Need practice Flashcards
(366 cards)
1
Q
Channeling shears are primarily used for all of the following special effects EXCEPT:
a) heavy fringes
b) lightly tapered effects
c) extreme length variations
d) notched perimeter lengths
A
b) lightly tapered effects
2
Q
What is necessary to do after you have completed the sculpture (haircutting) procedure?
a) wash your hands
b) cross-check for accuracy
c) texturize the sculpted form
d) insist client purchases products
A
a) wash your hands
3
Q
A layered cut or 90° angle cut is sometimes referred to as a(n):
a) solid form
b) graduated form
c) increase-layered form
d) uniformly layered form
A
d) uniformly layered form
4
Q
It is recommended that not more than what percent of the natural texture be removed when relaxing the hair?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 85%
A
d) 85%
5
Q
Which ammonium thioglycolate relaxer strength should be used on healthy, color-treated, fine-textured or porous hair?
a) mild
b) super
c) regular
d) resistant
A
a) mild
6
Q
Which of the following statements is a guideline to be followed when waxing?
a) do not wax tan skin
b) do not wax clean skin
c) do not wax over a mole
d) do not wax over a freckle
A
c) do not wax over a mole
7
Q
The nail disease referred to as ringworm of the nail is:
a) tinea pedis
b) paronychia
c) tinea manus
d) onychomycosis
A
d) onychomycosis
8
Q
The two main types of artificial nail systems used today are acrylic and:
a) gels
b) wraps
c) overlays
d) sculptured
A
a) gels
9
Q
What type of manicure is recommended when preparing nails for an artificial nail service?
a) spa manicure
b) basic manicure
c) paraffin manicure
d) waterless manicure
A
d) waterless manicure
10
Q
Substances of acidic or alkaline nature dissolve in water and/or contain:
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon
d) hydrogen
A
b) water
11
Q
Normal dry hair is capable of being stretched about how much of its length?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
A
b) 20%
12
Q
Flat pincurls created from a curved shaping are called sculpture or:
a) arc pincurls
b) square pincurls
c) carved pincurls
d) triangular pincurls
A
c) carved pincurls
13
Q
The standard proportion between the head and overall body height of a woman that most artists use is:
a) 1 to 5
b) 1 to 6
c) 1 to 7
d) 1 to 8
A
c) 1 to 7
14
Q
A thickening of the nail plate or an abnormal outgrowth of the nail is called:
a) onychia
b) pterygium
c) onychauxis
d) tinea manus
A
c) onychauxis
15
Q
What is the recommended time a client should wait to get a pedicure after shaving their legs?
a) 1 hour
b) 8 hours
c) 16 hours
d) 24 hours
A
d) 24 hours
16
Q
The muscle located under the arm that helps in lifting the arm and in breathing is called:
a) bicep
b) deltoid
c) serratus anterior
d) pectoralis major
A
c) serratus anterior
17
Q
What is the living tissue that overlies the nail plate on the sides of the nail?
a) lunula
b) cuticle
c) nail wall
d) perionychium
A
d) perionychium
18
Q
Which of the following implements removes debris from the nail sidewalls?
a) curette
b) nippers
c) nail rasp
d) cuticle pusher
A
a) curette
19
Q
Which of the following nail diseases is NOT caused by fungus?
a) tinea pedis
b) paronychia
c) tinea manus
d) onychomycosis
A
b) paronychia
20
Q
Which of the following statements is true about the 32 teeth taper shears?
a) create highly textured effects
b) create lightly tapered effects
c) produce dramatic chunky effects
d) remove a minimal amount of hair within a parting
A
a) create highly textured effects
21
Q
What do low- or no-thio perms use as a reducing agent?
a) peroxide
b) thioglycolic acid
c) cystemine hydrochloride
d) glycerol monothioglycolate
A
c) cystemine hydrochloride
22
Q
A secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvery scales is called:
a) acne
b) eczema
c) psoriasis
d) herpes simplex
A
c) psoriasis
23
Q
Which of the following muscles is located on the outside of the lower leg and bends the foot up and extends the toes?
a) tibialis anterior
b) extensor hallucis longus
c) extensor digitorum longus
d) flexor digiti minimi brevis
A
c) extensor digitorum longus
24
Q
Which one of the following components is responsible for the clotting of blood?
a) plasma
b) leukocytes
c) hemoglobin
d) thrombocytes
A
d) thrombocytes
25
Which of the following terms is an infection in the hair follicles caused by bacteria, shaving or clothing irritation?
a) eczema
b) impetigo
c) folliculitis
d) pseudofolliculitis barbae
c) folliculitis
26
Cells that have absorbed melanin to distribute pigmentation to other cells are located in what layer of the skin?
a) stratum lucidum
b) stratum corneum
c) stratum spinosum
d) stratum granulosum
c) stratum spinosum
27
The active tissue that generates cells, which harden as they move outward to form the nail plate is called the nail:
a) cuticle
b) matrix
c) mantle
d) eponychium
b) matrix
28
Rearrangers are used during a curl reformation process to reduce or relax the natural curl pattern. What is the main ingredient found in rearrangers?
a) hydrogen peroxide
b) sodium hydroxide
c) ammonium thioglycolate
d) glycerol monothioglycolate
c) ammonium thioglycolate
29
What type of pincurl is used to achieve a blend or transition from areas of volume to areas of closeness?
a) flat
b) carved
c) indentation
d) semi-stand-up
d) semi-stand-up
30
How should a callus be treated during a pedicure?
a) do nothing
b) remove with a credo blade
c) recommend client to a physician
d) smooth and reduce using a foot file
d) smooth and reduce using a foot file
31
Gels are mostly made up of what type of polymers?
a) oligomers
b) monomers
c) cyanoacrylates
d) cross-linking monomers
a) oligomers
32
An example of a wheal lesion is:
a) hives
b) tumors
c) bullas
d) pimples
a) hives
33
Which type of perm is recommended for damaged, highly porous or previously permed hair?
a) acid
b) cold
c) alkaline
d) low pH alkaline
a) acid; Acid perms are slower acting than alkaline perms and are recommended for damaged, highly porous and previously permed hair.
