NCLEX Book Questions Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
When teaching a 22-year-old woman about breast self-awareness, the nurse should tell the woman to perform the assessment:
About 1 week following the onset of menses.
About halfway between menses. Incorrect
On the same day every month.
About 1 week before the onset of menses.
A
About 1 week following the onset of menses.
Women should perform a breast self-examination breast self-awareness (BSE) about 1 week following the onset of menses, when hormonal influences on the breasts are at a low level.
2
Q
Clinical breast examinations should be performed every __ years for women 20 to 39 years of age and ___ for woman 40 years or older.
A
3
annually
3
Q
The American Cancer Society and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that mammograms start at the age of ___ unless the woman is at high risk for breast cancer.
A
40
4
Q
Vulvar self-examinations should begin in women ___ and in women younger than that if they are sexually active.
A
18 years old
5
Q
When scheduling times for women to have a pelvic examination and Papanicolaou (Pap) test, what question is important to ask the woman?
When was her last examination?
On what date will her next menstrual period start?
Does she have insurance coverage of the examination?
Does she use any type of birth control?
A
On what date will her next menstrual period start?
6
Q
Pelvic examinations should be scheduled ____ menstrual periods.
A
between
7
Q
Which of the following is correct concerning the performance of a Pap test?
- The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours before the test.
- It should be performed once a year, beginning with the onset of puberty.
- A lubricant such as petroleum jelly should be used to ease speculum insertion. Incorrect
- The specimen for the Pap test should be obtained after a specimen is collected to test for cervical infection.
A
The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours before the test.
8
Q
When using tampons, they should be changed at least every __ hours to prevent excessive bacterial growth
A
4
9
Q
A woman is being admitted to the outpatient surgical unit for a tubal ligation. She states to the nurse, “I know I have to go through with the surgery since I have already signed all the papers, but I was thinking this morning how wonderful it would be to have another baby.” The nurse’s next action should be to:
- Inform the woman that the surgery unit has already been prepared and that it would be expensive to cancel the surgery at this time.
- Inform the woman that the surgery can be reversed at a later date if she should change her mind.
- Inform the surgeon of the woman’s feelings.
- Document the conversation and continue to prepare the woman for surgery.
A
- Inform the surgeon of the woman’s feelings.
10
Q
Essure procedure
A
- a tiny coil is inserted into each fallopian tube.
- The tubes become permanently blocked during the next 3 months as tissue grows into the inserts.
- During this time, another contraceptive method is used.
- The procedure can be performed in the physician’s office.
- It is a nonsurgical method of sterilization.
11
Q
A woman is to have an Essure procedure performed to produce sterilization. The nurse should include in the client teaching that:
- This procedure requires minor surgery and will be done in the outpatient surgical unit.
- The woman should use another form of birth control for 3 months after the procedure.
- The woman should rest for 24 hours after the procedure and should not lift heavy objects for a week.
- Narcotic analgesics will be prescribed for pain control after the procedure.
A
The woman should use another form of birth control for 3 months after the procedure.
12
Q
Following a vasectomy, complete sterilization does not occur until sperm are no longer present in the semen. This may be ___ months or longer.
A
3
13
Q
Depo-Provera is an injectable progestin that prevents ovulation for 12 weeks. This requires the woman to return to the clinic every___ months for the injection.
A
3
14
Q
The Depo-Provera injection is best given ___ of the menstrual period. If given later in the cycle, an additional form of contraception should be used for the first week.
A
within 5 days
15
Q
A lactating woman asks the nurse about contraception. She states that she has always used a combination pill and would like to continue with that method. The nurse should advise the woman that:
- Oral contraceptives are contraindicated during the lactation period.
- Progestin-only contraceptives may be started 6 weeks after birth.
- Combination contraceptive pills may be started 3 to 4 weeks after birth.
- Only barrier methods are recommended during the lactation period.
A
- Progestin-only contraceptives may be started 6 weeks after birth.
16
Q
A woman asks the nurse about the “new vaginal ring everyone is talking about for birth control.” When counseling the woman about this method of contraception, the nurse should assess for the woman’s:
- Ability to remember to insert the device every morning.
- Feelings about having to insert the device before sexual intercourse. Incorrect
- Comfort level about self-insertion of the ring every 3 weeks.
