first?
Teamwork
845
It is vital that you approach maintenance planning from the standpoint of what?
First time quality
846
The QA program for the Naval Surface Force for the Atlantic Fleet is organized into how many levels of responsibility?
5
847
The QA program organization (Navy) begins with whom, who provide the basis QA program organization responsibilities and guidelines?
Commander in Chief of the fleets
848
Who provide instruction, policy, and overall direction for implementation and operation of the force QA program?
Type commanders (TYCOMs)
849
Who are responsible to the force commander for QA in the maintenance and repair of the ships?
Commanding Officers
850
Who is responsible to the CO for the organization, administration, and execution of the ship’s QA program according to the QA manual?
Quality Assurance Officer (QAO)
851
On most surface ships other than IMAs, the QAO is the chief engineer, with a senior chief petty officer assigned as the what?
QA coordinator
852
What performance trait grade means the sailor is far more than promotion ready in this trait right now?
Advanced Performance 4.0
853
What performance trait grade means the sailor can handle this aspect of the next higher paygrade?
Dependable, “Fully-Qualified”, Journeyman Performance 3.0
854
What performance trait grade means the sailor needs development in this trait but is promotable if overall performance warrants?
Useful, Promising Performance 2.0
855
What performance trait grade means until deficiencies are remedied in this trait the sailor should not be promoted regardless of performance in other traits?
Disappointing Performance 1.0
856
What is vital to the effective operation any maintenance organization?
Quality maintenance
857
What inspections determine the condition of material, proper identification, maintenance requirements, disposition, and correctness of accompanying records and documents?
Receiving or Screening
858
What inspections include witnessing, application of torque, functional testing, adjusting, assembling, servicing, and installation?
In-processing
859
QA inspection of work areas following task completion by several different personnel is an example of what type of inspection?
Final inspection
860
Who is the front-line guardian of adherence to quality standards?
Quality Control Inspector (QCI)
861
When formal training for a specific skill is not a requirement, the guidelines of what may be used as a basis for training to ensure that personnel are provided with the necessary expertise to perform a required skill?
QA manual
862
Who’s primary duty, assigned by the CO in writing, is to oversee the QA Program?
QAO
863
Who maintains qualified personnel in all required ratings for the QA program in his or her department?
Repair Officer (RO)
864
Who are senior petty officers who have been properly qualified according to the QA manual?
QA supervisors
865
Who are normally petty officers, E-4 or E-5, who are thoroughly familiar with controlled material requirements as outlined in the QA manual?
CMPOs
866
What may be defined as all of the action required to return equipment to its proper operating condition after a defect has been discovered?
Repair procedures
867
What is a system that ensures that materials, data, supplies, and services conform to technical requirements and that repaired equipment performs satisfactory?
Quality assurance (QA)
868
What is a management function that attempts to eliminate defective products, whether they are produced or procured?
Quality control (QC)
869
What term is when an authorized representative approves specific services rendered (such as a repair or manufactured part)?
Acceptance
870
What is the comparison of two instruments or measuring devices, one of which is a standard of known accuracy traceable to national standards, to detect, correlate, report, or eliminate by adjustment any discrepancy in accuracy of the instrument or measuring device being compared with the standard?
Calibration
871
What is the examination and testing of components and services to determine whether they conform to specified requirements?
Inspection
872
What contain data resulting from inspection actions?
Inspection records
873
What is any technical or administrative directive, such as an instruction, a technical manual, a drawing, a plan, or publication that defines repair criteria?
Specification
874
What as it applies to the QA program, is a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies procedures, products, directives, and records necessary to determine compliance with existing requirements?
Audit
875
What material has a material and identification control (MIC) number assigned along with a certification document?
Certified (Level1) Material
876
What is any material that must be accounted for and identified throughout the manufacturing or repair process?
Controlled Material
877
What is an assemblage of documents identified by a unique serial number that may contain detailed work procedures, purchase documents, receipt inspection reports, objective quality evidence, local test results, and any tags, papers, prints, plans, and so on that bear on the work performed?
Controlled Work Package (CWP)
878
What is the record of objective evidence establishing the requisite quality of the material, component or work done?
Documentation
879
What is a certain level of confidence required in the reliability of repairs made?
Level of essentiality
880
What is a written instruction designed for use in production and repair, delineating all essential elements and guidance necessary to produce acceptable and reliable products?
Procedure
881
What is a set of actions written in a special sequential order by which a repair or maintenance action, a test, or an inspection is done using specific guidelines, tools, and equipment?
Process
882
What means the probability that an item will perform its intended function for a specified interval understated conditions?
Reliability
883
What acronym is a short reference to the Submarine Safety Program, which provides a high level of confidence in the material conditions of the hull integrity boundary?
SUBSAFE
884
Each CWP covers the entire scope of the work process and is able to stand on its own. Traceability from the work package to other certification documentation is provided by the what?
Job Control Number (JCN)
885
You must initiate a what, when it becomes necessary to change the original scope of the job, such as a part not originally intended to be worked on?
Revision
886
QA is divided into two levels: What are they?
A and C
887
What are the degrees of control measures required to assure reliability of repairs made to a system, subsystem, or component?
Levels of control
888
What is an additional QC category that you will see, which is reserved for systems that require maximum confidence that the composition of installed material is correct?
Level I
889
Records of traceability must be maintained for how many years?
7
890
The submarine Safety program (hence the name SUBSAFE) was established in 1963 as a direct result of the loss of what?
USS Thresher
891
What marks the specific portion of a SUBSAFE system within which the stringent material or operability requirements of SUBSAFE apply?
SUBSAFE boundary
892
Within the SUBSAFE boundary, two different sets of requirements apply: SUBSAFE and what else?
Level I
893
What is a lack of compliance with an authoritative document, plan, procedure, or instruction?
Departure from specification
894
Departures are classified as what where the nonconformance does not present a risk of failure?
Permanent
895
Departures classified as what are departures where nonconformance does present an unreasonable risk and the TYCOM is willing to accept that risk for some period of time?
Temporary
896
What record is used by the CMPO to document the proper receipt and inspection of items that have been designated as controlled materials?
QA form 1
897
What tag is attached by supply, QA, or shop personnel to provide traceability of accepted controlled material from receipt inspection through final acceptance?
QA Form 2
898
Shop personnel, supply, or QA personnel will attach what tag to rejected items?
QA Form 3
899
What tag is used to identify and control material to be repaired?
QA Form 4
900
What tag is used to identify and control material and equipment in a positive manner from ship to repair shop?
QA Form 4A
901
What form is used by your CMPO to provide a standard inventory record of controlled material received and issued?
QA Form 7
902
What lists the contents of the work procedure and documents the approval authority for the start and completion of the task?
QA form 8
903
What form is used to allow detailed development of a step-by-step work procedure?
QA form 8A
904
What form provides the IMA with the necessary information to develop a CWP before the start of work?
QA Form 13
905
What form is used to provide a uniform method of reporting and recommending disposition of rejected material to the supply department?
QA Form 16
906
What form lists all the tests and inspections that must be performed at each step?
QA form 17
907
A QA Form 17 must be completed and signed off before any stem can be signed off on what other form?
QA Form 10
908
Completed Engineering Log and Engineer’s Bell Book sheets may be destroyed how long after the date of the last entries?
3 years
909
What is a record of important events and data pertaining to the engineering department and the ship’s propulsion plant?
Engineering Log, NAVSEA 3120/2
910
What is a record of all bells signals and other orders received by the throttleman regarding movement of the ship’s propellers?
