NCLEX Review Flashcards
(202 cards)
1
Q
What do you do first if a patient has a purulent wound?
A
Place on precautions
2
Q
Lymphadenopathy best indicates what?
A
An infection
3
Q
Airborne precautions
A
MTV=Measles, Tuberculosis, Varicella
4
Q
Varicella aka
A
Chicken pox
5
Q
Droplet precautions spacing
A
3 feet distance and open door is okay
6
Q
WBC
A
5,000-10,000
7
Q
Serum Creatinine
A
0.5-1.5
8
Q
AST
A
10-40
9
Q
AST indicates
A
Measures amount of damage to the liver and heart
10
Q
How to remove a mask with loops?
A
By the loops
11
Q
How to remove a mask with ties?
A
Remove top ties, hold. Remove bottom ties.
12
Q
What needs to be done when gloves are removed?
A
Handwashing.
13
Q
Incubation period
A
Time between when a person gets infected and when actual symptoms occur.
14
Q
Who is at risk for latex allergy?
A
A patient with spinal bifida due to many procedures
15
Q
What foods can contribute to eczema?
A
Milk, wheat, and egg whites
16
Q
Epinephrine can be given through what route?
A
IM, Subcutaneous
17
Q
What is more a priority, an artificial airway or epinephrine?
A
Epinephrine
18
Q
What is agranulocytosis?
A
An extreme decrease in WBC
19
Q
What is urticaria?
A
Hives
20
Q
Agranulocytosis symptoms within 2-3 days?
A
Sore throat, fever, fatigue, and weak rapid pulse
21
Q
What foods are highly allergenic for infants?
A
Eggs and meats
22
Q
When should egg and meat be introduced?
A
Close to 9 months of age
23
Q
What organs are part of the immune system?
A
Spleen and thymus
24
Q
A Schilling is what type of test?
A
A 24 hour urine test. The 24 hours start after discarding the first urine. Time and date info recorded before and after. Urine stored in fridge/ice.
25
What happens in percutaneous anemia?
Vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed due to a lack of an intrinsic factor, therefore it must be given parentally.
26
What is a priority for a bone marrow biopsy?
Apply pressure to the biopsy site.
27
What are two big sources of iron?
Eggs and spinach
28
What is the most common type of anemia?
Iron-deficiency anemia
29
Why is someone with a total gastrectomy at a high risk for percutaneous anemia?
Loss of mucosal surface that secretes intrinsic factor
30
Can cooking with iron utensils increase iron in the food?
Yes
31
What types of food contain iron?
Dried fruit, dark leafy greens, green beans, and raspberries.
32
How long will someone with percutaneous anemia need B12 injections for?
May need lifelong injections.
33
What type of gastric problem can cause percutaneous anemia?
Gastric ulcer
34
What causes pallor in severe anemia?
Shunting of blood to heart and brain.
35
Which food is rich in folic acid?
Spinach
36
B12 Intake does what?
Increase RBC maturation
37
What does the Schilling test measure?
The amount of vitamin B12 in the urine after the client ingests radioactive vitamin B12
38
Why is intrinsic factor important?
It is needed for B12 absorption
39
What exam is needed to confirm percutaneous anemia?
Schilling test
40
What are risk factors for percutaneous anemia?
Family history and autoimmune disease.
41
How to give iron?
After food, diluted, provide lots of water.
42
What can iron supplements cause?
Constipation and stained teeth
43
Hemophilia is what type of trait?
It is an x-linked recessive trait found primarily in males.
44
What is the priority for injured hemophilia clients?
Apply ice and elevate
45
What happens during a hemolytic reaction?
Destruction of blood cells occur
46
S/S of a hemolytic reaction
Kidney pain, hematuria, cyanosis
47
What is the primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis?
Microscopic or macroscopic (gross) hematuria
48
Glomerular damage causes what?
RBC and protein plugs or casts to be eliminated in the urine. This makes the pee look cola-colored or reddish-brown.