- Ability to return to the clinic once a month for reinsertion.
A
Comfort level about self-insertion of the ring every 3 weeks
17
Q
A woman is being counseled concerning the calendar method type of natural family planning. The woman states that her cycles run from 27 to 29 days. The nurse teaches the woman that ovulation will probably occur on about days:
10 to 12.
13 to 15.
16 to 18.
18 to 20.
A
13 to 15.
18
Q
Ovulation occurs approximately __ days before the onset of menses.
A
14
19
Q
To obtain an accurate blood pressure of a woman in labor, the nurse should assess the blood pressure:
- Between contractions, with the woman lying on her side.
- Between contractions, with the woman lying on her back.
- With a contraction while the woman is lying on her side.
- With a contraction while the woman is lying on her back.
A
Between contractions, with the woman lying on her side.
20
Q
During contractions the fetus has mechanisms in place to protect it from the decrease in blood flow. Those mechanisms include:
- Fetal hemoglobin levels that are more resistant to oxygen.
- Lower hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Incorrect
- A high cardiac output level.
- A higher respiratory level.
A
A high cardiac output level.
21
Q
When doing a vaginal exam, the nurse notes a triangular-shaped depression toward the mother's left side and pointing up toward her abdomen. The nurse can record the fetal position as: LOP. ROP. LOA. ROP.
A
LOA
22
Q
Which of the following are considered theories about the onset of labor? (Select all that apply).
A. Changes in the relative effects of estrogen and progesterone
B. An increase in prostaglandins
C. Increased secretion of prolactin
D. Decreased secretion of oxytocin
E. Stretching and irritation of the uterus and cervix
A
A,B,E
23
Q
A 39-week primigravida calls the birthing center and tells the nurse she has contractions that are 10 to 15 minutes apart and had a small gush of fluid about 1 hour ago. The nurse should tell her to:
- Wait until the contractions are about 5 minutes apart and come to the center. Incorrect
- Come to the birthing center now.
- Come to the birthing center in about an hour if she lives farther than 1 hour away.
- Come to the birthing center if the baby stops moving.
A
Come to the birthing center now.
24
Q
Upon completion of a vaginal examination on a laboring woman, the nurse records: 50%, 6 cm, -1. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the data?
Fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Effacement is 4 cm from completion . Incorrect
Dilation is 50% completed .
Fetus has passed through the ischial spines.
A
Fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
25
A client is being discharged, having been diagnosed with false labor. The nursing diagnosis for her is Deficient Knowledge: characteristics of true labor. An appropriate expected outcome for this diagnosis is that the:
- Client will return to the hospital when she is in true labor.
- Client will define true labor.
- Client will describe reasons for returning to the hospital for evaluation.
- Client will be able to determine false from true labor.
- Client will describe reasons for returning to the hospital for evaluation.
26
Which of the following findings during the fourth stage would require immediate interventions by the nurse?
Fundus firm and at midline
Fundus firm, deviated to the right, with slight distention over the symphysis pubis
Blood pressure and pulse slightly lower than reading during second stage of labor
Lochia is bright red, with a few small clots Incorrect
Fundus firm, deviated to the right, with slight distention over the symphysis pubis
27
The technique of delaying pushing until the reflex urge to push occurs may be called
delayed pushing, laboring down, rest and descend, or passive pushing
28
On review of a fetal monitor tracing, the nurse notes that for several contractions the FHR decelerates as a contraction begins and returns to baseline just before it ends. The nurse should:
Describe the finding in the notes.
Reposition the woman onto her side. Incorrect
Call the physician for instructions.
Administer oxygen at 8 to10 L/min with a tight face mask
Describe the finding in the notes.
29
The normal fetal pH is _____
7.25 to 7.35.
30
A normal fetal pulse oximetry reading is____
30% to 70%
31
For low-risk women, the nurse should evaluate the fetal monitoring strip or assessment fetal well-being at least every __ minutes during the active phase of labor and every ___ minutes during the second stage
30 during active
15 during second
32
The nurse is preparing to auscultate the fetal heart rate using a Doppler transducer. When performing the Leopold maneuver, the nurse felt the buttocks near the fundus and the back along the left side of the mother. The best position for the Doppler would be in the mother’s:
Left upper quadrant.