Engineer’s Bell Book, NAVSEA 3120/1
911
When the Bell Book is maintained by bridge personnel, who signs it?
Officer of the Deck (OOD)
912
What help ensure regular inspection of operating machinery and provide data for performance analysis?
Engineering operating records
913
What specify which engineering operating records will be maintained and prescribe the forms to be used when no standard record forms are provided?
Type commander’s directives
914
The operating records are generally retained on board for how long?
2 years
915
The Propulsion Steam Turbine and Reduction Gear Operating Record, what form is a daily record maintained for each main engine in operation?
NAVSEA 9231/1
916
The Diesel Engine Operating Record, what form, is a complete daily record for each operating propulsion and auxiliary diesel engine in the ship?
NAVSEA 9231/2
917
The AC/DC Electric Propulsion Operating Record, what form, is daily record for each operating propulsion generator and motor in ships (except submarines) equipped with ac or dc electric propulsion machinery?
NAVSEA 9235/1
918
The Boiler Room Operating Record, what form, is a complete record for each steaming fireroom?
NAVSEA 9221/6
919
The Electrical Log, what form, is a complete daily record for each operating ship’s service generator?
NAVSEA 9600/1
920
The Refrigeration/Air Conditioning Equipment Operating Record, what form, is a complete daily record for each fix operating refrigeration plant and air conditioning plant (except package units)?
NAVSEA 9516/1
921
What chapter of the NSTM lists the fuel and water accounts that the Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYCOM) considers indispensable to the engineering department?
Chapter 090
922
It is sound engineering practice to fill all fuel oil tanks to what percent of volumetric capacity to allow for expansion and to prevent spillage?
95%
923
The engineer officer submits the Fuel and Water Report, what form, daily to the commanding officer?
NAVSEA 9255/9
924
What term describes all openings associated with tube enlargement?
Rupture
925
What term describes openings other than cracks that are not associated with tube enlargement?
Perforation
926
What term describes a longitudinal or circumferential separation where there is no appreciable tube enlargement?
Crack
927
If it is necessary to submit samples in connection with boiler pressure part damage, follow current instructions issued by what?
NAVSEASYCOM
928
The Ship Characteristics Card, what form, is a report of comprehensive information essential to an understanding of the characteristics and capabilities of surface ships and service craft?
OPNAV 9010/2
929
The data in the Ship Characteristics Card must be accurate and complete because who uses it for planning?
CNO
930
CNO requires that all ships submit the Ship Characteristics Card (1) upon commissioning or being placed in service, (2) within how many days after completion of regular overhaul, and (3) whenever a change in military characteristics (including any change in weapons installations) is made?
30
931
When filled in, the Ship Characteristics Card is classified as what?
Confidential
932
The Main Propulsion Turbine Condition Report is a letter report of the condition of each propulsion turbine and is submitted to NAVSEASYSCOM via the type commander how long before each regular overhaul?
3 months
933
What are one-time reports required when certain situations arise?
Situation Reports
934
The cycle and minimum requirements for boiler tests and inspections are found in the Planned Maintenance System (PMS) and what else?
TYCOM’s maintenance manual
935
What should be inspected for signs of damage to the refractory lining, tubes, drums and headers, baffle plates, support plates, and other metal parts?
Boiler firesides
936
What is indicated by cracks in the refractory that do not close?
Shrinkage
937
What are caused by rapid raising or lowering of the furnace temperature?
Unequal stresses
938
The most common cause of boiler panting and vibration is improper what?
Fuel-air ratio
939
The guideline for renewal of firebrick is thickness reduced by 1 inch for 2 ½ inch firebrick; thickness reduced by what for 4 ½ inch firebrick?
2 ½ inches
940
Spalling, flame impingement, and what else are the causes of reduced firebrick thickness?
Slag
941
Pack expansion joints with fiberfrax or what else?
Kaowool
942
The first firing of a castable what does more damage than any other single firing?
Burner front
943
What are caused by stresses resulting from the normal expansion and contraction of the refractory?
Radial cracks
944
When fitting burner tile, you should fit individual burner tiles to the what and to each other?
Metal throat ring
945
Sometimes adjacent boiler tubes are warped so they touch each other. This condition is called what?
Tube marriage
946
Record all tube failures on the Boiler Tube Renewal Record and have it entered in the what by a certified steam generating plant inspector (SGPI)?
Boiler Inspection Repair Information System (BIRMIS)
947
Boiler tube damage is grouped under how many major classifications?
4
948
What describes the metal loss that occurs in bands or stripes around the circumference of a tube?
Circumferential groove
949
What are deep, irregular, straight-walled cavities in the tube metal?
Craters
950
What consist of wandering, straight-walled, canyon like cavities in the tube metal?
Water tracks
951
Approval by what is required before water washing?
NAVSEA
952
What consists of a uniform loss of metal over a large area on the outside of the tube?
General Fireside Thinning
953
What is by far the most common cause of general fireside thinning?
Soot corrosion
954
What occurs when the rate of heat transfer through the tube wall is reduced?
Fireside burning
955
In mild steel generating tubes, what indicate milder and more prolonged overheat?
Thick-lipped ruptures
956
Thick-lipped ruptures are the most common type of rupture in what?
Superheater tubes
957
The most common kind of perforation is probably the what?
Pin hole leak
958
What result from prolonged, mild overheat or repeated short time overheat?
Thermal cracks
959
What appear as egg shaped lumps on the fireside, and indicate that the tube has been heated to the softening point and has blown out under boiler pressure?
Heat blisters
960
What is the term applied to tubes that appear to have dropped downward toward the furnace under their own weight?
Sagging
961
What usually occurs as a result of sudden cooling of the tubes after they have been overheated?
Warping
962
What is the term that identifies the reduction of tube diameter by mechanical deformation?
Swaging
963
What begin on the outside circumference of the tube bends and can extend around the outer half of the tube?
Fatigue cracks
964
What defect is usually found on the tighter bends of a tube and is caused by improper bending?
Folded tubes
965
Fireside tube deposits include soot, corrosion products, and high temperature what?
Oxide
966
What is a broad term used to cover all of the ash products that result from combustion?
Soot
967
What is a frequent cause of high temperature oxide on the tube firesides?
Low water
968
What is an inspection device used primarily for ships preparing for overhaul which can be used to inspect visually the inside of boiler tubes and to measure the depth of pits in boiler tubes?
British Tube Inspection Unit (BTIU)
969
What can map, measure, and record tube waterside deformities along the entire tube length?
LOTIS
970
What is caused by exposure to oxygen or boiler water that contains dissolved oxygen?
Pitting
971
The pitting is considered general throughout the boiler and moderately heavy when numerous pits are deeper than 50 percent of the wall thickness and few pits are deeper than what percent?
65 %
972
Tubes with pit depths of 50 to 65 percent of the minimum designed wall thickness must be what?
Plugged
973
What appears as if the end of the tube was pricked with a pin?
Honeycombing
974
What usually occur in the relatively hot bends of the tubes near the water drum?
Waterside grooves
975
What are deep-walled, canyon like voids?
Corrosion fatigue fissures
976
What can occur if the boiler water pH is too low or too high for a long time?
General waterside thinning
977
Waterside burning may occur if the temperature exceeds about what in plain carbon steel tubes?
750oF
978
Waterside burning may occur if the temperature exceeds what in most alloy superheater tubes?
1000oF
979
What is the term used to describe waterside cavities that result from purely mechanical causes rather than from corrosion?