34
Which curling iron technique creates volume and support at the base and a consistent curl pattern throughout the strand?
a) ends
b) spiral
c) base-to-ends
d) ends-to-base
c) base-to-ends
35
Before beginning any makeup application, you will need to:
a) style the client’s hair
b) wax the client’s eyebrows
c) ask client to remove all jewelry
d) clean, tone, moisturize and protect the skin
d) clean, tone, moisturize and protect the skin
36
Where does mitosis or cell division of the skin take place?
a) stratum basale
b) stratum lucidum
c) stratum corneum
d) stratum granulosum
a) stratum basale
37
On-the-scalp lighteners have a pH of:
a) 2.5 to 3.5
b) 4.0 to 5.5
c) 6.5 to 7.5
d) about 9.0
d) about 9.0
38
Persons exposed to excessive heat may develop small red vesicles with burning and itching of the skin called prickly heat or:
a) eczema
b) anhidrosis
c) bromidrosis
d) miliaria rubra
d) miliaria rubra; heat rash
39
Where does a steatoma usually appear?
a) on the arms, legs or chest
b) on the face, feet or hands
c) on the scalp, neck or back
d) on the fingers, feet or toes
c) on the scalp, neck or back
40
Methacrylic acid is typically found in which artificial nail product?
a) primer
b) powder
c) monomer
d) dehydrator
a) (acrylic) primer
41
Which type of skin is NOT prone to acne?
a) dry
b) oily
c) normal
d) combination
a) dry
42
The living tissue under the free edge of the nail is the:
a) lunula
b) nail root
c) eponychium
d) hyponychium
d) hyponychium
43
Multiple quats are usually able to disinfect within:
a) 2 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 30 minutes
c) 10 minutes
44
A skip wave is a combination of flat pincurls and:
a) fingerwaves
b) barrel waves
c) volume waves
d) transitional waves
a) fingerwaves
45
Which of the following nail tip sizes is the largest?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 8
d) 10
a) 1
46
Which of the following statements is true about using a thermal iron on porous, white or bleached hair?
a) iron is tested with your fingers
b) highest iron temperature is used
c) hot iron is closed lightly on a damp towel before curling
d) iron is tested on hair prior to service to prevent scorching
c) hot iron is closed lightly on a damp towel before curling
47
The active tissue that generates cells, which harden as they move outward to form the nail plate is called the nail:
a) cuticle
b) matrix
c) mantle
d) eponychium
b) matrix
48
Taper shears, also known as thinning shears, are used on the ends of the hair to create:
a) mobility
b) precise lines
c) a clean blunt edge
d) a broom-like effect
a) mobility
49
The overlap (croquignole) technique produces which result?
a) undulating waves and curls
b) elongated texture pattern
c) longer lengths in the crown
d) revolutions of hair next to one another
a) undulating waves and curls
50
Mixtures of two or more kinds of molecules, having a tendency to separate when left standing, are known as:
a) solutions
b) ointments
c) emulsions
d) suspensions
d) suspensions
51
All of the following descriptions are benefits to using a low/no thio perm EXCEPT:
a) more dilation of cuticle
b) available for people who may be allergic to thioglycolic acid
c) deeper penetration of solution for longer lasting curls
d) ability to reform up to 60% more bonds during neutralization
a) more dilation of cuticle
52
What perms cause minimal swelling and must be wrapped with firm, even tension?
a) cold
b) acid
c) warm
d) alkaline
b) acid
53
Which of the following muscles flexes the joint of the small toe?
a) peroneus brevis
b) abductor digiti minimi
c) flexor digitorum brevis
d) flexor digiti minimi brevis
d) flexor digiti minimi brevis
54
The rectangle wrap is also called the:
a) spiral pattern
b) 9-block pattern
c) bricklay pattern
d) contour pattern
b) 9-block pattern
55
Which of the following products helps prevent nails from splitting.
a) cuticle cream
b) polish remover
c) nail strengthener
d) nail preparation solution
c) nail strengthener
56
High-lift tints are designed to achieve lighter colors and are generally mixed with a double amount of:
a) 10 or 20 volume hydrogen peroxide
b) 30 or 40 volume hydrogen peroxide
c) 50 or 60 volume hydrogen peroxide
d) 70 or 80 volume hydrogen peroxide
b) 30 or 40 volume hydrogen peroxide
57
Which of the following conditions refers to an excess of living skin that can remain attached to the nail plate and disrupt normal nail growth?
a) pterygium
b) leukonychia
c) bruised nails
d) onychophagy
a) pterygium
58
Onychorrhexis is a term indicating the nail condition called:
a) bitten nails
b) bruised nails
c) split or brittle nails
d) pigmentation problems
c) split or brittle nails
59
Systemic or long-term illness or nerve disturbance can cause kolionychia also known as:
a) furrows
b) hang nails
c) spoon nails
d) ingrown nails
c) spoon nails
60
The epicranius is formed by two muscles called the frontalis and the:
a) procerus
b) occipitalis
c) corrugator
d) temporalis
b) occipitalis
61
The lunula is the half-moon shape at the base of the nail and is the visible part of the:
a) nail root
b) nail matrix
c) hyponychium
d) perionychium
b) nail matrix
62
A metal plate with rows of pointed needles used to blend or straighten fiber/hair during a hair addition service is called a:
a) dryer
b) block
c) hackle
d) drawing board
c) hackle
63
All of the following terms are inflammatory disorders of the skin EXCEPT:
a) eczema
b) furuncle
c) dermatitis
d) conjunctivitis
b) furuncle
64
The primary motor nerve of the face is the:
a) facial nerve
b) trifacial nerve
c) maxillary nerve
d) mandibular nerve
a) facial nerve
65
Another term for bitten nails is:
a) onychoptosis
b) onychophagy
c) onychorrhexis
d) onychogryposis
b) onychophagy
66
An ingredient found in conditioners making hair easier to comb and control static is:
a) dimethicones
b) amines/quats
c) fatty alcohols
d) hydrogen peroxide
b) amines/quats
67
If a client has approximately 25%-30% gray hair, apply a color:
a) one level darker than the desired shade
b) one level lighter than the desired shade
c) two levels lighter than the desired shade
d) three levels lighter than the desired shade
b) one level lighter than the desired shade
68
Acid perms are in the pH range of:
a) 4.9-5.2
b) 5.9-6.2
c) 6.9-7.2
d) 7.9-8.2
c) 6.9-7.2
69
Aniline derivative tints have the ability to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a) lift natural pigment
b) deposit artificial pigment
c) lift and deposit color in a single process
d) be used as a color product for eyelashes and eyebrows
d) be used as a color product for eyelashes and eyebrows
70
Onychia is an inflammation of the:
a) cuticle
b) nail wall
c) nail matrix
d) hyponychium
c) nail matrix
71
Onychoptosis refers to:
a) ingrown nail
b) ringworm of the nail
c) inflammation of the nail matrix
d) shedding or falling off of nails
d) shedding or falling off of nails
72
All of the following are true about preliminary test curls EXCEPT:
a) gently shampoo hair prior to test curl
b) process according to manufacturer’s directions
c) unwind the curl 2.5 to 3 turns of the rod diameter
d) they help to determine how the hair will react to a perm
c) unwind the curl 2.5 to 3 turns of the rod diameter
73
Hair that is 90% cortex and 10% cuticle when compared to hair that is 40% cuticle would be considered to be:
a) less elastic
b) more elastic
c) resistant to holding a set
d) resistant to holding a perm
b) more elastic
74
Which blood vessels carry impure blood?
a) veins
b) arteries
c) platelets
d) ventricles
a) veins; Veins carry impure blood (blood containing carbon dioxide) back from the capillaries to the heart.