Left lower quadrant.
Right upper quadrant.
Right lower quadrant.
Left lower quadrant.
33
Which of these might cause late decelerations in the fetus? (Select all that apply).
```
A. Maternal hypotension
B. Excessive uterine activity
C. Maternal hypertension
D. Fever Incorrect
E. Maternal overhydration
F. Prolapsed cord Incorrect
```
A, B, C
34
Immediately after birth the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit and the fundus can be palpated ____.
midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
35
Within 12 hours of birth the fundus rises to ___.
the level of the umbilicus
36
By the second day, the fundus starts to descend by approximately ____
1 cm/day
37
Marked leukocytosis occurs during the postpartum period. The WBC count increases to as high as ____. The WBC count should fall to normal values by day __.
30,000/mm3.
7
38
One nursing measure that can help prevent postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infections is:
Forcing fluids.
Perineal care. Incorrect
Encouraging voiding every 2 to 3 hours.
Encouraging the use of stool softeners.
Encouraging voiding every 2 to 3 hours.
39
A woman was admitted to the ED with her newborn baby. The baby was born 4 days ago at home. The woman had no prenatal care. The nurse is assessing the lab work and sees that the mother has an O-negative blood type, the baby is O-positive, and the Coombs test shows that the mother is not sensitized to the positive blood. The nurse’s next action should be:
- Order Rho(D) immune globulin to be given to the mother.
- Order Rho(D) immune globulin to be given to the baby. Incorrect
- Record the findings of the lab work and not plan on any further action at this time.
Record the findings of the lab work and not plan on any further action at this time.
40
When assessing a woman who gave birth 2 hours ago, the nurse notices a constant trickle of lochia. The uterus is well contracted. The next nursing action should be to:
Massage the fundus.
Continue to monitor.
Notify the physician.
Assess the blood pressure and pulse for changes.
Notify the physician.
41
Methylergonovine is contraindicated if the woman has an ____.
elevated blood pressure
42
Constipation is a common problem during the postpartum period. Select all the reasons for constipation during this period.
```
A. Diminished bowel tone
B. Overhydration during labor
C. Episiotomy that causes the fear of pain with elimination
D. Iron supplementation
E. Some pain medications
```
A, C, D, E
43
The placental site heals by a process of
exfoliation
44
The new parents express concern that their 4-year-old son is jealous of the new baby. They are planning on going home tomorrow and are not sure how the preschooler will react when they bring the baby home. Which of the following suggestions by the nurse will be most helpful?
Be aware that the child may regress to an earlier stage.
Have the mother go into the house alone and spend time with the child before the father brings the baby in.
Have the child stay with a grandparent until the parents adjust to the new baby.
Tell the child that he is a “big boy” now and doesn’t need his crib so the new baby will be using it for a while.
Have the mother go into the house alone and spend time with the child before the father brings the baby in.
45
The maternal adaptation phase in which the mother relinquishes her previous role as being childless and her old lifestyle is called the _______________ phase.
letting go
46
When the father develops a bond with the new infant and has an intense interest in how the infant looks and responds, this is called ________________.
engrossment
47
Which newly delivered mother with an unassisted birth is at greatest risk for lacerations of the cervical area of vagina?
Primigravida with 10-hour labor, 1-hour pushing stage
Gravida 2 with an 8-hour labor, 30-minute pushing stage
Gravida 2 with a 1-hour labor, 10-minute pushing stage
Gravida 3 with a 5-hour labor, 30-minute pushing stage
Gravida 2 with a 1-hour labor, 10-minute pushing stage
48
The best position for a woman who has postpartum endometritis is:
Fowler's
49
One of the earliest signs of hypovolemic shock is
tachycardia
50
When caring for a newborn the nurse must be alert for signs of cold stress, which would include which of the following?
Decreased activity level
Increased respiratory rate
Hyperglycemia
Shivering Incorrect
Increased respiratory rate
51
The hematocrit level in the normal infant is ___
48% to 69%.
A level higher than 65% indicates polycythemia
Polycythemia increases the risk of jaundice and damage to the brain.
52
A plan of client care that identifies client outcomes and specifies time lines for achievement of those outcomes is termed:
Outcomes management.
Case management.