Waterside abrasion
980
What appear as straight and uniform longitudinal scratches or folds on the watersides of the tube?
Die marks
981
What are often invisible to the naked eye, but they may lead to a visible crack or break in the pressure part?
Stress corrosion cracks
982
You must hold the hydrostatic test pressure for how long before beginning the inspection of boilers?
15 minutes
983
At how many ear intervals, each boiler should be inspected for integrity of welds and nozzle connections?
5 years
984
You must contact NAVSEA BEFORE you subject the boiler to the what percent hydrostatic test pressure?
150 %
985
What is poor condition can lead to serious damage or personnel casualties?
Boiler appurtenances
986
All boiler pressure gauges are inspected and calibrated following PMS and what other schedules?
Meter Calibration (METCAL)
987
At least how often, each piping system should be pressurized?
Yearly
988
All repaired boiler piping, piping sub-assemblies, and valves must be hydrostatically tested at a pressure what percent above the maximum system pressure before being reinstalled?
35%
989
The objective in aligning and maintaining the automatic boiler control (ABC) system is to achieve satisfactory overall control system performance. Overall system performance is measured by using the what?
Boiler flexibility (flex) test
990
The flex test is conducted by changing the boiler load by what percent in 45 seconds?
70%
991
The flex test is conducted between 15 and what percent of boiler full power depending on operating requirements?
95%
992
If soot is allowed to remain on the boiler firesides, the sulfur in the soot combines with moisture to form what?
Sulfuric acid
993
Boilers using the coordinated phosphate (COPHOS) treatment system without demineralizers installed will NOT be steamed more than how many hours between waterside inspection periods?
2000
994
Boilers using COPHOS treatment with demineralizes installed may steam up to how many hours, provided the demineralize is on line and no serious contamination has occurred?
4000
995
Boilers using CHELANT treatment have their watersides inspected at regularly scheduled boiler inspections, every how many months?
18 to 24 months
996
The three methods of mechanically cleaning a boiler are tetrasodium ethylene diamine tetraacetate (EDTA), high pressure water jet, and what else?
Power driven wire brushing
997
What is the preferred method of mechanically cleaning watersides?
High pressure water jet
998
A secured boiler that is not going to be lit off within what time frame should be laid up as soon as possible after securing?
24 hours
999
The maximum allowable taper for a handhole seat is what?
0.008 inch
1000
The maximum allowable taper for manhole seats is what?
0.012 inch
1001
What is the only opening where you should allow air to enter an operating boiler furnace?
Air register
1002
Fuel oil waste (what percent or more) has been directly traced to air leakage through the inner casing?
10%
1003
The most frequent cause of air leakage through the boiler casings is improper sealing of the what?
Casings
1004
Insulation around safety valves should be sealed with what to prevent insulation from becoming waterlogged and to prevent rusting of the casing?
Epoxy
1005
Most burners are equipped with what devices which prevents fuel from spilling into the fireroom if the burner root valve is accidentally opened with no atomizer assembly installed?
Burner safety shutoff
1006
Leakage from safety shutoff valves should be less than what per hour at system pressure?
8 ounces
1007
Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm two ships on what date?
13 October 1775
1008
Congress authorized two battalion of Marines on what date?
10 November 1775
1009
Deployments place naval forces in positions to achieve how many purposes?
3
1010
Positioning of naval forces for warfare in sensitive areas of the world provides a side benefit known as what?
Presence
1011
In its wartime posture, the Navy has how many areas of responsibility?
2
1012
What is the basic function of the U.S. Navy?
Sea control
1013
What include aircraft, surface ships, and submarines that threaten U.S. or friendly forces operating in those areas?
Hostile forces
1014
What is the ability to project military power from the sea worldwide in a timely and precise manner to accomplish a given objective?
Power projection
1015
Naval forces have unrestricted global mobility based on the traditional and time honored concept of the free use of what?
International seas
1016
NATO is divided into how many areas of responsibilities?
3
1017
Located in the Persian Gulf region is what percent of the world’s known oil reserves?
55
1018
About what percent of the world’s sea trade passes through the Suez Canal at the choke point of Babel Mandeb?
10
1019
Total force commitment to Operation Desert Shield and Desert Storm included 6 carrier battle groups and how many combat personnel?
450,000
1020
What is among the world’s richest continents is known mineral wealth?
Africa
1021
Much of the world’s oil that travels by ship through the various straits in the Indonesian area are within range of U.S. bases where?
Philippines
1022
The U.S. national security strategy is based on deterrence, forward defense, and what else?
Collective security
1023
U.S. naval forces have how many primary peacetime objectives?
4
1024
The last U.S. diesel submarine, the USS Blueback (SS 581), was decommissioned on what date?
1 October 1990
1025
What United States submarines form the sea leg of the U.S. Trident nuclear deterrent?
SSBNs
1026
The rise of chemical and biological weapons in the Middle East has been linked to Israel and what other country?
France
1027
France successfully tested a nuclear device in what year?
1960
1028
The chemical agent most likely to be used by countries desiring to produce chemical weapons is what nerve agent?
Tabun
1029
Iran has been hostile toward the United States since radical, religious forces overthrew the government in what year?
1979
1030
The mission of the Navy includes naval presence, sea control, and what else?
Power projection
1031
Who will conduct an investigation of offenses before a captain’s mast takes place?
PIO
1032
What part of the MCM describes those actions the military considers offenses?
Part IV
1033
What is a physical object, such as a knife used in an assault or a stolen camera in a theft case?
Real evidence
1034
The 12 chapters of what describe the authority and responsibilities of the offices within the Department of the Navy?
Navy Regulations
1035
Failure to obey any Navy regulation subjects the offender to charge under what article of the UCMJ?
92
1036
What is the principle regulatory document of the Department of the Navy, endowed with the sanction of law, as to duty, authority, distinctions and relationships of various commands, officials and individuals?
United States Navy Regulations
1037
Who is responsible for maintaining the Navy Regulations?
Chief of Naval Operations
1038
Who must approve all additions, changes or deletions to Navy Regulations?
Secretary of the Navy
1039
The United States Coast Guard is normally a component of what unless at wartime?
Department of Transportation
1040
In accordance with Article 137 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, the articles specifically enumerated therein shall be carefully explained to each enlisted person at the time of entrance on active duty or within six days thereafter, again, after completion of how many months active duty, and again, upon the occasion of each reenlistment?
6
1041
All persons in the naval service on active duty, those on the retired list with pay and transferred members of the Fleet Reserve and the Fleet Marine Corps Reserve are all times subject to what?
Naval authority
1042
Persons in authority are forbidden to injure their subordinates by tyrannical or capricious conduct, or by what else?
Abusive language
1043
Naval personnel are not permitted to lend money to another member of the armed services at an interest rate, for the period of the loan, that exceeds what percent simple interest per year?
18
1044
A person’s naval record is maintained by the Chief of Naval Personnel or whom else?
Commandant of the Marine Corps
1045
What provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the Navy?
OPNAVINST 3120.32B
1046
What issues regulations and standard organizational requirements applicable to the administration of naval units?
SORN
1047
EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day?
2
1048
The authority to assign EMI rests with whom?
Commanding Officer
1049
Deprivation of normal liberty as punishment except as specifically authorized by the what is illegal?
UCMJ
1050
All late bunk sleepers will turn out at what time?
0700
1051
What defines the rights and duties of U.S. service personnel, civilian components, and their dependents while they are stationed in foreign country?
