NBME Surgery Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

Normal liver span

A

<12cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much fluid does a burn victim need in the first 24 hours?

A

To calculate the fluid needed, you must know % of body surface area affected.
Formula: (% body surface) X 4 X kg
50% of fluids in 1st 8 hours
50% in next 16 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prophylaxis for burn wound care.

A

Infection prevention = topical:

  • silver sulfadiazine
  • mafenide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the initial treatment of Acute Pancreatitis?

A
Vigorous IV Fluids
NPO
Analgesics
Nasogastric decompression if vomiting
Most patients resolve in 3-5 days.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Value of K for Hyperkalemia?

Treatment?

A

Hyperkalemia when K>5.0

Tx = Dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What lung neoplasms cause paraneoplastic effects and what are the associated key findings?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma = PTHrP = hypercalcemia
Small cell carcinoma = SIADH = hyponatremia
Small cell carcinoma = ACTH = more cortisol = Cushing syndrome (hypertension, weight gain, moon facies, abdominal striae, buffalo hump, hyperglycemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PT and PTT in DIC, HIT, ITP and TTP

A
DIC = Increased
HIT = normal
ITP = normal
TTP = normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most important aspect of ventilation of a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress.

A

High PEEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Next step in management:

After trauma patient is found to have a widened mediastinum.

A

Next step = spiral CT (CT angio / Aortic angio)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Epistaxis with no obvious source of bleeding and continues to bleed after packing. What is the bleeding artery?

A

Sphenopalatine artery

branch of maxillary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do you see on urine analysis of urolithiasis?

A

Microscopic hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carotid bruit. Next step in management.

A

Carotid duplex ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pancreatic tumor associated with diarrhea.

A

VIPoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enterococcus is gram positive or negative?

A

Gram Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pseudomonas is gram positive or negative?

A

Gram Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of hernia is associated with GERD?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia

NOT paraesophageal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Best test to screen for breast cancer.

Best test to diagnose breast cancer.

A

Screen with mammogram

Diagnose with core needle biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complex adnexal cyst. Next step in management.

A

Laporoscopic exploration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of indomethacin

A

Cyclooxygenase inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Midsystolic click. Dx?

A

Dx = Mitral valve prolapse

Associated with Marfans and Elher-Danlos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the antibodies to in Hashimoto vs Graves?

A
Hashimoto = anti-thyroid peroxidase (antimicrosomal) and anti-thyroid globulin
Graves = anti-thryoid stimulatin immunoglobulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is toxic synovitis?

A

Synovial inflammation up to 4 weeks after URI or GI viral illness.

23
Q

Hepatic mass with central scar on imaging. Dx? Next step?

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia. Treatment is not necessary.

24
Q

Large bowel obstruction, but there is no mechanical obstruction. Dx? Tx?

A

Dx = Ogilvie syndrome
Tx = Gentle enema or nasogastric suction
if these fail then Sigmoid-guided placement of a rectal tube

25
What causes hypocalcemia in an alcoholic
The hypomagnesemia in an alcoholic causes decreased PTH and thus decreased calcium
26
Therapy for patient with pneumonia that has no spleen.
Ceftriaxon and vancomycin
27
Pregnant woman with tingling of index and middle fingers. Dx? Test to confirm diagnosis?
Dx = Carpal tunnel syndrome | Test to confirm diagnosis = nerve conduction study (electromyography)
28
Hidradenitis suppurativa. What glands are involved?
Apocrine glands
29
Most appropriate to predict patient's risk for perioperative myocardial infarction before repair of AAA.
Radionucleotide scan with thallium and dipyridamole
30
How to evaluate adequate fluid resuscitation in a patient.
Urine output must be more than 30 mL/hr.
31
Adnexal mass -- next step
Transvaginal Ultrasound
32
Drug used to keep Ductus Arteriosus open in Tetralogy of Fallot. vs Drug used to close Ductus Arteriosus
``` Open = Prostaglandin E1 Close = Indomethacin (NSAID) ```
33
Mechanism and side effect Ketorolac
Mechanism = Ketorolac is an NSAID, which inhibits synthesis of prostacyclin. Side effect = 1) Renal ischemia. (prostaglandins vasodilate the afferent areteriole, so NSAID will cause arteriolar constriction) 2) Gastric ulcers (prostaglandins protect gastric mucose, so NSAID will cause removal of protective layer)
34
Heart sound: Opening snap
Mitral stenosis
35
Treatment for zero urine output
Place a foley or unkink the catheter
36
Low urine output after surgery = (how much?) | Treatment
< 0.5 mL/kg/hr Tx = 500 mL 0.9% saline challenge If improves = dehydration If does NOT improve = Intrinsic renal damage
37
How to diagnose Sarcoidosis.
Sarcoidosis is a disease of noncaseating granulomas present in many organs. Most often involving the lungs. Discover on X-ray: Bilateral mediastinal and hilar lymph nodes with diffuse interstitial disease bilaterally.
38
Minimum FEV1 to remain in patient to consider for pneumonectomy surgery
800 mL
39
"string sign" on barrium swallow
Crohn disease
40
How to diagnose physiologic jaundice?
High unconjugated billirubin
41
What to worry about in anesthesia of patients that are on chronic prednisone. How to treat?
Sudden hypotension, due to adrenal insufficiency. | Tx = hydrocortisone
42
Treatment of intussusseption. | Treatment of meconium ileus
Tx for intussusseption = Contrast enema | Tx for meconium ileus = Gastrografin enema
43
Diagnosis for Meckel diverticulum
Technetium scan
44
Subcutaneous emphysema in the upper chest and lower neck. Dx?
Traumatic rupture of trachea or lower bronchus.
45
How to control the symptoms of chronic pancreatitis?
Control steatorrhea = pancreatic enzymes | Hyperglycemia (diabetes) = Insulin
46
Major symptoms of pt with antithrombin III deficiency.
Increased thrombosis
47
Definitive diagnostic study for esophageal rupture.
Contrast esophogram
48
Treatment for esophageal rupture
IV fluids NPO Antibiotics H2 blockers
49
Common cause of retinal artery occlusion
Carotid thrombosis | much check for carotid stenosis
50
Erythema and fullness between the gluteal folds. Fever. Diagnosis?
Pilonidal abscess
51
What other diagnsosis should you look out for if you find flail chest? Next steps in management?
Look out for pulmonary contusion. Pulmonary contusion is sensitive to fluid overload, so restrict fluids and use diuretics. Also look out for transection of aorta.
52
Cause of fever during surgery or immediately after surgery
Wonder drugs = malignant hyperthermia = during surgery | Immediately after surgery = bacteremia
53
Causes of post op fever depending on POD (post-op-day). Next step.
POD 1 = Wind = Atelectasis = incenstive spirometry POD 2 = Wind = Pneumonia = broad spectrum antibiotics POD 3 = Water = UTI = take foley out POD 5 = Walking = DVT/PE = Heparin bridge Warfarin POD 7 = Wound = Cellulitis POD 10-14 = Wound = Abcess = ultrasound/CT = antibiotics and incision drainage