Clinical pathway
Clinical pathway
53
Semmelweis discovered that puerperal infections could be prevented by proper
hygiene
54
The health care birth system that uses health maintenance organizations and preferred provider organizations is termed
managed care
55
In applying ethical principles, the nurse should always show respect to the client, provide privacy, and ensure the client has the information needed to make decisions. This is called:
autonomy
56
A karyotype is done on a client’s embryo. The results show 47,XY. The nurse interprets this for the client as a:
Male with an added chromosome.
57
Color blindness is an ___-linked recessive trait.
X
58
Positive results in a contraction stress test are when late decelerations accompany at least ___% of the contractions.
50
59
During the latent phase of labor, the nurse suggests that the woman play cards with her husband. The nurse is aware that this will help the woman deal with the pain of contractions. This technique is called:
Cutaneous stimulation.
Gate control theory.
Thermal stimulation.
Hydrotherapy.
Gate control theory.
60
All the following women in labor are requesting pain medication. To which one should the nurse administer an opioid analgesic first?
A. Primigravida, 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced, grimacing slightly with each contraction Incorrect
B.Gravida 4, 9 cm dilated, 100% effaced, wants to push with each contraction
C. Gravida 2, 6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, rocks back and forth in bed with each contraction
D. Primigravida, 1 cm dilated, moans loudly with each contraction, has present history of heroin use
Gravida 2, 6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, rocks back and forth in bed with each contraction
61
The nurse should realize that the most common and potentially harmful maternal complication of epidural anesthesia would be:
Severe postpartum headache.
Limited perception of bladder fullness.
Increase in respiratory rate.
Hypotension.
Hypotension.
62
A woman must have general anesthesia for a planned cesarean birth because of a previous back surgery. The nurse should therefore expect to administer:
Naltrexone (Trexan).
An oral barbiturate.
Ranitidine (Zantac).
Promethazine (Phenergan).
Ranitidine (Zantac).
63
Why is a cleansing breath at the beginning and end of contractions important? (Select all that apply).
Helps the woman release tension
Provides oxygen to reduce myometrial hypoxia
Provides a diversional activity for the woman
Helps the fetus to release tension
Helps the woman release tension
| Provides oxygen to reduce myometrial hypoxia
64
The laboring woman may rub her abdomen during a contraction to counteract discomfort. This is called
effleurage
65
Which of the following are used to assist with the cervical ripening process prior to induction of labor? (Select all that apply).
```
A. Prostaglandin
B. Oxytocin Incorrect
C. Misoprostol (Cytotec)
D. Laminaria tents
E. Terbutaline
```
A, C, D
66
Which of the following would be an indication for a cesarean birth? (Select all that apply).
```
A.Maternal coagulation defects
B.Fetal death
C.Cephalopelvic disproportion
D.Active genital herpes
E.Persistent nonreassuring FHR patters
```
C, D, E
67
At birth the stomach capacity of a newborn is about __ mL but will expand to about 90 mL within the first week.
6
68
With ___ jaundice, the jaundice is not present during the first 24 hours of life. It appears on the second or third day.
physiologic
69
During the ___ period of reactivity, the infant is alert and interested in feeding.
second
70
Select the following situations that could accelerate fetal lung maturation. (Select all that apply).
```
A. Intrauterine growth restriction
B. Maternal hypertension
C. Prolonged rupture of membranes
D. Maternal diabetes
E. Maternal administration of steroids
```
A, B, C, E
71
Which of the following factors lead to the production of excessive amounts of bilirubin during the first week of life? (Select all that apply).
A.Longer red blood cell life
B.Liver immaturity
C.Sterile intestines
D.Trauma during birth
B, C, D
72
The normal respiratory rate of a newborn is __ to __- breaths/min
30 to 60
73
During a newborn’s first assessment a few minutes after birth, the nurse notes moisture in the left lower lung field. The newborn is having no respiratory difficulty. The nurse’s next action should be to:
Suction the infant.
Administer oxygen.
Notify the pediatrician.
Document the findings and continue to monitor.
Document the findings and continue to monitor.
74
When newborns are in a deep sleep, the heart rate may drop to as low as ___ bpm.
100
75
The nurse notices a soft swollen area over the 1-day-old newborn’s skull. It is approximately 3 × 2 cm and has clear edges that stop at the suture line. The nurse may document this finding as being:
Caput succedaneum.