Status of Forces Agreement
1052
Within the formal Navy management structure, management begins at what level?
Chief Petty Officer
1053
Department heads comprise what level of management?
Middle
1054
What level of management is composed of division officers and chief petty officers?
Operating
1055
What are methods devised to achieve a goal?
Plans
1056
All plans fall into one of three general groups: strategic plans, standing plans, and what other plans?
Single use
1057
Strategic plans involve activities that will take place in how many years?
2 to 5
1058
What states the intended purpose of the command?
Organizational mission
1059
What are those the Navy uses for recurring or long range activities?
Standing plans
1060
What are broad general statements of expected behavior?
Policies
1061
What define the exact steps in sequence personnel should take to achieve the organizational objective?
Procedures
1062
What are standing plans that specifically state what personnel can and cannot do in a given circumstance?
Rules and regulations
1063
What plans are those used for short range nonrecurring activities?
Single use
1064
What are single use plans that state a specific goal and give the major steps, the timing of those steps, and the resources required to meet the stated goal?
Programs
1065
What are the separate tasks you must plan to meet program goals?
Projects
1066
What are planned revenue and expenditures of money, time personnel, equipment, and so forth, expressed in numerical terms, usually by category and over a period of time?
Budgets
1067
What means supervisors and subordinates take part in setting overall goals for the organization?
Management By Objectives (MBO)
1068
The objective of what type of analysis is to help you identify those areas in which the division needs improvement, has available opportunities, and must overcome certain obstacles?
SWOT
1069
What ensures the Navy and your command, department, and division meets their goals?
Controls
1070
What type of control is a way of trying to anticipate problems and make adjustments before the problems occur?
Feed forward
1071
What type of control involves making changes while an event is taking place?
Concurrent
1072
What type of control involves making corrections after an event has happened?
Feedback
1073
What is a method of ensuring that our customers receive a product that meets performance expectations?
Quality control
1074
When the number of items produced is too large for an inspection of each item, what is used?
Statistical analysis
1075
What consist of small groups of workers within each division who look for ways to reduce defects, rework, and equipment downtime?
Quality circles
1076
What is a type of quality control that is based on the theory of doing the job right the first time?
Zero defects
1077
What type of control can be used to measure overall division performance while performing other functions such as planning, staffing, organizing, and leading?
Non measurable
1078
What defines the job to be done, resources required, steps to be taken, and progress expected at specified times?
POA & M
1079
What shows planned and accomplished work in relation to each other and in relation to time?
Gantt chart
1080
What uses a line chart to show the relationship of tasks and the time required to complete each task?
PERT
1081
What is the process of arranging material and personnel b functions to attain the objective of the command?
Organization
1082
Of the many different types of organization used today, the Navy uses three specific types: line, staff, and what other type?
Functional
1083
What organizations refer to the major departments responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command?
Line
1084
What organizations refer to personnel who advise, assist, counsel, and serve the line departments?
Staff
1085
What organizations refer to special departments that are neither line nor staff?
Functional
1086
What is the order of authority among Navy members?
Chain of Command
1087
What is the order of control of an organization?
Unity of command
1088
What refers to the ideal number of people one person can effectively supervise?
Span of control
1089
Normally a supervisor is responsible for at least three but not more than how many people?
7
1090
What refers to the division of work?
Specialization
1091
What is the ability to influence people toward organizational objectives?
Power
1092
What type of authority is the authority you have over subordinates in your chain of command?
Line
1093
What type of authority is the right of staff to counsel, advise, or make recommendations to line personnel?
Staff
1094
The six types of power include reward, coercive, legitimate, informational, referent, and what else?
Expert
1095
What type of power results from the expectation of a negative reward if your wishes are not obeyed?
Coercive
1096
What type of power comes from the authority of your rate and position in the chain of command?
Legitimate
1097
What type of power depends on your giving or withholding of information or having knowledge that others do not have?
Informational
1098
What type of power derives from your subordinates identification or association with you?
Referent
1099
What type of power comes from your knowledge in a specific area through which you influence others?
Expert
1100
The Navy defines what as the ability to influence others toward achieving the goals and objectives of the organization?
Leadership
1101
In what style of leadership are subordinates expected to do the job the way the leader tells them to do it?
Coercer
1102
What leaders are firm but fair and tactfully provide clear direction but leave no doubt about what is expected or who makes the final decisions?
Authoritarian
1103
What leaders consider concern for subordinates and personal popularity as the most important aspect of their job?
Affiliator
1104
What leaders believe subordinates should take part in the decision making process?
Democratic
1105
What leaders have trouble delegating because they believe they can do the job much better than their subordinates?
Pacesetter
1106
What leaders see their job as developing and improving the performance of their subordinates?
Coach
1107
The Navy has identified how many skills effective leaders have in common?
6
1108
What type of problem solving involves analyzing complex situations and evaluating information to choose the best solution to a problem?
Analytical
1109
What achieves results by focusing on the procedures and processes that get the work done?
Quality management
1110
The Navy budget year runs from what dates?
10/1 – 9/30
1111
What is when the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) places the Con-gressionally appropriated funds into the Navy’s account?
Apportionment
1112
How many types of budgeting are in use in the Navy?
2
1113
What type of budgeting is the primary budget used by the Navy?
Incremental
1114
The Navy uses what type of budgeting when figuring the cost of major material purchases, such as a ship or airplane?
Zero-based
1115
What department procures material; maintains storerooms and warehouses; and issues, accounts for, and collects analytical data for all the material under its cognizance?
Supply
1116
What is concerned with the physical handling of the supply department’s stock of materials?
Material division
1117
What branch of the Supply department is responsible for maintaining stock records and assuring adequate stock levels to support station operations?
Stock control
1118
Supply departments afloat are generally organized into how many divisions?
5
1119
What Supply division orders, receives, stows, and issues general stores and repair parts and maintains related records?
Stores
1120
What includes any functional unit of hull, mechanical, electrical, electronic, or ordnance types of materials that are operated independently or as a component of a system or subsystem?
Equipment
1121
What consists of items such as fire hoses, nozzles, applicators, anchors, anchor chains, chain stoppers, and bulkhead fans?
Equipage
1122
What are administrative and housekeeping items, such as general purpose hardware, common tools, or any other items not specifically defined as equipment, equipage, or repair parts?
Consumables
1123
Who is responsible for maintaining stocks of general stores, subsistence items, ship’s store, and clothing store stocks?
Supply Officer
1124
Department heads are responsible for submitting what requisitions form to the supply officer each time a repair part is needed?
NAVSUP Form 1250-1
1125
What is the period of time required for a ship to use a definite quantity of supplies?
Endurance
1126
Most material procurement falls under what heading?
Routine requirements
1127
What used in the troubleshooting of electronic equipment and are not intended to be used as a repair part?
MAMs
1128
When you request material from a shipboard supply department, the standard method is to use either a NAVSUP 1250-1 (Single Line Consumption/Requisition Document) or what other form (Single Line Item Requisition System Document)?
DD Form 1348
1129
What form (Non-NSN Requisition) is used for obtaining materials that do not have an NSN?
NAVSUP Form 1250-2
1130
What is a procedure used by the supply department on a monthly basis to ensure that their outstanding requisitions are valid?
Material Obligation Validation (MOV)
1131
What is any substance or mixture of substances that could result in the injury or death of a person?
Hazardous material
1132
Hazardous material substances are divided into toxic, irritating, flammable, pressurized, or what other agents?
