NCC content Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

define pharmacodynamics

A

the ACTION part
“what the drug does to the body”
-the activity of the drug at the tissue receptor site; the free drug binds to a specific receptor site causing a desired response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define pharmacokinetics

A

the MOVEMENT part
“what happens to the drug once it enters the body”
-movement of a drug in, through, and out of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the four parameters of pharmacokinetics?

A

ADME

  • absorption
  • distribution
  • metabolism
  • excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is active transport?

A

requires energy in order to move substance into intracellular space through pump (against concentration gradient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

when a substance needs an accessory protein to carry it through the cell membrane (follows concentration gradient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

define bioavailability

A

amount of drug dose that reaches systemic circulation

-IV route is 100% bioavailable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is first pass metabolism?

A

when an organ (i.e. liver) utilizes a portion of the drug before it gets to the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is absorption delayed via the PO route?

A
  • delayed gastric emptying
  • stomach pH is more neutral (7-8) until 2-3 months of age
  • NPO status
  • increased transit time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which environment provides best absorption for acidic drugs?

A

an acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why is absorption increased via the topical route?

A
  • higher surface area to body weight
  • increased permeability of skin
  • decreased stratum corneum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define distribution

A

transport of the drug from the bloodstream to the site of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

define absorption

A

getting the drug from the site of administration into the blood circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does circulation affect distribution of a drug?

A

increased blood flow = increased drug delivery to tissue

-rate of blood flow to tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does total body water content affect distribution?

A

increased total body water = more drug needed

-Vd = volume of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does protein binding affect distribution?

A

increased protein binding = less free drug available

-too much protein binding prevents a drug from having the ability to reach the tissue/receptor site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does lipid solubility of a drug affect distribution?

A

lipid soluble drugs move better across membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does tissue receptor affinity affect distribution?

A

increased affinity = increased delivery of drug to site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 3 actions of metabolism?

A
  • biotransformation: the drug is chemically altered to an inactive form
  • changed to a water soluble drug (to be excreted through kidneys)
  • changed into an active metabolite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where does the majority of metabolism take place?

A

in the liver

cytochrome P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why are preemies at higher risk for drug toxicity?

A
  • immature liver function for metabolism
  • decreased protein = more active free drug
  • immature renal function = cannot eliminate drugs as well; GFR is decreased, tubular function is decreased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

why factors decrease drug metabolism in preemies?

A
  • prematurity
  • decreased cardiac output
  • renal insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is 1st order elimination?

A
  • a constant fraction of drug is eliminated over time

- proportional to amount given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how many half lives does it take for an entire drug to be eliminated?

A

5 1/2 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how many half lives does it take to reach steady state?

A

5 1/2 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
why is a loading dose sometimes necessary?
needed for drugs with a long half life
26
define steady state
the equilibrium point where the amount of drug in equals the amount of drug excreted
27
which organs are responsible for excretion of drugs?
- kidneys - liver - intestine
28
name drugs that have a narrow therapeutic range
- gentamicin - vancomycin - amikacin
29
what determines if a drug can cross the placenta?
- lipid solubility - molecular weight of drug - protein bound
30
how does surfactant function?
REDUCES alveolar surface tension
31
how does albuterol work?
causes bronchodilation by acting on B2 adrenergic receptors and B agonist
32
what are side effects of albuterol?
- rebound tachycardia - hypokalemia - HTN
33
what is albuterol used for?
-acute bronchospasm and to improve lung capacities in BPD infants
34
what is atrovent used for?
-used to treat bronchospasm related to CLD
35
how does atrovent work?
-inhibits parasympathetic bronchoconstriction
36
how does dexamethasone work?
potent glucocorticoid that suppresses inflammation | -increases permeability of lung capillaries
37
side effects of dexamethasone
- suppresses immune response - hyperglycemia - hypertension - growth retardation - adrenal insufficiency if weaned too quickly
38
indications for dopamine
hypotension and renal hypoperfusion
39
how does dopamine work?
- low doses work on dopaminergic receptors to produce renal perfusion - higher doses work on alpha and B1 adrenergic receptors to produce inotropic effect on heart
40
dobutamine indications
treats low output heart failure and poor cardiac contractility
41
how does dobutamine work?
B1 agonist increasing cardiac output
42
what should you do before starting dopamine or dobutamine?
give fluid bolus first!
43
why dopamine vs dobutamine?
dobutamine is a better choice if the problem is poor cardiac contractility
44
digoxin indications
treat CHF and arrhythmias
45
how does digoxin work?
increases intracellular calcium, thus improving cardiac contractility
46
what are signs of digoxin toxicity?
bradycardia, vomiting, hypokalemia
47
adenosine indication
treat SVT
48
does for adenosine
0.05-0.2 mg/kg/dose
49
in which condition should you not use adenosine?
2nd or 3rd degree heart block
50
what is the benefit of ibuprofen over indomethacin?
causes less renal dysfunction
51
how does prostaglandin E work?
relaxes smooth muscle of the ductus
52
what are the side effects of prostaglandin E?
- apnea - bradycardia - fever - hypotension - thrombocytopenia
53
why is reglan not used as much in the neonatal population?
risk for tardive dyskinesia
54
how does zantac work?
- H2 receptor antagonist | - inhibits gastric acid secretion
55
how does prevacid work?
- proton pump inhibitor | - blocks production of gastric acid secretion
56
what are the 3 most common infectious agents in the first week of life?
- GBS - e. coli - listeria
57
what are common infectious agents after the 1st week of life?
- staph | - pseudomonas
58
what drug reverses paralytics?
atropine
59
how does caffeine work?
stimulates the respiratory center, improves respiratory muscle contraction
60
how does phenobarb work?
raises the seizure threshold
61
what is the loading dose for phenobarb?
20 mg/kg
62
what are the side effects of lasix?
- electrolyte instability - ototoxicity - nephrocalcinosis - renal calculi
63
how does lasix work?
potent loop diuretic
64
how does aldactone work?
potassium sparing diuretic
65
how does chlorothiazide work?
non-calcium wasting diuretic
66
how does hydrochlorothiazide work?
inhibits sodium reabsorption in distal tubules