Cephalohematoma.
Cephalohematoma
76
A newborn can lose up to __% of its birth weight during the first 7 to 10 days of life.
10
77
When doing the initial measurements of a newborn, the nurse records the head diameter as 34 cm and the chest diameter as 32 cm. The nurse is aware that:
These measurements are within normal limits.
The chest is too large for the head.
The head is too large for the chest.
These measurements are within normal limits
78
A shrill, high-pitched cry in a newborn may indicate:
Hunger.
Neurologic disorder.
Cardiac disorder.
No significance.
Neurologic disorder.
79
If the newborn's glucose reading is around 40 to 45 mg/dL, the infant is usually___ and when is the glucose reassessed?
fed and the glucose is reassessed in 30 to 60 minutes.
80
A newborn’s pulse should be assessed using which pulse point?
Brachial
Radial
Apical
Femoral
Apical
81
Throughout the assessment, the nurse must be alert for signs of respiratory distress. Select all of the following that are signs of respiratory distress.
```
A.Respiratory rate of 55 breaths/min
B.Substernal retractions
C.Nasal constriction
D.Cyanosis of the hands and feet
E.Grunting
F.Seesaw respirations
```
B, E, F
82
The ruddy, reddish color of the newborn skin caused by polycythemia is called _________________.
plethora
83
If the meatus is located on the underside of the penis, it is called _______________.
hypospadias
84
Vitamin K should be given by which route?
IM
85
When suctioning a newborn, which technique is correct?
The mouth should be suctioned first and then the nose, with the bulb syringe.
86
The nurse should assess all newborns for jaundice every 8 to 12 hours. This is done by:
Ordering the appropriate blood work.
Monitoring the color and consistency of the stools.
Monitoring intake and output.
Blanching the newborn’s skin.
Blanching the newborn’s skin.
87
A newborn’s mother has tested positive for hepatitis B. When should the newborn receive the hepatitis B vaccine?
By 2 months
Within 13 hours
Within 1 week
By 6 months
By 2 months
88
The amount of breast milk produced depends primarily on adequate:
Amounts of estrogen and progesterone.
Stimulation of the breast.
Amounts of oxytocin.
Stimulation of the fundus
Stimulation of the breast.
89
A pregnant woman complains of inverted nipples. She is planning on breastfeeding and thinks that the nipples may be a problem. The nurse should teach her to:
Stretch the nipples out once a day to convert the inversion.
Roll the nipples twice a day to pull out the nipple.
Wear a breast shell in her bra.
Wear a tighter-fitting bra.
Wear a breast shell in her bra.
90
The nurse should teach the different ways new mothers can assess if the newborn is receiving sufficient milk. Select all that are appropriate to assess.
Nutritive suckling
Number of wet diapers
Number of stools
Length of time newborn is attached to the breast
A, B, C
91
Select all the causes of decreased milk supply in a lactating mother.
```
ASupplementation with formula
BMultivitamin use
CSmoking
DCaffeine
ESome oral contraceptives
FCertain foods
```
A, C, D, E
92
The hormone that causes the breasts to produce milk is _______________.
prolactin
93
The hormones that inhibit breast response to prolactin and prevent milk production are _______________, ________________, and ________________.
estrogen, progesterone, human placental lactogen
94
Breast milk is produced in the ____________ of the breasts.
alveoli
95
Prickly heat develops in infants who are too warmly dressed in any weather. This is called _____________.
miliaria
96
Chronic inflammation of the scalp or other areas of the skin characterized by yellow, scaly, oily lesions is called _________________.
seborrheic dermatitis
97
A woman in labor has a long history of uncontrolled hypertension. The hypertension has continued throughout the pregnancy and labor. The nurse is aware that the woman is at high risk for which complication?
Abrupt placenta
98
A nurse is aware that more teaching is necessary when a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes states:
“I will eat only three meals a day.”
“I will decrease my complex carbohydrates to 40% of my diet.”
“I can increase my fat intake slightly during the pregnancy.” Incorrect
“I will not eat any sugary snacks until after the baby is born.”
“I will eat only three meals a day.”