75
Mechanical abrasions or injuries to the epidermis are know as:
a) scars
b) ulcers
c) fissures
d) excoriations
d) excoriations
76
How do you test the temperature of wax prior to applying it to your client?
a) on your own face
b) on the inside of your wrist
c) with an oven thermometer
d) on the tender skin inside your elbow
b) on the inside of your wrist
77
Overall direction and directions within the form are determined through which level of observation?
a) basic
b) detail
c) abstract
d) none of the above
c) abstract
78
A nevus is a:
a) scar
b) wart
c) freckle
d) birthmark
d) birthmark
79
What is the normal pH range of the skin?
a) 2.5-3.5
b) 4.5-5.5
c) 6.5-7.0
d) 7.5-8.5
b) 4.5-5.5; acid-balanced
80
If you are going to be active outdoors, it is recommended that you use a lip balm with a SPF (Sun Protection Factor) of at least:
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
c) 30
81
Some products, called humectants, attract:
a) oil
b) moisture
c) cell renewal
d) cell turnover
b) moisture
82
Freckles are considered to be:
a) vitiligo
b) chloasma
c) macules
d) leukoderma
c) macules
83
The term used to describe any hyperpigmentation caused by overactivity of the melanocytes in the epidermis, is called:
a) vitiligo
b) albinism
c) leukoderma
d) melanoderma
d) melanoderma
84
What is another name for the sudoriferous glands?
a) eccrine
b) dermis
c) epidermis
d) sebaceous
a) eccrine
85
Which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?
a) wart
b) callus
c) tumor
d) birthmark
b) callus
86
Sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands, sensory nerve endings, arrector pili muscles and a major portion of each hair follicle are found in the:
a) reticular layer
b) stratum lucidum
c) stratum corneum
d) stratum spinosum
a) reticular layer
87
Which layer of the skin contains collagen protein and elastin fibers which lend support to the epidermis and give the skin its elastic quality?
a) dermal
b) epidermis
c) statum lucidum
d) stratum granulosum
a) dermal
88
A papule is an example of a:
a) tertiary lesion
b) primary skin lesion
c) subjective symptom
d) secondary skin lesion
b) primary skin lesion
89
What is the other name for liver spots?
a) rubra
b) crustacea
c) chloasma
d) leukoderma
c) chloasma
90
In which layer of the skin do the cells become irregularly shaped and have connections that appear as spines between the cells.
a) stratum corneum
b) stratum lucidum
c) stratum spinosum
d) stratum granulosum
c) stratum spinosum
91
Connective tissue is located in the:
a) dermal
b) epidermis
c) stratum basale
d) stratum corneum
a) dermal/dermis
92
Which of the following structures is found in the stratum lucidum layer?
a) basal cells
b) hair follicles
c) squamous cells
d) the true skin
c) squamous cells
93
Each sudoriferous gland consists of a coiled base and tube-like duct opening on the surface of the skin to form a sweat:
a) duct
b) pore
c) gland
d) follicle
b) pore
94
What is the study of the causes of diseases called?
a) etiology
b) pathology
c) onycology
d) bacteriology
a) etiology
95
Which of the following layers of skin does not contain any blood vessels?
a) cutis
b) dermis
c) corneum
d) epidermis
d) epidermis
96
In the ABCDEs of skin cancer, what does the letter 'D' represent?
a) drugs
b) dryness
c) density
d) diameter
d) diameter
97
Of the following steps, which comes first in a basic facial procedure?
a) apply toner
b) apply mask
c) apply exfoliant
d) apply massage movements
a) apply toner
98
Eileen’s client has developed lyme disease. Which type of bacteria is the cause of this disease?
a) cocci
b) bacilli
c) spirilla
d) streptococci
c) spirilla
99
Dispose of any material coming in contact with blood or body fluids in a:
a) sterilizer
b) cool, dry area
c) covered container
d) labeled double-bag
d) labeled double-bag
100
Washing your hands is an example of:
a) immunity
b) sanitation
c) disinfection
d) decontamination
b) sanitation
101
What type of immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system?
a) passive immunity
b) active immunity
c) natural immunity
d) acquired immunity
a) passive immunity
102
Which of the following is NOT a method used to ventilate the salon for a healthy environment?
a) air conditioners
b) keeping all bottles capped
c) positioning fans to blow away from clients
d) using local ventilation where chemicals are being mixed
b) keeping all bottles capped
103
The common cold is caused by a(n):
a) fungi
b) filterable virus
c) external parasite
d) non-filterable virus
b) filterable virus
104
Which of the following conditions is NOT a disease caused by a virus?
a) mumps
b) tuberculosis
c) common cold
d) respiratory infection
b) tuberculosis
105
Which organization approves the efficacy of products used for infection control?
a) RDA
b) EPA
c) HBV
d) OSHA
b) EPA
106
Which level of infection control requires the use of products with efficacy labels that state “appropriate for floors, countertops, sinks, toilets, towels and/or linens”?
a) sanitation
b) disinfection
c) sterilization
d) contamination
a) sanitation
107
The muscles shown below control the closing of the eyelids and are known as:
a) mentalis
b) procerus
c) buccinator
d) orbicularis oculi
d) orbicularis oculi
108
The cranial nerve responsible for transmitting facial sensations to the brain is the:
a) ulnar
b) facial
c) radial
d) trifacial
d) trifacial
109
Which of the following facial nerve branches extend to the muscles of the mouth?
a) buccal
b) temporal
c) zygomatic
d) marginal mandibular
a) buccal
110
The thumb has how many phalanges?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
a) 2
111
Which type of tissue supports, protects and holds the body together?
a) nerve tissue
b) muscular tissue
c) epithelial tissue
d) connective tissue
d) connective tissue
112
The chin and lower lip are supplied with blood by which artery?
a) angular
b) parietal
c) submental
d) inferior labial
c) submental
113
The tissue type that carries food, waste products and hormones is:
a) nerve tissue
b) muscular tissue
c) liquid tissue
d) connective tissue
c) liquid tissue
114
What is the technical term for bone?
a) os
b) osteo
c) vomer
d) humerus
a) os
115
Which of the following muscles is located on the outside of the lower leg and bends the foot up and extends the toes?
a) tibialis anterior
b) extensor hallucis longus
c) extensor digitorum longus
d) flexor digiti minimi brevis
c) extensor digitorum longus
116
Which of the following is the largest of the nerve tissues and located in the cranium?
a) brain
b) spinal cord
c) trifacial nerve
d) cranial nerves
a) brain
117
Jane, a skin care client, comments after a facial with massage service that her tight fatigued muscles now feel relaxed and soothed. Which of the following statements describes what caused this effect?
a) circulation of blood
b) secretion of hormones
c) stimulation of sensitive nerve tissues
d) elimination of gaseous waste products
c) stimulation of sensitive nerve tissues
118
Which muscle is located between the eyebrows across the bridge of the nose and is responsible for drawing brows down and wrinkling the area across the bridge of the nose?
