Nclex Hint Flashcards
1
Q
Sodium:
A
135-145 mEq/L
2
Q
Potassium:
A
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
3
Q
Calcium:
A
8.5-10.9 mg/L
4
Q
Chloride:
A
95-105 mEq/L
5
Q
Magnesium:
A
1.5-2.5 mEq/L
6
Q
Phosphorus:
A
2.5-4.5 mg/dL
7
Q
RBC:
A
4.5-5.0 million
8
Q
WBC:
A
5,000-10,000
9
Q
Platelet.:
A
200,000-400,000
10
Q
Hgb:
A
12-16 gms women; 14-18 gms men
11
Q
HC03:
A
24-26 mEq/L
12
Q
C02:
A
35-45 mEq/L
13
Q
Pa02:
A
80%-100%
14
Q
Sa02:
A
> 95%
15
Q
Glucose:
A
70-110 mg/dL
16
Q
Specific gravity:
A
1.010-1.030
17
Q
BUN:
A
7-22 mg/dL
18
Q
Serum creatinine:
A
0.6-1.35 mg/dL (< 2 in older adults)
19
Q
LDH:
A
100-190 U/L
20
Q
CPK:
A
21-232 U/L
21
Q
Uric acid:
A
3.5-7.5 mg/dL
22
Q
Triglyceride:
A
40-50 mg/dL
23
Q
Total cholesterol:
A
130-200 mg/dL
24
Q
Bilirubin:
A
< 1.0 mg/dL
25
Protein:
6.2-8.1 g/dL
26
Albumin:
3.4-5.0 g/dL
27
Digoxin:
0.5-2.0 ng/ml
28
Lithium:
0.8-1.5 mEq/L
29
Dilantin:
10-20 mcg/dL
30
Theophylline:
10-20 mcg/dL
31
Heart rate:
80-100
32
Respiratory rate:
12-20
33
Blood pressure:
110-120 (systolic); 60-90 (diastolic)
34
Temperature:
98.6°F
35
FHR:
120-160 BPM
36
FHR Variability:
6-10 BPM.
37
Contractions: normal frequency
2-5 minutes apart
38
Contractions normal duration
< 90 sec.
39
Contractions intensity
< 100 mm/hg.
40
Amniotic fluid:
500-1200 ml (nitrozine urine-litmus paper green/amniotic fluid-litmus paper blue)
41
APGAR meaning
A = appearanceP = pulses, G = grimace, A = activity, R = reflexes
42
APGAR scoring done at
1 and 5 minutes
43
APGAR scoring:
0 for absent, 1 for decreased, and 2 for strongly positive
44
AVA:
The umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein (Arteries carry deoxygenated blood. The vein carries oxygenated blood.)
45
FAB 9—Folic acid = B9
B stands for brain (decreases the incidence of neural tube defects); the client should begin taking B9 three months prior to becoming pregnant.
46
Decelerations are _______________findings on the fetal monitoring strip.
abnormal
47
Decelerations are classified as
Early, Variable and Late
48
Early decelerations
Begin prior to the peak of the contraction and end by the end of the contraction. They are caused by head compression. There is no need for intervention if the variability is within normal range (that is, there is a rapid return to the baseline fetal hear
49
Variable decelerations
noted as V-shaped on the monitoring strip. Variable decels can occur anytime during monitoring of the fetus. They are caused by cord compression. The intervention is to change the mother's position; if pitocin is infusing, stop infusion, alert physician
50
Late decelerations
Occur after the peak of the contraction and mirror the contraction in length and intensity. These are caused by uteroplacental insuffiency. The intervention is to change the mother's position; if pitocin is infusing, stop the infusion; apply oxygen;, and
51
TORCHS syndrome in the neonate
A combination of diseases including toxoplasmosis, rubella (German measles), cytomegalovirus, herpes, and syphyllia. Pregnant nurses should not be assigned to care for the client with toxoplasmosis or cytomegalovirus.
52
STOP-This is the treatment for maternal hypotension after an epidural anesthesia:
1. Stop pitocin if infusing. 2. Turn the client on the left side. 3. Administer oxygen. 4. If hypovolemia is present, push IV fluids.
53
Coumadin (sodium warfarin) PT:
10-12 sec. (control).
54
The antidote for Coumadin is
vitamin K.
55
Heparin/Lovenox/Dalteparin PTT:
30-45 sec. (control).
56
The antidote for Heparin is
protamine sulfate.