99
Most preexisting cardiac problems can be well tolerated during pregnancy if the woman has been successfully treated before the pregnancy. One condition may increase her risk for bacterial endocarditis significantly, which would require prophylactic antibiotics throughout the pregnancy, labor, and birth. This cardiac condition is:
Atrial septal defect.
Tetralogy of Fallot.
Mitral valve prolapse.
Peripartum cardiomyopathy.
Mitral valve prolapse.
100
A woman who is 7 months pregnant with a preexisting cardiac disease has been treated with restriction of activities and sodium intake. During a clinic visit, the woman complains of increased shortness of breath and fatigue. The nurse is aware that the next line of treatment for this woman may be:
Anticoagulant therapy with warfarin (Coumadin).
Complete bed rest.
Diuretic therapy.
Hospitalization.
Diuretic therapy.
101
Which pregnancy hormone is responsible for creating insulin resistance in maternal cells?
Estrogen
102
A woman had premature rupture of the membranes at 37 weeks of gestation. She went into labor within 10 hours and delivered a 7 lb, 12 oz boy after a 12-hour labor. In planning care for the newborn, it is important to monitor him for:
Respiratory distress syndrome.
Transient tachypnea of the newborn.
Infections.
Cardiac anomalies.
Infections
103
A fetus that is in a ___ station is at high risk for a prolapsed cord when the membranes rupture.
high
104
low birth weight
very low birth weight
extremely low birth weight
low = 2500 g (5 lb, 8 oz) or less at birth
very = 1500 g (3 lb, 5 oz) or less at birth
extreme =1000 g (2 lb, 3 oz) or less at birth
105
Risk factors for transient tachypnea of the newborn include ___ and ___
cesarean birth and mothers who are diabetic.
106
The total serum bilirubin test of __ mg/dL in the first 24 hours indicates that phototherapy may be indicated.
8
107
A newborn who is 12 hours old develops tremors. The nurse has assessed the blood glucose and calcium levels and they are both within normal limits. The next assessment by the nurse should be to assess for:
Hypothermia.
Prenatal drug exposure.
Lung sounds.
Cardiac defects.
Prenatal drug exposure.
108
Semen analysis is a common diagnostic procedure related to infertility. When instructing a male client about this test, the nurse would tell him to:
- Ejaculate into a sterile container.
- Obtain the specimen after a period of abstinence from ejaculation for 2 to 5 days.
- Transport the specimen with the container packed in ice.
- Ensure that the specimen arrives at the laboratory within 30 minutes of ejaculation.
Obtain the specimen after a period of abstinence from ejaculation for 2 to 5 days.
109
After an infertility assessment, a woman receives a prescription for clomiphene citrate (Clomid). The nurse should teach the woman that this medication is used to:
Correct excess prolactin secretion.
Reduce endometriosis.
Stimulate the release of FSH and LH.
Induce ovulation.
Induce ovulation.
110
Generally, the first test to be performed on a male when infertility issues are present is a _______________
semen analysis
111
Vaginal mucus, when it resembles an egg white in consistency, possesses maximum elasticity and usually precedes or coincides with ovulation. This is known as ___________________.
Spinnbarkheit
112
A woman who has had a hysterectomy has been prescribed hormone replacement therapy. The nurse can anticipate which type of hormones that will be prescribed to this woman?
Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Estrogen therapy alone
Hormone therapy is not recommended for women after hysterectomies.
Progesterone therapy alone
Estrogen therapy alone
113
A 65-year-old woman, gravida 6, para 6, is complaining of increasing stress incontinence and pelvic pressure and fullness. Pelvic examination reveals a bulging in the anterior vaginal wall. This woman is most likely experiencing:
Uterine prolapse.
Rectocele.
Cystocele.
Vesicovaginal fistula
Cystocele
114
During an annual gynecologic examination, the physician notes an enlarged left ovary in a 28-year-old woman. The woman has no complaints of pain or tenderness. The nurse can anticipate:
An appointment for an ultrasound.
Scheduling the woman for a laparoscopy. Incorrect
Scheduling the woman for a follow-up examination after her next menses.
Nothing. The finding is insignificant.
Scheduling the woman for a follow-up examination after her next menses.
115
The recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia would be:
Doxycycline.
Podofilox.
Acyclovir.
Penicillin.
Doxycycline