Sensitizing
1133
Inventory hazardous material containers at least how often?
Quarterly
1134
What are specific items that require special management control because their use is essential for the protection of life?
Controlled equipage
1135
What is an item listing that fleet commanders developed jointly for special inventory control?
Controlled Equipage Item List (CEIL)
1136
Guidance on the reuse of precious metals and the recovery of precious metals can be found in what instruction?
NSTM 4570.23
1137
What provides specific guidance concerning the preparation and responsibility for the submission of the Report of Survey?
NAVSUP P-485
1138
All items of controlled equipage are inventoried on what basis?
Annually
1139
SIM items are inventoried at how many month intervals?
6
1140
What improves readiness by providing a ship with logistics support that accurately reflects the ship’s true equipment and operating needs?
ILO
1141
What term refers to the repair parts, Planned Maintenance System (PMS), technical manuals, and personnel training necessary to operate and sustain the ship?
Logistics support
1142
Who is responsible for the effective operation of the 3-M Systems in his or her work center?
Work Center Supervisor
1143
What concept takes the power of computers with their ability to process information and puts that power in the hands of the work center personnel?
SNAP
1144
The objective of what is to give your personnel support in dealing with problems so that they will regain the ability to work effectively in the organization?
Counseling
1145
What involves a change in the member’s emotional self through a change in basic goals and aspirations?
Reorientation
1146
What type of counseling is the process of listening to a member’s counselee, encouraging the person to explain bothersome problems, and helping him or her to understand those problems and determine courses of action?
Client-centered
1147
You should counsel your personnel on their good and poor performance while documenting the counseling sessions for at least how many months?
3
1148
The SORM should be updated at least how often to remain current?
Annually
1149
Each person in the naval service earns how many days of paid leave each year in addition to holidays?
30
1150
What provide services, information, and referral on a full range of family-related resources?
Family Service Centers (FSCs)
1151
Navy lodges provide temporary, inexpensive housing for military personnel and their families for up to how many days during permanent change of station transfers?
30
1152
SGLI is available while personnel are on active duty and up to how many days after separation?
120
1153
What is the only organization offering supplemental insurance formally recognized and endorsed by the Navy?
Navy Mutual Aid Society
1154
What is an amount of money used to reimburse you for lodging, meals, and other incidental expenses incurred during travel under orders?
Per diem
1155
Dislocation allowance is equal to how many months basic allowance for quarters (BAQ) for your dependency status and paygrade?
1
1156
All personnel on active duty who meet the high-year tenure requirements must retire after how many years of active federal service unless they have a waiver?
30
1157
What are paid to service members as an incentive to stay in the Navy?
SRB’s
1158
What zone of SRB is for people who have completed 21 months of continuous active naval service, but not more than 6 years of continuous active naval service?
Zone A
1159
Zone B is for people who have completed 6 but not more than how many years of active military service immediately preceding the date of reenlistment?
10
1160
Zone C is for people who have completed 10 but not more than how many years of active military service on the date of reenlistment?
14
1161
What program provides in service financial assistance to all personnel wishing to take part in voluntary off duty education?
Tuition Assistance (TA)
1162
Commissioned and chief warrant officers who complete a TA funded course incur a how many year obligation following completion of the course?
2
1163
What is designed to provide shipboard personnel with educational opportunities comparable to those available to personnel stationed ashore?
PACE
1164
What is designed to provide a way for skilled Navy technicians to gain journeyman status with the Department of Labor in a recognized civilian trade?
National Apprenticeship Program
1165
Who identifies the trades to be considered as apprentice occupations within the active-duty Navy?
Chief of Naval Education and Training.
1166
What is a Department of Defense (DoD) agency that supports the voluntary education programs of each military service, including Reserve personnel?
DANTES
1167
What is designated as the executive agent for DANTES?
Department of the Navy
1168
Members must use all MGIB benefits within how many years after the date of their last discharge or release from active duty?
10
1169
United States Naval Academy (USNA) which is located where is the academic training ground for future naval officers?
Annapolis, Maryland
1170
Applicants to the United Sates Naval Academy (USNA) must be at least 17 years of age and not have reached what birthday on 1 July of the year of admission to the Naval Academy?
22nd
1171
Chief Warrant Officer Program applicants must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 1 October of the year application is made?
24
1172
LDO program applicants must have completed at least 8 years, but not more than how many years, of active naval service on 1 October of the year in which application is made?
16
1173
CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but may request only one designator for each program?
12
1174
BOOST applicants must have no record of violations of article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) for how many years preceding entry into BOOST school
2
1175
Enlisted personnel who have a baccalaureate or higher degree from an accredited institution are eligible to apply for a direct commission through the U.S. Naval Reserve Officer Program. Generally the age limit is 30 years; however, some programs allow a maximum age of what?
36
1176
The government shares the cost of medical care from civilian hospitals and doctors through what?
CHAMPUS
1177
Who are the technical authorities, experts, and supervisors within a rating?
Chief Petty Officers
1178
Who have the primary responsibility for supervising and training enlisted personnel oriented to system and subsystem maintenance, repair, and operation, rather than individual unit work?
SCPOs
1179
Who help to form and execute policy within their occupational field or across the full Navy spectrum?
MCPOs
1180
The exact size of the E-7 board varies, but each board usually consists of about how many members?
50
1181
What is the current number of personnel on board versus the CNO requirements for a rating?
Current inventory
1182
No more than what percent of the total number of sailors in the E-7, E-8, and E-9 paygrades may have less than the prescribed TAFMS?
10
1183
Once scoring of each rating is completed, the panel arranges the names of all the E-7 candidates by their numerical score from the highest to the lowest. What is this called?
Slating
1184
What is the single most important factor influencing your advancement opportunities?
Sustained superior performance
1185
What was established to provide experienced personnel in the first stages of mobilization during an emergency or in time of war?
Fleet Reserve
1186
As a retired member, you may be ordered to active duty in time of war or national emergency at the discretion of whom?
Secretary of the Navy
1187
What provides an annuity income for survivors of retired uniformed service members?
Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP)
1188
You may elect SBP coverage to guarantee your family receives what percent of your maximum retired pay to a minimum amount designated by law?
55
1189
A transfer to the Fleet Reserve requires that you complete how many years at your duty station and submit the application no sooner than 6 months or later than 12 months before your requested transfer date?
2
1190
You must have physical examination how many months before your retirement date to allow for the treatment of minor health problems or to identify health problems that would qualify you for a disability retirement?
6
1191
Fleet reservists not on active duty must inform the Commanding Officer, Naval Reserve Personnel Center, of their plans to travel or reside outside of the United States for a period of how many days or more?
30
1192
You may sell back up to how many days’ leave during your career?
60
1193
What is training of a general nature in areas such as financial responsibility, sex education, family service center services, and Navy Relief?
GMT
1194
An effective training program has three basic features: compatibility, evaluation and instruction, and what else?
Analysis and improvement
1195
Commanding Officers are charged with the responsibility of training junior officers under their command by what article of the U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990?
Article 821
1196
Completion of the Dependent Care Certificate (what form) identifies designated custodians who will assume responsibility for the members’ dependents in their absence?
OPNAV 1740/1
1197
What instruction defines Navy policy and assignment responsibilities for the administration and support of the Navy Family Service Center Program?
OPNAVINST 1754.1A
1198
The Ombudsman Program was first set up in the Navy in what year?
1970
1199
The broad purpose of what program is to offer support to the next of kin of Navy members involved in a casualty?
Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)
1200
Only an officer with a minimum of how many years of active duty or a qualified senior enlisted member of paygrade E-7 or above may serve as a CACO?
2
1201
What programs provide a comprehensive approach to the improved quality of life of military personnel (active and retired), their families, and civilian personnel associated with the armed forces?
MWR
1202
About what percent of all military members experience some level of financial difficulty at one or more times in their career?
50
1203
What instruction outlines Navy policy on the adequacy, assignment, utilization, and occupancy of single quarters?
OPNAVINST 11103.1
1204
What program was set up by the Chief of Naval Operations in 1970 to ease the move of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
Navy Sponsor Program
1205
What helps Navy personnel and their families deal with various overseas cultures?
ODSP
1206
What is a telephone hot line that provides Navy members and their families with a central source of information on nearly all overseas duty stations?
OTIS
1207
Whom in 1980, the 21 st Chief of Naval Operations (CNO), initiated the Navy’s pride and professionalism program?
Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
1208
What is an introductory act leading to an action?
Initiative
1209
What is a skill or cleverness in devising or combining ways to get the job done?
Ingenuity
1210
What is the soundness of moral character and ethical principles?
Integrity
1211
What is the handing down of beliefs and customs from generation to generation?
Tradition
1212
The identification and reporting of fraud, waste, and abuse is known as what?
Disclosure
1213
Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights is known as what?
Fraud
1214
The extravagant, careless, or need-less expenditure of government resources, resulting from improper or deficient practices, systems, controls, or decisions is known as what?
Waste
1215
The intentional, wrongful, or improper use of government resources is known as what?
Abuse
1216
Who is responsible for carrying out the Navy’s Integrity and Efficiency (I&E) Program?
Chief of Naval Operation (CNO)
1217
Who coordinates audits, inspections, and investigations, and provides positive initiatives to reduce fraud, waste, and abuse within the DON?
NAVINSGEN
1218
What is a summary of assignments of the various ships’ bills?
Watch, quarter, and station bill
1219
An individual, squad, section, platoon, company, or other unit that is part of a larger unit is known as what?
Element
1220
An arrangement of elements in line, in column, or in any other prescribed manner is known as what?
Formation
1221
A formation of elements or persons abreast or side by side is known as what?
Rank/Line
1222
A formation of elements or persons placed one behind the other is known as what?
File/Column
1223
The extreme right or left of a unit, either in line or in column is known as what?
Flank
1224
Distance between ranks is how many inches?
40
1225
Who is the individual on whom a formation or element regulates its alignment?
Guide
1226
A pace is the length of a full step (30 inches for men and how many inches for women)?
24
1227
The step is the distance from heel to heel between the feet of a marching person. The half step and back step are 15 inches. The right and left steps are how many inches?
12
1228
What is the basic military position?
Attention
1229
The commands Parade, REST are given only when the formation is at what position?
Attention
1230
What is the horizontal distance between the shoulder and elbow when the left hand is placed on the left hip?
Close interval
1231
In port, who is an officer or petty officer who has been designated by the commanding officer to be in charge of the command?
Officer of the Deck (OOD)
1232
The mess audit board is responsible for auditing the mess treasurer’s account in the chief petty officer’s mess and the wardroom mess. The audits are conducted how often?
Monthly
1233
According to naval records, the first mention of the chief petty officer was on a ship’s muster roll in what year?
1775
1234
A Navy regulation reestablished the term chief petty officer in what year?
1865
1235
On 25 February 1893, what President issued an executive order outlining the pay scale for Navy enlisted personnel which was issued to the Navy as General Order Number 409 which divided the pay scale into rates and for the first time listed CPOs?
President Benjamin Harrison
1236
All evidence indicates what as the date the chief petty officer rate was actually established?
1 April 1893
1237
The uniforms prescribed for you as a CPO are divided into how many separate categories?
Four
1238
The chevrons on the male CPO rating badge measure 3 ¼ inches across; on the female CPO rating badge, they measure how many inches across?
2 ½
1239
The senior chief petty officer rating badge has a silver star centered about what distance above the head of the eagle?
1 inch
1240
You wear service stripes, or hash makes, for every how many years of service?
4
1241
When you wear more than one service stripe, position them how far apart?
¼ inch
1242
What is a term used to denote any decoration, medal, badge, ribbon, or attachment given to a person?
Award
1243
Awards are divided into how many categories?
5
1244
You may wear how many warfare specialty insignias?
2
1245
The requirements for safety investigations are set forth in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5102.1C
1246
Any unplanned or unexpected event causing material loss or damage or causing personnel injury or death; or an occurrence that, except for proximity or timely action, would have resulted in damage or injury in known as what?
Mishap
1247
Who is the designated safety officer for a particular division?
Division Officer
1248
A senior petty officer, what grade or above, should be designated as division safety petty officer?
E-6
1249
The safety council convenes how often to develop recommendations for policy in safety matters and to analyze progress of the overall safety program?
Monthly
1250
Who is responsible for setting up and maintaining an Information Security Program and a Personnel Security Program?
Secretary of the Navy
1251
The Secretary of the Navy has made whom responsible for information and personnel security?
Chief of Naval Operations
1252
What provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security?
National Security Council (NSC)
1253
What prescribes the requirements (including investigations) for civilian government employment?
Office of Personnel Management
1254
Who serves as the chairman of the National Foreign Intelligence Board?
Director of Central Intelligence (DCI)
1255
What is the chief internal security agency of the federal government?
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
1256
What is the Department of the Navy’s sole liaison with the FBI on internal security matters?
Naval Investigative Service
1257
What is responsible for the Department of the Navy’s investigative, law enforcement, counter-intelligence, and physical security policies and programs?
COMNAVSECINVCOM
1258
The person designated as the command security manager is an officer or a civilian employee, what paygrade or above, with sufficient authority and staff to manage the command program?
GS-11
1259
The security manager is responsible to the commanding officer on matters of security but reports to whom for the administration of the Information and Personnel Security Program?
Executive Officer
1260
The person designated as TSCO is an officer; a chief petty officer; a senior noncommissioned offer (E-7, E-8, or E-9); or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-7
1261
The TSCO ensures physical inventories of Top Secret materials are conducted at least once how often?
Annually
1262
The assistant security manager is a U.S. citizen; an officer or an enlisted person, E-6 or above; or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-6
1263
What grade or rate restrictions apply to Top Secret couriers?
None
1264
Who is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information being processed in the automated system?
ADP security officer
1265
The SSO is an officer or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-9
1266
What is responsible for policy guidance, education requirements, and source support for the security education program?
COMNAVSECINVCOM (OP-09N)
1267
Counter-espionage briefings are required once every how many years for those who have access to information classified Secret or above?
2
1268
Make sure all personnel who have access to classified information receive a refresher briefing at least how often?
Annually
1269
Persons who have had access to classified information should receive a debriefing before termination of active military service or civilian employment or temporary separation for a period of how many days or more, including sabbaticals and leave without pay?
60
1270
What is the disclosure of classified information to a person who is not authorized access to that information?
Compromise
1271
A preliminary inquiry will be conducted when classified information has been compromised or subjected to compromise. The inquiry should be completed quickly, usually within how many days?
2 or 3
1272
What means any form of encounter, association, or communication with any citizen of a Communist-controlled or hostile country?
Contact
1273
If a Department of the Navy member who had access to classified information commits suicide or attempts suicide, the commanding officer immediately reports the incident to the nearest what?