57
Therapeutic level: It is important to maintain a bleeding time that is slightly prolonged so that clotting will not occur; therefore, the bleeding time with mediication should be:
1 1/2-2 times the control.
58
The control (for anticoagulants) is
the premedication bleeding time.
59
Rule of nines for calculating TBSA for burns
Head = 9% ; Arms = 18% (9% each) ; Back = 18% ; Legs = 36% (18% each) ; Genitalia = 1%
60
Arab American cultural attributes
Females avoid eye contact with males; touch is accepted if done by same-sex healthcare providers; most decisions are made by males; Muslims (Sunni) refuse organ donation; most Arabs do not eat pork; they avoid icy drinks when sick or hot/cold drinks toget
61
Asian American cultural attributes
They avoid direct eye contact; feet are considered dirty (the feet should be touched last during assessment); males make most of the decisions; they usually refuse organ donation; they generally do not prefer cold drinks, believe in the "hot-cold" theory
62
Native American cultural attributes
They sustain eye contact; blood and organ donation is generally refused; they might refuse circumcision; may prefer care from the tribal shaman rather than using western medicine.
63
Mexican American cultural attributes
They might avoid direct eye contact with authorities; they might refuse organ donation; most are very emotional during bereavement; believe in the "hot-cold" theory of illness.
64
Jehovah's Witness
No blood products should be used
65
Hindu
No beef or items containing gelatin
66
Jewish
Special dietary restrictions, use of kosher foods
67
Renal diet
High calorie, high carbohydrate, low protein, low potassium, low sodium, and fluid restricted to intake = output + 500 ml
68
Gout diet
Low purine; omit poultry ("cold chicken") medication for acute episodes: Colchicine; maintenance medication: Zyloprim
69
Heart healthy diet
Low fat (less than 30% of calories should be from fat)
70
ROME (respiratory opposite/metabolic equal) is a quick way of remembering that:
in respiratory acid/base disorders the pH is opposite to the other components. For example, in respiratory acidosis, the pH is below normal and the C02 is elevated, as is the HC03 (respiratory opposite). In metabolic disorders, the components of the lab
71
pH down, C02 up, and HC03 up:
respiratory acidosis
72
pH down, C02 down, and HC03 down:
metabolic acidosis
73
pH up, C02 down, and HC03 down:
respiratory alkalosis
74
pH up, C02 up, and HC03 up :
metabolic alkalosis
75
Addison's and Cushing's are diseases of the __________________ system involving either overproduction or inadequate production of cortisol.
endocrine
76
Treatment for the client with Addison's:
increase sodium intake; medications include cortisone preparations.
77
Treatment for the client with Cushing's:
restrict sodium; observe for signs of infection.
78
Treatment for spider bites/bleeding
RICE (rest, ice, compression, and elevate extremity)
79
Treatment for sickle cell crises
HHOP (heat, hydration, oxygen, pain medications)
80
Five Ps of fractures and compartment syndrome—These are symptoms of fractures and compartment syndrome:
Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Polar (cold)
81
Hip fractures commonly:
hemorrhage
82
Femur fractures are at risk for:
fat emboli
83
Profile of gallbladder disease
Fair, fat, forty, five pregnancies, flatulent (actually gallbladder disease can occur in all ages and both sexes)
84
Delegate sterile skills such as dressing changes to the:
RN or LPN.
85
Where nonskilled care is required, you can delegate the stable client to the:
nursing assistant.
86
Choose the most critical client to assign to the______such as the client who has recently returned from chest surgery.
RN
87
Clients who are being discharged should have final assessments done by the:
RN
88
The PN, like the RN, can monitor clients with
IV therapy, insert urinary catheters and feeding tubes, apply restraints, discontinue IVs, drains, and sutures.
89
For room assignments, do not coassign the post-operative client with clients who have:
vomiting, diarrhea, open wounds, or chest tube drainage.
90
Remember the ___________________ when answering questions choices that ask who would you see first.
A, B, Cs (airway, breathing, circulation)
91
For hospital triage, care for the client with a ________________ or__________________ first.
life-threatening illness or injury
92
For disaster triage, choose to triage first those clients who can:
be saved with the least use of resources.
93
The ___ and the __________ institute seclusion protection.
RN, Physician
94
The ____ or the _________ nurse can pronounces client dead.