a) risorius
b) mentalis
c) procerus
d) corrugator
c) procerus
119
The part of the brain that controls and coordinates muscle movements is the:
a) pons
b) cerebrum
c) cerebellum
d) spinal cord
c) cerebellum
120
Which phase of metabolism involves breaking down larger molecules or substances into smaller ones?
a) digestion
b) anabolism
c) catabolism
d) metabolism
c) catabolism
121
The frontalis and occipitalis muscles are joined by a tendon called the:
a) procerus
b) mentalis
c) auricularis
d) aponeurosis
d) aponeurosis
122
Which part of the brain is responsible for mental activity?
a) pons
b) cerebrum
c) cerebellum
d) spinal cord
b) cerebrum
123
The bone located behind the eyes and nose that connects all the bones of the cranium is known as the:
a) frontal bone
b) ethmoid bone
c) occipital bone
d) sphenoid bone
d) sphenoid bone
124
Which muscle is known as the laughing muscle?
a) caninus
b) mentalis
c) buccinator
d) zygomaticus
d) zygomaticus. The zygomaticus muscle located outside the corners of the mouth, draws the mouth up and back, as in laughing and consists of zygomaticus major and minor.
125
What is the name of the gel-like substance containing water, salt and nutrients that cells are composed of?
a) cytoplasm
b) anabolism
c) protoplasm
d) metabolism
c) protoplasm
126
The muscle located above and in front of the ear that performs both opening and closing the jaw, as in chewing, is called the:
a) caninus
b) masseter
c) buccinator
d) temporalis
d) temporalis
127
Which muscle bends the wrist and closes the fingers?
a) flexor
b) deltoid
c) adductor
d) supinator
a) flexor
128
The eight carpals held together with ligaments make up the:
a) knee
b) wrist
c) hand
d) elbow
b) wrist
129
The 14 bones of the foot that form the digits are known as the:
a) tarsals
b) patellas
c) phalanges
d) metatarsals
c) phalanges
130
Which branch of the cervical nerve extends into the side and front of the neck to the breastbone?
a) lesser occipital
b) greater occipital
c) greater auricular
d) cervical cutaneous
d) cervical cutaneous
131
A division of the ophthalmic branch, extending to the skin of the upper eyelid, eyebrow, forehead and scalp is the:
a) infraorbital
b) mandibular
c) supraorbital
d) auriculo temporal
c) supraorbital
132
Which artery supplies the sides of the nose with blood?
a) frontal
b) angular
c) superior labial
d) middle temporal
b) angular
133
What amount of commission will many salons pay an employee for the retail sales of home care products?
a) 2% to 5%
b) 8% to 15%
c) 20% to 25%
d) 50%
b) 8% to 15%
134
The most important relationships you form at the beginning of your career are those that develop:
a) within the salon
b) while networking
c) within your family
d) in cosmetology school
a) within the salon
135
All payments received from clients for services performed and home care products purchased is known as:
a) taxes
b) income
c) expenses
d) compensation
b) income
136
What percentage of the total salon expenses generally represents compensation for the salon owner and employees?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
c) 50%
137
An efficient working space for each stylist is:
a) 50 to 75 square feet
b) 120 to 150 square feet
c) 200 to 300 square feet
d) over 300 square feet
b) 120 to 150 square feet
138
The tax based on the profits (earnings) of a business is known as:
a) sales tax
b) payroll tax
c) income tax
d) operating tax
c) income tax
139
Which of the following descriptions could fall under a category related to "consumerism"?
a) label reader
b) non-label reader
c) accept second best
d) fail to analyze products they purchase
a) label reader
140
The minimum distance an infrared light must be placed from the client's face during a facial is:
a) 24"
b) 10"
c) 18"
d) 30"
d) 30"
141
The electrode that is negatively charged during an electrotherapy treatment is known as a(n):
a) anode
b) cathode
c) insulator
d) grounding wire
b) cathode
142
Which of the following is NOT a temporary effect of the positive pole of Galvanic Current?
a) softens tissues
b) soothes nerves
c) produces an acidic reaction
d) slows blood flow by contracting the vessels
a) softens tissues
143
What temporary effect will a negative pole produce when applying Galvanic Current during an electrotherapy treatment?
a) increase in blood flow
b) expansion of nerve tissues
c) contraction of blood vessels
d) production of an acid reaction
a) increase in blood flow
144
Which electrotherapy treatment can cause sebum to be broken down or blackheads to be liquefied, as in deep-pore cleansing?
a) Sinusoidal
b) anaphoresis
c) cataphoresis
d) desincrustation
d) desincrustation
145
The maximum amount of current used in a Galvanic treatment should not exceed:
a) 1 ampere
b) 2 amperes
c) 10 amperes
d) 1 milliampere
d) 1 milliampere
146
During scalp and facial massage, Faradic Current is used chiefly to cause:
a) soothing effects
b) chemical effects
c) the transfer of heat
d) muscle contractions
d) muscle contractions
147
The resistance to the motion of the electrons through a conductor is the Ohm's:
a) count
b) rating
c) amount
d) resistance
b) rating
148
The direct current used in electrotherapy treatments is:
a) Tesla
b) Faradic
c) Galvanic
d) Sinusoidal
c) Galvanic
149
Electrons travel on a closed path, called a:
a) circuit
b) conductor
c) insulator
d) frequency
a) circuit
150
Which of the following conditions is NOT derived through application of the Tesla, High Frequency Current?
a) improved blood circulation
b) decreased rate of metabolism
c) increased rate of metabolism
d) increased sebaceous glandular activity
b) decreased rate of metabolism
151
Which of the following types of light carries the most energy?
a) red
b) violet
c) infrared
d) ultraviolet
d) ultraviolet
152
Which of the following will produce a mild, stimulating sensation while using high frequency current?
a) wetting the area to be treated
b) wrapping the electrode in three towels
c) slightly separating the electrode from the skin with a towel
d) keeping the electrode in direct contact with the area being tested
c) slightly separating the electrode from the skin with a towel
153
When testing electrodes for polarity, the negative electrode will create:
a) still waters
b) wavy waters
c) larger bubbles
d) smaller bubbles
d) smaller bubbles
154
The three methods for using the Tesla Current are direct application, indirect application and:
a) direct current
b) alternating current
c) mechanical application
d) general electrification
c) mechanical application
155
A conditioner ingredient that gives dry hair a smooth feel and makes hair easier to comb is:
a) dimethicones
b) amines/quats
c) fatty alcohols
d) hydrogen peroxide
c) fatty alcohols
156
What product adheres to the hair shaft, even after ordinary rinsing, leaving hair easier to comb and handle?