NIS office
1274
What is any product containing information that could adversely affect the national security if disclosed without authorization?
Classified material
1275
Information that requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security receives one of three classification designations: What are they?
Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential
1276
What classification should be designated for information that could cause grave damage to our national security upon unauthorized disclosure?
Top Secret
1277
What classification should be designated for information that could cause serious damage to the national security upon unauthorized disclosure?
Secret
1278
What classification should be designated for information that could cause damage to our national security upon unauthorized disclosure?
Confidential
1279
As classified (permanently valuable) records in the National Archives become how many years old, the Archivist of the United States reviews them for declassification?
30
1280
Commands maintain records for how many years to show the number and distribution of all reproductions of classified documents?
2
1281
Typewriter ribbons are exempt from destruction if the upper and lower sections have been cycled through the machine how many times in the course of regular typing?
5
1282
Store Top Secret material in a safe-type steel filing container having a built-in, three position, dial type combination lock approved by the what?
General Services Administration
1283
The MP and MR locks have more advanced features designed to protect against expert manipulation than those found in conventional locks. These locks have at least 100 graduations on the dial, which provide a choice of at least how many combinations?
1 million
1284
The Navy forbids the use of what type of lock to safeguard classified material?
Electrically actuated locks
1285
Rotate the dial of combination locks at least how many complete turns in the same direction when securing safes, files, or cabinets?
4
1286
Destruction of classified material maybe done only by authorized means and by how many persons cleared to the level of the material being destroyed?
2
1287
Record the destruction of Top Secret and Secret materials on the Classified Material Destruction Report which is what form?
OPNAV Form 5511/1
1288
The two officials responsible for destroying Top Secret and Secret materials will sign and date the record of destruction. Retain records of destruction for a period of how many years?
2
1289
What has been the traditional method for destroying classified material?
Burning
1290
What instruction outlines the policies and procedures governing public release of official information and the conditions under which a security review is required?
SECNAVINST 5720.44A
1291
What is exempt from the requirements for portion markings?
NNPI
1292
The basic policy of the Department of the Navy Personnel Security Program designated whom as the official responsible for managing the security clearance program?
Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
1293
What is an inquiry by an investigative agency into a person’s activities conducted for the purpose of making a personnel security determination?
Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)
1294
The Navy conducts personnel security investigations before granting a security clearance to persons who handle sensitive information. These investigations fall into one of how many categories?
Seven
1295
What is a check of federal agency files on persons who apply for employment by federal agencies?
National Agency Check (NAC)
1296
What determines a person’s suitability for entry into the service?
ENTNAC
1297
The scope of a BI usually covers a period that extends back how many years or begins at the 18th birthday, whichever is the shorter period?
5
1298
The scope of an SBI covers a period that extends back how many years or begins at the 18th birthday, whichever is the shorter period?
15
1299
A Critical position in the PRP requires a BI within the past how many years before initial assignment?
5
1300
When military personnel have a break in active duty of more than what time frame, investigations completed before the break becomes invalid for assignments to the PRP?
1 year
1301
What means that knowledge or possession of classified information is permitted only by persons requiring access in the interest of national security?
Circulation control
1302
What coordinates any sexual assault that occurs within a domestic relationship or involves child abuse?
FAP
1303
What is victim misconduct that might be in time, place or circumstance associated with the victim’s sexual assault incident?
Collateral misconduct
1304
What are the words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct at issue by a competent person are defined as?
Consent
1305
What is the emergency non-clinical care aimed at assisting victims to alleviate nay potential negative consequences by providing safety assessments and connecting the victims to needed resources?
Crisis intervention
1306
Which Department of Defense (DoD) database captures uniform data that is provided by Military Services and maintains all sexual assault data collected by the Military Services?
Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID)
1307
What is the agency that processes PCS or PCA’s for expedited transfers for the Navy?
Bureau of Naval Personnel
1308
What type of situation requires immediate intervention to prevent the loss of life, limb, sight, or body tissue to prevent undue suffering?
Emergency
1309
What are the actions taken referred to as that are used to resolve the reported sexual assault incident, document case outcome, and address the misconduct by the alleged perpetrator, as appropriate?
Final disposition
1310
What type of information includes those facts and circumstances surrounding the sexual assault incident or that information about the individual that enables the identity of the individual to remain anonymous?
Non-personally identifiable
1311
What is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action, or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a Service member for making, preparing, or receiving a communication?
Reprisal
1312
What serves as the DoD’s single point of authority, accountability, and oversight for the SAPR program?
Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Office (SAPRO)
1313
Who provides liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters and reports directly to the SARC when performing victim advocacy duties on behalf of the sexual assault victim?
SAPR VA
1314
What is defined as intentional sexual contact that is characterized by the use of force, threats, intimidation, or the abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent?
Sexual assault
1315
What is defined as any person who suffers direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of the commission of a sexual assault?
Victim
1316
Who serves as the Department of the Navy representative to the DoD Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Integrated Process Team (IPT)?
DON-SAPRO
1317
At least how many key milestones of Service level sexual assault victim support processes are identified by the DON-SAPRO in coordination with Service representatives?
4
1318
How many full time SARCs at a minimum shall be assigned to each brigade or equivalent unit level of the Navy and Marine Corps?
1
1319
Only members of the Armed Forces and civilian employees of the Department of Defense may be assigned to duty as a SARC as of what date?
October 1st, 2013
1320
Who ensures that all Department of the Navy (DON) military and civilian healthcare personnel, including those not assigned to Medical Treatment Facilities (MTFs), receive SAPR training?
CHBUMED
1321
How many reporting options do sexual assault victims have?
2
1322
Which type of sexual assault reporting is favored by the Department of Defense (DoD) and the Department of the Navy (DON) as it improve the command’s ability to support victims and enables criminal investigations?
Unrestricted
1323
Which sexual assault reporting option is only available to service members and adult military dependents?
Restricted
1324
The DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation along with what else prohibits the improper disclosure of confidential communications or improper release of medical information?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
1325
Sexual assault victims must take advantage of the Restricted Reporting option before whom is informed of the investigation?
SARC
1326
Within how many hours of an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault will SARCs provide sexual assault victims installation commanders with all information regarding the unrestricted reports?
24
1327
The time that the SARC has to provide the installation commander of sexual assault victims with information regarding all Unrestricted Reports may be extended by the commander to how many hours after the Unrestricted Report of the incident when there are extenuating circumstances in deployed environments?
48
1328
How many years are DD Form 2910’s stored as an electronic record in the Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID) from the date the victim signed it?
50
1329
Which instruction contains guidance on the retention for the “DoD Sexual Assault Forensic Examination (SAFE) Report” (DD Form 2911)?
DoD Instruction 5505.18
1330
How many years will the SARC retain a hard copy of the Restricted Report DD Form 2910?
5
1331
How many years will the SAFE Kit, which includes the DD Form 2911 or civilian forensic examination report, if available, be retained for?
5
1332
Within how many days of taking command shall each commander meet with the SARC for one-on-one SAPR training?
30
1333
Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault unrestricted report must the SARC update the installation commander?
24
1334
How often must Commanders provide victims of a sexual assault who filed an Unrestricted Report updates?
Monthly
1335
Who will be Commander of the Service member who is a subject of a sexual assault allegation immediately provide in writing all disposition data, to include any administrative or judicial action taken, stemming from the sexual assault investigation to?
MCIO
1336
What do SARCs have to have for a favorable check from to be permitted access to enter sexual assault reports into DSAID?