MD, hospice
95
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibiting agents:
Benazepril (Lotensin),
lisinopril (Zestril),
captopril (Capoten),
enalapril (Vasotec),
fosinopril (Monopril),
moexipril (Univas),
quinapril (Acupril),
ramipril (Altace)
96
Beta adrenergic blockers:
Acebutolol (Monitan, Rhotral, Sectral),
atenolol (Tenormin, Apo-Atenol, Nova-Atenol), esmolol (Brevibloc),
metaprolol (Alupent, Metaproterenol),
propanolol (Inderal)
97
Anti-infective drugs:
Gentamicin (Garamycin, Alcomicin, Genoptic), kanamycin (Kantrex), neomycin (Mycifradin), streptomycin (Streptomycin), tobramycin (Tobrex, Nebcin), amikacin (Amikin)
98
Benzodiazepine drugs:
Clonazepam (Klonopin),
diazepam (Valium),
chlordiazepox-ide (Librium),
lorazepam (Ativan),
flurazepam (Dalmane)
99
Phenothiazine drugs:
Chlopromazine (Thorazine),
prochlorperazine (Compazine),
trifluoperazine (Stelazine),
promethazine (Phenergan),
hydroxyzine (Vistaril),
fluphenazine (Prolixin)
100
Glucocorticoid drugs:
Prednisolone (Delta-Cortef, Prednisol, Prednisolone), prednisone (Apo-Prednisone, Deltasone, Meticorten, Orasone, Panasol-S), betametha-sone (Celestone, Selestoject, Betnesol), dexamethasone (Decadron, Deronil, Dexon, Mymethasone, Dalalone), cortisone (Co
101
Antivirals:
Acyclovir (Zovirax),
ritonavir (Norvir),
saquinavir (Invirase, Fortovase), indinavir (Crixivan),
abacavir (Ziagen),
cidofovir (Vistide),
ganciclovir (Cytovene, Vitrasert)
102
Cholesterol-lowering drugs:
Atorvastatin (Lipitor), fluvastatin (Lescol), lovastatin (Mevacor), pravastatin (Pravachol), simvas-tatin (Zocar), rosuvastatin (Crestor)
103
Angiotensin receptor blocker drugs:
Valsartan (Diovan),
candesartan (Altacand),
losartan (Cozaar),
telmisartan (Micardis)
104
Cox 2 enzyme blocker drugs:
Celecoxib (Celebrex), valdecoxib (Bextra)
105
Histamine 2 antagonist drugs:
Cimetidine (Tagamet), famotidine (Pepcid), nizatidine (Axid), rantidine (Zantac)
106
Proton pump inhibitors:
Esomeprazole (Nexium), lansoprazole (Prevacid), pantopra-zole (Protonix), rabeprazole (AciPhex)
107
Anticoagulant drugs:
Heparin sodium (Hepalean), enoxaparin sodium (Lovenox), dalteparin sodium (Fragmin)
108
Schedule I drugs
Research use only (example LSD)
109
Schedule II drugs
Requires a written prescription (example Ritalin)
110
Schedule III drugs
Requires a new prescription after six months or five refills (example codeine)
111
Schedule IV drugs
Requires a new prescription after six months (example Darvon)
112
Schedule V drugs
Dispensed as any other prescription or without prescription if state law allows (example antitussives)
113
Antacids
Reduce hydrochloric acid in the stomach
114
Antianemics
Increase red blood cell production
115
Anticholenergics
Decrease oral secretions
116
Anticoagulants
Prevent clot formation
117
Anticonvulsants
Used for management of seizures/bipolar disorder
118
Antidiarrheals
Decrease gastric motility and reduce water in bowel
119
Antihistamines
Block the release of histamine
120
Antihypertensives
Lower blood pressure and increase blood flow
121
Anti-infectives
Used for the treatment of infections
122
Bronchodilators
Dilate large air passages in asthma/lung disease
123
Diuretics
Decrease water/sodium from the Loop of Henle
124
Laxatives
Promote the passage of stool
125
Miotics
Constrict the pupils
126
Mydriatics
Dilate the pupils
127
Narcotics/analgesics
Relieve moderate to severe pain
128
tort
litigation in which one person asserts that an injury, which may be physical, emotional, or financial, occurred as a consequence of another's actions or failure to act.
129
negligence
harm that results because a person did not act reasonably
130
malpractice
prefessional negligence
131
Slander
character attacked and uttered in the presence of others
132
assault
act in which there is a threat or attempt to do bodily harm
133
battery
unauthorized physical contact