a) conditioner
b) crème rinse
c) vinegar rinse
d) medicated rinse
b) crème rinse
157
The atomic number indicates:
a) the number of protons in an atom
b) the number of neutrons in an atom
c) the number of electrons in an atom
d) the number of atoms in an element
a) the number of protons in an atom
158
Which one of the following ingredients found in alkaline waves shortens processing time?
a) thioglycolic acid
b) hydrogen peroxide
c) ammonium hydroxide
d) glyceryl monoyhioglycolate
c) ammonium hydroxide
159
All of the following statements regarding pH are true EXCEPT:
a) pH measurement scale ranges from 0 to 14
b) a solution is acidic if it has more negative hydroxide ions
c) solutions with equal hydrogen and hydroxide ions are neutral
d) pH is a unit of measurement that indicates whether a substance is acidic, neutral or alkaline
b) a solution is acidic if it has more negative hydroxide ions
160
Overprocessing hair during a hair color, perming or relaxer service can be the result of redox also called:
a) reduction
b) application
c) relaxation
d) reformation
a) reduction
161
Ammonia, a colorless gas with a strong odor, is composed of hydrogen and:
a) sulfur
b) carbon
c) sodium
d) nitrogen
d) nitrogen
162
The bonds found within hair that help organize protein chains in order to build hair are called:
a) salt bonds
b) water bonds
c) ionic bonds
d) covalent bonds
a) salt bonds
163
Substances of acidic or alkaline nature dissolve in water and/or contain:
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon
d) nitrogen
b) water
164
Which conditioners have a vegetable oil base, acidic pH and are not recommended for fine or limp hair?
a) instant
b) moisturizing
c) normalizing
d) body building
a) instant
165
Which of the following statements correctly describes plain shampoos?
a) should be neutralized with an alkaline rinse
b) can be used on chemically treated or damaged hair
c) are usually strong and contain a high alkaline or soap base
d) contain a low alkaline content and a low concentration of active agents
c) are usually strong and contain a high alkaline or soap base
166
An ingredient found in conditioners making hair easier to comb and control static is:
a) dimethicones
b) amines/quats
c) fatty alcohols
d) hydrogen peroxide
b) amines/quats
167
The simplest atomic structure is:
a) carbon
b) oxygen
c) sulfur
d) hydrogen
d) hydrogen
168
What occurs during oxidation?
a) ammonia acids form different proteins
b) enzymes break down large molecules
c) a substance gains an electron and oxygen is released
d) a substance loses an electron and oxygen is acquired
d) a substance loses an electron and oxygen is acquired
169
What would be used to determine if a bottle of hydrogen peroxide is still potent if the purchase date was no longer on the label?
a) pH scale
b) lightener
c) patch test
d) hydrometer
d) hydrometer
170
Which of the following color categories uses a low volume peroxide to develop the color molecules?
a) temporary
b) permanent
c) semi-permanent
d) long lasting semi-permanent color
d) long lasting semi-permanent color
171
The main ingredients found in most neutralizers are:
a) quats, disulfides or sodium hydroxide
b) mineral water, wheat germ or dimethicones
c) hydrogen peroxide, sodium perborate or sodium bromate
d) hydrogen sulfide, thioglycolic acid or ammonium hydroxide
c) hydrogen peroxide, sodium perborate or sodium bromate
172
Most ingredients for conditioners are proteins derived from:
a) soft water
b) crème rinses
c) lemon rinses
d) animal or vegetable materials
d) animal or vegetable materials
173
A solution that has more positive hydrogen ions than negative hydroxide ions is:
a) acidic
b) neutral
c) alkaline
d) slightly alkaline
a) acidic
174
The main chemical ingredient found in acid waves is:
a) thioglycolic acid
b) hydrogen peroxide
c) ammonium hydroxide
d) glyceryl monoyhioglycolate
d) glyceryl monoyhioglycolate
175
Using a conditioner would help achieve all of the following results EXCEPT:
a) fortify damaged areas
b) increase new hair growth
c) alter the way the hair behaves
d) protect against further damage
b) increase new hair growth
176
The type of rinse used to control minor dandruff and scalp conditions is a:
a) crème rinse
b) medicated rinse
c) conditioning rinse
d) vinegar and lemon rinse
b) medicated rinse
177
A soft curl perm (curl reformation or curls) loosens the texture of curly to tightly curled hair by:
a) using a low volume developer
b) using a high volume developer
c) using a thioglycolate-based product
d) following a thioglycolic relaxer with a sodium hydroxide relaxer
c) using a thioglycolate-based product
178
Which of the following shampoos would NOT be used for chemically treated or damaged hair?
a) plain shampoo
b) all-purpose shampoo
c) non-stripping shampoo
d) acid-balanced shampoo
A) plain shampoo is usually alkaline and not recommended for chemically treated or damaged hair.
179
The technical name for the hair of the eyebrows is known as:
a) cilia
b) capilli
c) canities
d) supercilia
d) supercilia
180
A condition in which beads or nodes form on the hair shaft is called:
a) canities
b) nodules
c) monilethrix
d) hypertrichosis
c) monilethrix
181
In humid regions hair may need:
a) softening
b) moisturizing
c) surface conditioning
d) protein conditioning
d) protein conditioning
182
Hair color is darker during which stage of growth?
a) anagen
b) catagen
c) telogen
d) testing
a) anagen
183
Of the primary scalp manipulations, which manipulation stimulates the sebaceous glands which produce natural oil (sebum)?
a) effleurage
b) petrissage
c) tapotement
d) friction
b) petrissage
184
Oil glands are attached to the side of the:
a) papilla
b) hair bulb
c) capillaries
d) root sheath or follicle
d) root sheath or follicle
185
What may need to be done to hair in a dry climate to reduce static and soften the hair fiber?
a) chemical treatment
b) surface conditioning
c) protein conditioning
d) frequent shampooing
b) surface conditioning
186
What hair problem may be caused by an inherited defect in the hair’s keratin protein structure?
a) alopecia
b) trichonodosis
c) pilica polonica
d) trichorrhexis nodosa
d) trichorrhexis nodosa
187
Hair that is 90% cortex and 10% cuticle when compared to hair that is 60% cortex and 40% cuticle would be considered to be more:
a) elastic
b) resistant to relaxers
c) resistant to holding a set
d) resistant to holding a perm
a) elastic
188
Stimulation of the onset of the telogen stage or causing the production of abnormal, brittle hairs can be caused by:
a) disease and medication
b) climate changes
c) well-balanced diet
d) products and appliances
a) disease and medication
189
The hair growth stage when all cell division stops is the:
a) active stage
b) telogen stage
c) anagen stage
d) catagen stage
d) catagen stage
190
The acid mantle maintains the acid balance of hair and skin and protects the:
a) cortex
b) cuticle
c) medulla
d) follicle
b) cuticle
191
Excessive application of permanent wave solution can cause temporary hair loss called:
a) alopecia areata
b) traction alopecia
c) telogen effluvium
d) postpartum alopecia
b) traction alopecia
192
The technical name for the hair of the head is known as:
a) cilia
b) capilli
c) canities
d) supercilia
b) capilli
193
People with lighter colored hair have melanin in the:
a) cortex only
b) cuticle only
c) medulla only
d) cuticle and cortex
a) cortex only
194
The three-dimensional representation of a shape is called:
a) line
b) form
c) shape
d) design
b) form
195
Cool colors:
a) attract the eye
b) make you feel warm
c) are distant and quiet
d) make you feel cheerful and exuberant
c) are distant and quiet
196
What is formed at the point where two lines meet?