National Agency check (NAC)
1337
What are used to enhance communications and the sharing of information regarding sexual assault prosecutions, as well as the sexual assault care and forensic examinations that involve Service members and eligible TRICARE beneficiaries?
MOA’s/MOU’s
1338
Who may order a member of a Reserve Component who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before the LOD determination is made to be retained on active duty until completion of the LOD determination upon request of the member?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
1339
How many days from the date of the request by a member of a Reserve Component to continue on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before LOD determination is make, or to be ordered to active duty, respectively, be decided within?
30
1340
If the request submitted by a member of a Reserve Component to continue on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before LOD determination is made is denied, the member may appeal to the first General Officer or Flag Officer in the chain of command of the member, and in the case of such an appeal a decision on the appeal must be made within how many days from the date of the appeal?
15
1341
Which form must the service member fill out to affirmatively change his or her reporting option to Unrestricted Reporting in order to be eligible for an expedited transfer if the Service member originally filed a Restricted Report and requests an expedited transfer?
DD Form 2910
1342
Within how many hours from the CO’s receipt of a Service member’s request who have filed an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault to request a temporary or permanent expedited transfer from their assigned command or installation, or to a different location with their assigned command or installation do they have to approve or disapprove the request?
72
1343
What is one of the most significant barriers to reporting assault because of the victim’s fear of punishment?
Collateral misconduct
1344
The initial disposition authority is withheld from all commanders within the DON who do not possess at least special court-martial convening authority and who are not in the what grade of higher, with respect to the alleged offenses of rape, sexual assault, forcible sodomy, and all attempts to commit such offenses, in violation of Articles 120, 125, and 80 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?
O-6
1345
Who serves as the single point of contact to coordinate sexual assault response when a sexual assault is reported?
SARC
1346
Gender responsive, culturally competent, along with what else should SARC’s sexual assault responses incorporate?
Recovery oriented
1347
How many years will hard copies of the DD Form 2910 be retained in the Restricted Reports?
5yrs
1348
How many years will the DD Form 2910 as well as the DD Form 2911’s filed in connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the request of a service member?
50
1349
Within how many hours of receiving an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault must the SARC or SAPR VA provide the installation commander with information regarding the Unrestricted Report?
24
1350
At least how often will the SARC or SAPR or SAPR VA facilitate SAPR training?
Annually
1351
Which form will be used to document a sexual assault victims consent in writing to transfer case management documents when a sexual assault victim has a temporary or permanent change of station or is deployed?
DD Form 2910
1352
Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault report must SARCs enter information into DSAID either through direct data entry or by Military Service DSAID interface?
48
1353
An extension of how many hours can be granted to SARCs who are in deployed locations that have internet connectivity issues to enter sexual assault information into DSAID either through direct data entry by SARCs or by Military Service DSAID interface?
96
1354
Who serves as the CMG co-chair?
Installation SARC
1355
Who establishes the minimum standards of medical treatment for victims of sexual assault based on the requirements outlined in the Department of Justice National Protocol?
CHBUMED
1356
Which for will be sexual assault victim be provided with a hard copy of upon completion of the SAFE Kit?
DD Form 2911
1357
How many years from the date of the victim’s Restricted Report of the sexual assault will any evidence along with the SAFE Kit be stored for?
5
1358
How long after the sexual assault restricted report must the SARC contact the victim to inquire whether they wish to change their reporting option to unrestricted?
1 yr
1359
How many years will the DD Forms 2910 and 2911 that are filed in connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the request of the victim?
50
1360
How many business days do SARCs have to provide sexual assault victims copies of their DD Form 2910 and/or DD Form 2911 upon request?
7
1361
At least how many days before the expiration of the 5 year sexual assault restricted report storage period will a NCIS consolidated Evidence Facility representative notify the installation SARC that the storage period is about to expire and confirm with the SARC that the victim has not made a request to change to Unrestricted Reporting or made a request for any personal effects?
30
1362
How often will the installation commander or the deputy installation commander chair the Case Management Group (CMG) to review individual sexual assault cases?
Monthly
1363
What does the Navy performance evaluation system utilize for officers (W2-O5)?
FITREP
1364
What does the Navy performance evaluation system utilize for chief petty officers (CPO) (E7-E9)?
CHIEFEVAL
1365
What does the Navy performance evaluation system utilize for the enlisted personnel (E1-E6)?
EVAL
1366
What is the highest grade performance traits are given in the Navy performance evaluation system?
5.0
1367
What performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy standards?
3.0
1368
What performance trait grades must be substantiated in the comments, as well as general comments on the reminder of the evaluative blocks?
1.0
1369
What is the highest promotion recommendation that is allowed for paygrades O1 and O2 (with the exception of Limited Duty Officers)?
Promotable
1370
What publication contains specific direction concerning delegated reporting seniors?
EVALMAN
1371
An enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 and civilians in command positions who hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12 may sign reports on what paygrade and below?
E5
1372
A CPO or senior chief petty officers (SCPOs) may sign reports on personnel what paygrade and below only?
E4
1373
Reports for E1 to E9 may be signed by personnel in what grade or their equivalent?
GS-13
1374
Personnel in what paygrade and below require the signatures of a rater and senior rater, as well as the reporting senior on their EVALs?
E6
1375
What rank or the civilian equivalent must personnel hold to be the rater for E1-E4 personnel?
E6
1376
What type of counseling must be provided at the mid-point of the periodic report cycle as well as when reports are signed?
Performance
1377
Who guides the counseling program as well as monitors counselor performance and results?
CO
1378
Who is responsible for the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL and EVAL programs?
Chief of Naval Personnel
1379
What type of reports must cover, day-for-day, all naval service on active duty or in drilling Reserve programs, except for enlisted initial entry training and other limited circumstances?
Regular
1380
What type of reports provide a record of significant performance in an additional duty (ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) status?
Concurrent
1381
What performance trait grade is reserved for performance that is far above standards as well as being notable for its exemplary or leadership quality?
5.0
1382
What performance trait grade identifies sailors that could be promoted two paygrades and still be a standout?
Superstar Performance 5.0
1383
What is comprised of the highest echelon of unit command, the duties and responsibilities assigned, higher headquarters' written and verbal directives and Navy history and traditions?
Unit Administration
1384
The principles comprising an effective administration include: hierarchy, unity of command, specialization and delegation of authority, and what else?
Span of control
1385
Who is ultimately responsible for the unity and the personnel assigned?
Commanding officer
1386
What refers to the ideal number of people who can be supervised effectively by one person, but also recognized the scope of the assigned functional responsibilities and the available to the supervisor?
Span of Control
1387
Ordinarily, a supervisor should be immediately responsible for not lee than three or more than how many subordinates?
7
1388
What is the authority which a leader lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?
Command
1389
What provides the motivating force which leads to coordinated action and unity of effort?
Effective leadership
1390
What includes the right to require actions of others by oral or written orders?
Authority
1391
What is responsible for providing an environment that motivates the crew to effectively and efficiently execute their duties free from harassment and secure in the knowledge that their families are safe?
Unite adminstration
1392
What were established to support the flow of information, provide practical tools for adjusting to Navy deployments and separations, and serve as a link between the command and Sailors' families?
Family Readiness Groups
1393
Which series establishes the Navy Family Ombudsman Programs to improve mission readiness through improved family readiness?
OPNAVINST 1750.1
1394
Which series contains the unit award instructions concerning the Chief of Naval Operations Aviation Related Safety Awards?
OPNAVINST 1650.28