49
Dyspnea indicates what in a blood transfusion?
Circulatory overload
50
The nurse is most concerned if what is observed during a blood transfusion?
Hematuria occurs (Indicates a blood incompatibility)
51
Therapy for hemophilia
Antihemophilic factor (AHF)
52
Hemophilia A factor
VIII
53
Hemophilia B factor
IX
54
Hemophilia C factor
XI
55
Hemophilia B aka
Christmas disease
56
Hematocrit measures what?
Ratio of red blood cells to fluid volume
57
Oatmeal bath helps what
Relief itching
58
Blood should run no faster than what for the first 15 minutes
5mL/min
59
Blood should be infused within how long of refrigeration?
Four hours
60
What do you do for every unit of blood?
Change the entire IV system
61
Severe blood reactions occur when
Within the first 50mL of blood
62
What treatment is controversial with DIC?
Anticoagulation with heparin
63
What medication should be administered with DIC?
Oxygen
64
What medication route should be avoided with hemophilia?
IM
65
Heparin does what?
Provides immediate anticoagulation when manifestations of thrombosis occur
66
What data should the nurse collect from a patient with hemophilia
ROM (pain might indicate hemorrhage)
67
How to communicate with someone with AIDS dementia?
Simple instructions
68
What needs to be avoided if diarrhea?
Nutritional supplements due to dairy.
69
Can assisting someone brushing their teeth spread HIV?
No
70
What CD4 count puts someone at risk for developing pneumocystis pneumonia?
Less than 200
71
What helps prevent pneumocystis pneumonia?
Chemoprophylaxis
72
Can people with AIDS still have sex?
Yes
73
What degrades condoms?
Petroleum jelly
74
A person with AIDs is at risk for developing what skin problem?
Kaposi sarcoma
75
What test helps confirm an HIV diagnosis
Western blot
76
What puts an HIV patient at risk for opportunistic infections?
Decreased T cell or CD4 cell count
77
What should be decreased if a patient with HIV has diarrhea?
Decrease roughage in the diet like fatty and caffeinated foods.
78
What should the nurse recommend if a client with HIV experiences fatigue?
Sit while preparing meals
79
What kills people who have aids?
AIDS virtually cripples the body's normal protective immune response.
80
What type of medication is sulfasalazine?
sulfonamide and DMARD
81
What is sulfasalazine used for?
Mild or moderate chronic RA and inflammatory bowel disease like ulcerative colitis
82
What are some sulfa medications?
trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
83
Most sulfa drugs have what side effects?
Crystalluria (Drink water), Photosensitivity, Folic acid deficiency, agranulocytosis, and Steven's Johnson syndrome
84
Is a dust allergy the same as animal dander?
No
85
Hydroxychloroquine is what type of medication?
Antimalarial drug
86
What must a client with SLE due when taking hydroxychloroquine?
Have an ophthalmic examination every 6-12 months
87
Does hydroxychloroquine work fast?
No, it can take several months
88
Hydroxychloroquine severe adverse drug reactions?
Retinal toxicity and visual disturbances
89
What might hydroxychloroquine be prescribed for?
SLE and joint inflammation
90
When might a tonsillectomy be indicated?
Tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess, or obstructive sleep apnea
91
What should the nurse anticipate after a tonsillectomy?
Ear pain (give Tylenol) and bad breath
92
Halitosis meaning
bad breath
93
What should someone not do after a tonsilectomy?
Drink with a straw, since it can increase pressure and increase the risk for bleeding.
94
Can someone after a tonsillectomy be suctioned?
No
95
What position should someone not be in during an NG feeding?
Supine
96
Side effects of anticholinergic medications?
Blurred vision, dried mouth, decrease in pee and poop
97
What medication is given for torsades de pointes?
Magnesium
98
What is amiodarone?
An antiarrhythmic
99
When is amiodarone given?
After epinephrine in V-Fib and V-tach
100
What is vassopressin?