a) line
b) form
c) angle
d) shape
c) angle
197
The number of textures within a hairstyle should generally be limited to:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
b) 3
198
Which of the following is true regarding design decisions about clients who wear glasses?
a) select large glasses for a larger face
b) select small glasses for a large face
c) a narrow frame can add width to a narrow face
d) a wide frame can make a wide face look more slender
a) select large glasses for a larger face
199
Place the volume either below the jawline or above the temple area with which facial shape?
a) oval
b) round
c) square
d) diamond
b) round
200
Which facial shape is long, narrow and angular?
a) round
b) oblong
c) square
d) diamond
b) oblong
201
The cost of the upkeep for a hairstyle is summarized during which step of the consultation?
a) Greet
b) Ask, Analyze, and Assess
c) Agree
d) Deliver
c) Agree
202
Hair texture refers to the surface appearance or feel of the hair and the hair strand:
a) length
b) density
c) diameter
d) condition
c) diameter
203
Hairstyles for narrow shoulders should include design lines that imply all of the following EXCEPT:
a) horizontal lines
b) flat and wide, oval lines
c) lines that create a V shape
d) lines that create an A shape
Hairstyles for narrow shoulders need design lines that imply horizontal lines or an A shape. Flat and wide, oval lines work as well. All of these lines need to be cut at low angles in order to add fullness and weight.
204
A series of points that are connected with each other in a variety of directions is a(n):
a) line
b) form
c) angle
d) shape
a) line
205
When determining body proportion, which of the following descriptions should be taken into consideration?
a) neck line
b) eye color
c) skin color
d) existing hairstyle
d) existing hairstyle
206
Tall and lanky clients generally need volume and/or:
a) braids
b) flat styles
c) longer hair
d) shorter hair
c) longer hair
207
Which form has an unactivated interior and activated exterior?
a) solid form
b) graduated form
c) increase-layered form
d) uniformly layered form
b) graduated form
208
As a general rule, fine-textured hair can be texturized as close as:
a) 1/2" (1.25 cm) away from the scalp
b) 1" (2.5 cm) away from the scalp
c) 1.5" (3.75 cm) away from the scalp
d) 2" (5.0 cm) away from the scalp
a) 1/2" (1.25 cm) away from the scalp
209
To allow for more control and the shrinkage factor, very curly hair should be texturized while it is:
a) dry
b) wet
c) damp
d) processing
a) dry
210
What product defines texture and gives a light to firm hold on wet or dry hair?
a) gel
b) mousse
c) pomade
d) cutting lotion
b) mousse
211
What type of cutting position is commonly used for cutting solid forms?
a) palm in
b) palm down
c) palm to palm
d) on top of the fingers
b) palm down
212
Taper shears, also known as thinning shears, are used on the ends of the hair to:
a) reduce bulk
b) create precise lines
c) create a clean, blunt edge
d) create a broom-like effect
a) reduce bulk
213
Angles between 60° and 90° represent:
a) no projection
b) low projection
c) high projection
d) medium projection
c) high projection
214
Projecting the hair below 90° would:
a) produce weight
b) remove bulk
c) remove weight
d) shorten lengths
a) produce weight
215
Which tool generally cuts hair most quickly?
a) razor
b) shears
c) clippers
d) taper shears
c) clippers
216
Which of the following angles best represents low projection (elevation)?
a) 0° to 30°
b) 30° to 60°
c) 90° to 180°
d) 180° to 240°
a) 0° to 30°
217
Which type of distribution is created when the hair is distributed vertically, or straight up from the head, and horizontally, or straight out from the head?
a) natural
b) shifted
c) directional
d) perpendicular
c) directional
218
What product adds gloss and sheen to dry hair and creates texture separation?
a) gel
b) mousse
c) pomade
d) cutting lotion
c) pomade
219
Position the palm of your cutting hand so it faces the palm of your other hand when cutting:
a) solid form
b) graduated form
c) increase-layered form
d) uniformly layered form
b) graduated form
220
As a general rule, coarse hair should be texturized at least:
a) 1/2” (1.25 cm) away from the scalp
b) 1” (2.5 cm) away from the scalp
c) 1.5” (3.75 cm) away from the scalp
d) 2” (5.0 cm) away from the scalp
c) 1.5” (3.75 cm) away from the scalp
221
What form would result from creating a 180° angle cut?
a) solid form
b) graduated form
c) increase-layered form
d) uniformly layered form
c) increase-layered form
222
Texturizing hair does all of the following EXCEPT:
a) adds mobility
b) creates support
c) increases volume
d) shorten the length or remove weight
d) shorten the length or remove weight
223
Which cutting position is commonly used when cutting along diagonal lines?
a) palm up
b) palm down
c) palm to palm
d) on top of the fingers
a) palm up
224
A design line that is used as a length guide for cutting graduated, layered and square combination forms is referred to as:
a) stable
b) curved
c) stationary
d) mobile (traveling)
d) mobile (traveling)
225
When the hair is combed out of natural distribution in any direction except perpendicular to its parting is known as:
a) natural distribution
b) shifted distribution
c) directional distribution
d) perpendicular distribution
b) shifted distribution
226
Conversion layering is a common cutting technique used to create:
a) solid forms
b) square forms
c) graduated forms
d) increase-layered forms
d) increase-layered forms
227
An angle of 45° would be considered what type of projection?
a) low
b) high
c) medium
d) very high
c) medium
228
Holding the hair straight out from the curve of the head and cutting at 90° is using what type of projection?
a) low
b) high
c) medium
d) increased
b) high
229
As a general rule, medium-textured hair should be texturized:
a) 1/2" (1.25 cm) away from the scalp
b) 1" (2.5 cm) away from the scalp
c) 1.5" (3.75 cm) away from the scalp
d) 2" (5.0 cm) away from the scalp
b) 1" (2.5 cm) away from the scalp
230
A very short exterior gradually progressing to a longer interior, similar to graduated form but shorter, is known as:
a) buzzing
b) tapering
c) gradation
d) graduating
c) gradation
231
What part of the curl determines the amount of movement of the curl?
a) base
b) stem
c) circle
d) shape
b) stem
232
Which base control is used to create exaggerated direction?
a) underdirected
b) overdirected
c) on base (no stem)
d) half-off base (half-stem)
b) overdirected
233
Which of the following determines the amount of movement a pincurl will have?
a) base
b) stem
c) circle
d) shape
b) stem
234
When performing an air-forming procedure on a solid form, which of the following steps is taken first?
a) detangle hair
b) section the hair
c) remove excess moisture
d) direct airflow on top of brush
c) remove excess moisture
235
Using one or two cushion brushes and brushing all the way to the scalp to integrate the bases when finishing the hair is called:
a) backcombing
b) texturizing
c) backbrushing
d) relaxing the set
d) relaxing the set
236
The base shapes of pincurls most often used are triangle, square, rectangle and crescent which is also known as:
a) arc
b) volume
c) stand-up
d) indentation
a) arc
237
What type of pincurls will achieve a blend or transition from areas of volume to areas of closeness?
a) flat
b) carved
c) indentation
d) semi-stand-up
d) semi-stand-up; Transitional or semi-stand-up pincurls will achieve a blend or transition from areas of volume to areas of closeness.