A medication that can increase blood pressure
101
When is atropine given?
Bradycardia
102
How to make a cast dry completely?
Reposition the limb every two hours
103
Do all visitors need to be restricted for an internal radiation implant?
No
104
What needs to be done for an internal radiation implant?
Donning gloves when emptying the client's bedpan. Wearing a lead apron when providing direct care. Keeping all linens in the room until the implant is removed.
105
Which element regarding age of blood cells is important to check?
Expiration date
106
What happens to the skin when pressed upon in acrocyanosis?
Color returns quickly after blue area is blanched.
107
What is the range for each category in the apgar score?
0-2
108
What is an apgar score of 0 in HR
Less than 60 BPM
109
What is an apgar score of 1 in HR
60-100 BPM
110
What is an apgar score of 2 in HR
More than 100
111
If patient is suspected to be abused, then you do what?
REPORT!!!
112
Is it safe to reduce the volume of ringers and pagers?
Yes
113
Benign tumors can cause what to the tissue?
Destruction by size and location in the body
114
What is performance improvement?
The creation of projects after seeing clinical issues. Research findings are used to fix issue.
115
Signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis in someone with Grave's disease.
Fever, Excessive sweeting, Tachycardia
116
What is atraumatic care?
Causing little to no trauma
117
Serum Calcium Level
8.6-10.2
118
Ionized Calcium Level
4.5-5.1
119
What food is high in calcium?
Almonds
120
What food has no calcium?
Asparagus
121
What lab must be checked if pancreatitis is suspected?
Serum amylase
122
What does creatinine kinase evaluate?
Muscle function
123
What does creatinine and BUN evaluate?
Renal function
124
If platelets are low, what assessment must be done?
Neuro checks to assess for possible brain bleed
125
What are the 6 vasopressors?
Norepinephrine.
Epinephrine.
Vasopressin (Vasostrict)
Dopamine.
Phenylephrine.
Dobutamine.
126
What needs to be done before a vasopressor is given?
Adequate fluid volume must be achieved, since they vasoconstrict.
127
What type of line dopamine is best administered?
Central line
128
What are the 5 p's of compartment syndrome?
Pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis
129
What are the 5 p's of compartment syndrome?
Pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis
130
Epiglottitis aka
Obstruction
131
Any drooling is a ---
Priority and might indicate an obstruction
132
What causes duodenal ulcerations?
With Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), the bacteria penetrate the intestinal mucosa, altering the function and consistency, leading to ulcerations. (The bacteria enters the intestine and alters the lining.)
133
radical retropubic prostatectomy priority
Kegel exercises
134
Measles is the same thing as
Rubeola
135
What do stations in OB mean?
The relationship of the presenting fetal parts to the ischial spines
136
utilization review
identifies and eliminates the overuse of diagnostic and treatment services prescribed by health care providers caring for clients on Medicare.
137
Nurse-sensitive indicators
client outcomes and nursing workforce characteristics that are directly related to nursing care, such as changes in clients’ symptom experiences, functional status, safety, total nursing hours per client day, and costs.
138
If there seems to be no indication for bleeding, do you check the surgery site or assess for pain?
Assess for pain
139
Guided Imagery
visualize images and focus on relaxing to reduce pain.
140
A client can use yoga to
learn how to perform exercises that will improve circulation, promote relaxation, and alleviate pain.
141
biofeedback
control physiological responses of the body, such as pain, using electronic equipment to evaluate specific responses.
142
Music therapy
induce distraction and relaxation, thus reducing pain.
143
How far away should a heparin injection be?
At least two inches away from umbilicus
144
Are heparin injections aspirated?
No
145
Is massaging indicated after subcutaneous injection?
No
146
Rugs
Teach family members to use throw rugs sparingly.
147
For fall risk, should a patient be advised to avoid walking if unsteady?
No
148
What should you do if a patient has low calcium levels?
Initiate seizure precautions
149
Why might a doctor not perform a splenectomy?
The spleen is important in immune function, and without it the chance of overwhelming infection becomes high.
150
Glipizide medication type
Second-generation sulfonylurea
151
What type of medication is metformin?
biguanide
152
Repaglinide medication type and for?
Meglitinide and for diabetes
153
Miglitol medication type and for?
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor and for diabetes
154
What does miglitol do?
This delays carbohydrate digestion after meals slowing glucose entry into the systemic circulation.
155
What is rhabdomyolysis?
A breakdown of muscle tissue that releases a damaging protein into the blood.
156
Rhabdomyolysis leads to what and what are nursing considerations?
myoglobinuria, which can put the kidneys at risk for acute renal injury. Keep the client hydrated and a urine output of 200 to 300 ml per hour.
157
A MAP of what is adequate to perfuse organs?
>60
158
Fresh frozen plasma is often used for what?
volume expansion caused by fluid and blood loss.
159
What must the nurse do when faxing to a facility?
Confirm that fax numbers are correct before sending. Use a cover sheet with the name of the recipient printed. Fax the information that is required for immediate needs. A fax can be sent any time with the identifiers.
160
What is associated with a risk of fetal macrosomia?
Maternal obesity and gestational diabetes
161
What is fetal macrosomia?
A large fetus
162
Dependent personality disorder?
Clingy behavior
163
What abbreviation does JCO want to be avoided
U, cc, OS
164
Qid
Four times a day
165
O.D.
Right eye
166
O.S.
Left eye
167
O.U.
Both eyes
168
What is more important, pH or PaCO2?
PaCO2
169
What is not needed if a charge nurse?
Incident report
170
Huff cough
a forced expiratory technique that mobilizes secretions from the small airways for easier expectoration.
171
What are early signs of digitalis toxicity?
Nausea, anorexia, and vomiting
172
Normal calcium levels
9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL
173
Normal hemoglobin levels
12 to 18 mg/dL
174
Normal creatinine levels
0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL
175
Normal phosphate levels
3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL
176
In chronic kidney disease, will phosphate be high or low?
High
177
What technique to use if pain is coming from the kidneys?
Blunt percussion.
178
The hooking technique is used for what?
Palpate the edges of the liver
179
Blunt percussion is used for what?
over the costovertebral angle to assess for kidney tenderness.
180
What is a characteristic of generation X?
Individuals in this generation have a tendency to want work-life balance.
181
Generation X years
1965 to 1980
182
What is a characteristic of generation Y?
Wanting to be rewarded for time spent at work
183
What year is generation Y?
1982 and 1994
184
How often should meticulous perineal care be done?
Every day
185
Normal BNP
Less than 100
186
ESR for males over 50
Less than 20
187
ESR for males less than 50
Less than 15
188
ESR for females less than 50
Less than 25
189
ESR for females over 50
Less than 30
190
Normal C-reactive protein (CRP)
1 mg/L
191
Normal INR
2 to 3.5
192
A high BNP indicates what?
congestive heart failure
193
An elevated sedimentation rate indicates what?
indicates an inflammatory process
194
What does a high CPR indicate
inflammation, tissue injury, infection, or atherosclerosis
195
Conjunctival icterus
Yellowing of the white of the eye
196
What s/s can indicate a liver rejection?
Light/clay colored stools,dark colored urine, high AST/ALT, CONJUNCTIVAL ICTERUS
197
AST
10-40
198
What is Fondaparinux?
anticoagulant that inhibits factor Xa
199
Fondaparinux is excreted through what?
The kidneys, creatinine level should be monitored periodically, and the drug stopped in clients who develop unstable kidney function or severe renal impairment.
200
Energy level of defib
For an initial defibrillation for a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation, the nurse sets the defibrillator at 120 to 200, not 80 to 100, Joules for biphasic machines.
201
How to reduce the risk for falling
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid attempting to do anything beyond reach to reduce the risk for falling.
202
Hastens
To be quick to do something