238
A pincurl with an open circle will produce which of the following effects?
a) fluffy effect
b) smaller wave
c) stronger wave
d) wider wave pattern with uniform curls
d) wider wave pattern with uniform curls
239
Which base control is being used when the tool or curl sits in the lower portion of the base, but not on or below the parting?
a) off base
b) underdirected
c) on base (full base)
d) half-off base (half base)
b) underdirected
240
What determines the width and strength of a wave?
a) size of the base
b) size of the circle
c) length of the stem
d) shape of the base
b) size of the circle
241
Hair that is held at a 45° angle above the center of the base and rolled to sit in the upper portion of the base is described by which of the following terms?
a) underdirected
b) on base (full base)
c) half-off base (half base)
d) overdirected (volume base)
d) overdirected (volume base)
242
Cascade pincurls are pincurls used to create which of the following results?
a) fullness and height
b) a smooth flat space
c) hollow space and flare
d) a wider wave pattern with uniform curls
a) fullness and height
243
What is used to keep the base flat while curving the stem with a comb when forming an indention pincurl?
a) index finger
b) little finger
c) tail of the comb
d) spine of the comb
a) index finger
244
As a general rule, center parts work well with which face shape?
a) oval
b) oblong
c) square
d) long and thin
a) oval
245
The process of combing wet hair into the desired position is referred to as molding or:
a) parting
b) curving
c) shaping
d) distributing
c) shaping
246
Which of the following is generally classified as straight or curved?
a) form
b) curl
c) volume
d) movement
d) movement
247
The base control used when an equal degree of predetermined direction and volume are required is:
a) underdirected
b) on base (no stem)
c) off base (full-stem)
d) half-off base (half-stem)
d) half-off base (half-stem)
248
Which base control is used to create reduced volume?
a) underdirected
b) overdirected
c) on base (no stem)
d) half-off base (half-stem)
a) underdirected
249
Waves, curls, spiral curls, crimped texture or any combination of these patterns is referred to as texture:
a) speed
b) design
c) diameter
d) character
d) character
250
The off-base (full-stem) pincurl produces which of the following results?
a) reduced volume
b) lift or strong curl
c) direction and volume
d) closeness and mobility
d) closeness and mobility
251
Which of the following techniques produces a strong wave pattern?
a) ridge curl
b) skip wave
c) barrel wave
d) transitional wave
b) skip wave
252
When sectioning the hair, which shape is used to move the hair in one direction, generally away from the face?
a) oval
b) circle
c) oblong
d) rectangle
d) rectangle
253
The 3-strand underbraid is also known as what type of braid?
a) visible
b) French
c) inverted
d) invisible
a) visible
254
Synthetic wigs are not as porous as human-hair wigs, therefore they should be cleansed once every:
a) 2-4 weeks
b) 4-6 weeks
c) 4-6 months
d) 6-12 weeks
d) 6-12 weeks
255
In addition to chemically treating hair prior to being used for human hair wigs it is often:
a) pre-shrunk
b) decolorized and bleached
c) coated in modacrylic fiber
d) soaked in a petroleum product
b) decolorized and bleached
256
Which of the following stitches is used to secure a weft at either end or across the length of the weft/track?
a) lock stitch
b) overcast stitch
c) cross-over stitch`
d) double-lock stitch
d) double-lock stitch
257
A long weft of one to three swatches of hair, mounted on a loop base, worn primarily as a braid or ponytail is known as a:
a) fall
b) switch
c) toupee
d) chignon
b) switch
258
Which tool position would be used in perimeter areas where closeness is desired?
a) on base
b) off base
c) half-off base
d) underdirected
d) underdirected
259
Acid waves that require the application of heat are called:
a) exothermic
b) endothermic
c) highly acidic
d) highly alkaline
b) endothermic
260
Which perm pattern features a center part with two rows of perm rods that follow the curves of the head?
a) rectangle wrap
b) oblong wrap
c) bricklay wrap
d) double-halo wrap
d) double-halo wrap
261
During a curl reforming service, what size partings should be used?
a) wider than normal
b) thinner than normal
c) twice as wide as normal
d) three times as wide as normal
b) thinner than normal
262
Alkaline perms fall between the pH range of:
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.9 to 7.2
c) 8.0 to 9.5
d) 10.5 to 11.5
c) 8.0 to 9.5
263
If the base is longer than the perm rod, the result will be:
a) no curl
b) frizzing
c) breakage
d) uneven curl
d) uneven curl
264
Today's alkaline waves are formulated with:
a) hydrogen peroxide
b) ammonium thioglycolate
c) glycerol monothioglycolate
d) sodium hydroxide and neutralizing shampoo
b) ammonium thioglycolate
265
What is the pH range for acid waves?
a) 4.9 to 5.2
b) 5.9 to 6.2
c) 6.9 to 7.2
d) 7.9 to 8.2
c) 6.9 to 7.2
266
Rearrangers are used during a curl reformation process to reduce the natural curl. What is the main ingredient found in rearrangers?
a) hydrogen peroxide
b) sodium hydroxide
c) ammonium thioglycolate
d) glycerol monothioglycola
c) ammonium thioglycolate
267
No-lye relaxers contain a derivative of:
a) sodium hydroxide
b) hydrogen peroxide
c) glycerol monothioglycolate
d) ammonium thioglycolate
b) hydrogen peroxide
268
If a client experiences burning during a sodium hydroxide relaxer service:
a) apply more relaxer
b) continue smoothing the hair
c) rinse the hair with warm water
d) rinse the hair with cool water
c) rinse the hair with warm water
269
When performing a metallic test, immerse at least 20 strands of hair in the prepared mixture for:
a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
d) 30 minutes
270
The method of wrapping hair from the scalp to the ends is known as:
a) spiral
b) contour
c) bricklay
d) croquignole
a) spiral
271
Another term for a soft curl procedure is:
a) acid perm
b) thio-free perm
c) alkaline wave perm
d) double-process perm
d) double-process perm
272
Ammonium thioglycolate relaxers are also referred to as:
a) thio relaxers
b) no-lye relaxers
c) sensitive relaxers
d) sodium hydroxide relaxers
a) thio relaxers
273
Another name for the comb test, which helps determine if additional smoothing is required, is the:
a) relaxation test
b) smoothing test
c) stages of reduction test
d) degree of straightness test
a) relaxation test
274
What is considered to be the approximate pH of alkaline waves?
a) 3.0 to 4.5
b) 5.0 to 6.5
c) 6.9 to 7.2
d) 8.0 to 9.5
d) 8.0 to 9.5
275
All of the following are terms that describe changing tightly curled hair to curly or wavy hair EXCEPT:
a) curl reforming
b) relaxer retouch
c) reformation curls
d) double-process perm
b) relaxer retouch
276
For perming, the pH of a neutralizer will range from:
a) 2.5 to 7
b) 6.9 to 7
c) 7 to 7.5
d) 7.5 to 8.5
a) 2.5 to 7
277
Sodium hydroxide relaxers are also known as:
a) lye relaxers
b) thio relaxers
c) no-lye relaxers
d) base chemical relaxers
a) lye relaxers
278
Which of the following chemicals is NOT one of the main ingredients found in most neutralizers?
a) potassium
b) sodium bromate
c) sodium perborate
d) hydrogen peroxide
a) potassium
279
Hair should be wrapped without tension when using:
a) alkaline waves
b) exothermic acid waves
c) endothermic acid waves
d) acid waves without heat
a) alkaline waves
280
What do low- or no- thio perms use as a reducing agent?
a) peroxide
b) thioglycolic acid
c) cystemine hydrochloride
d) glycerol monothioglycolate
c) cystemine hydrochloride
281
When performing a virgin relaxer, it is necessary to apply the product to the base last since the body heat near the scalp will cause the hair to:
a) melt
b) harden
c) process more quickly
d) diffuse it throughout the hair
c) process more quickly
282
Which of the following wrapping patterns eliminates texture in the top and crown and focus on the perimeter and ends of the hair?
a) contour
b) perimeter
c) piggyback
d) spiral bricklay
b) perimeter
283
Ammonium thioglycolate relaxers have a pH range of:
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.9 to 7.2
c) 8.5 to 9.5
d) 11.5 to 14
c) 8.5 to 9.5
284
The three methods for applying the relaxer are the brush, comb or:
a) iron
b) bottle
c) fingers
d) spray bottle
c) fingers
285
What ingredient in color products could cause uneven curls, discoloration and hair breakage?
a) red dye
b) metallic salt
c) oxidative color
d) non-oxidative color
b) metallic salt
286
When performing a curl reformation service, the rod diameter chosen is generally at least how many times larger than the diameter of the natural curl pattern?
a) two
b) four
c) six
d) ten
a) two
287
What is the pH level of hydrogen peroxide, a commonly used developer in hair coloring products?
a) between 1.2 and 2.2
b) between 2.5 and 4.5
c) between 5.5 and 6.5
d) between 7.2 and 8.2
b) between 2.5 and 4.5
288
What type of lightener may be used when performing a cap highlighting technique?
a) oil
b) liquid
c) cream
d) powder
d) powder
289
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of semi-permanent colors?
a) only deposits color
b) retouches are not required
c) leaves a line of demarcation
d) does not use chemicals to alter the hair
c) leaves a line of demarcation
290
All of the following are possible solutions for covering gray hair EXCEPT:
a) choosing a natural color series
b) using a higher volume of developer
c) choosing a color with more pigment
d) including all primary colors in formula
b) using a higher volume of developer
291
If oxygen were set free, hydrogen peroxide would become:
a) water
b) calcium
c) hydrogen
d) oxygen sulfide
a) water
292
A small population of eumelanin in the cortex of the hair will produce:
a) red hair
b) brown hair
c) dark black hair
d) light blond hair
d) light blond hair
293
Hair that has been decolorized to the desired degree is referred to as the:
a) overtone
b) accelerator
c) natural pigment
d) contributing pigment
d) contributing pigment
294
Weekly rinses are applied and:
a) not rinsed out
b) rinsed out within 10 minutes
c) a low-volume peroxide is added
d) an oxidizing agent is used to make the rinse adhere to the hair
a) not rinsed out
295
What size partings are used for a double-process blond technique?
a) ⅛" (.3 cm)
b) ¼" (.6 cm)
c) ½" (1.25 cm)
d) 1" (2.54 cm)
a) ⅛" (.3 cm)
296
Semi-permanent colors are alkaline and generally last through several shampoos depending on the:
a) texture of the hair
b) porosity of the hair
c) decolorization of the hair
d) intensity of the color choice
b) porosity of the hair
297
Which hair texture may tend to process slightly lighter than the intended level?
a) fine
b) medium
c) coarse
d) average
c) coarse; Coarse hair texture may be resistant to lightening or it may appear to process slightly lighter than the intended level.
298
Temporary colors are usually applied to which of the following hair conditions?
a) dry hair
b) soaking wet hair
c) unshampooed hair
d) clean, towel-blotted hair
d) clean, towel-blotted hair
299
Which one of the following products could be mixed into the color formula to either intensify a color or neutralize an unwanted color?
a) filler
b) concentrate
c) hydrogen peroxide
d) semi-permanent color
b) concentrate
300
Semi-permanent color retouches are applied:
a) base to ends
b) ends to base
c) to the new growth only
d) only to the middle of the strand
a) base to ends
301
The majority of the world's population falls into which category?
a) red
b) dark
c) light
d) medium
b) dark
302
When mixing an oxidative color for hair that is 25%-30% gray, apply a color:
a) one level darker than the desired shade
b) one level lighter than the desired shade
c) two levels lighter than the desired shade
d) three levels lighter than the desired shade
b) one level lighter than the desired shade
303
Metallic dyes are known as progressive dyes because the:
a) hair lightens with each application
b) hair darkens with each application
c) cost increases with each application
d) processing time decreases with each application
b) hair darkens with each application
304
In order to become active, hydrogen peroxide needs to be mixed with ammonia or:
a) lighteners
b) buffering agents
c) nonoxidative colors
d) alkaline compounds
d) alkaline compounds
305
Uneven growth of a nail may cause:
a) blue nails
b) koilonychia
c) leuconychia
d) corrugations
d) corrugations
306
During the massage portion of a pedicure service use effleurage strokes and apply light pressure on either side of the:
a) thigh
b) ankle
c) kneecap
d) shinbone
d) shinbone
307
What is generally the wattage for a bulb found in a lamp used for close detail work?
a) 40 watt
b) 60 watt
c) 75 watt
d) 100 watt
a) 40 watt
308
An increased curvature of the nail indicates:
a) blue nails
b) koilonychia
c) leuconychia
d) onychogryposis
d) onychogryposis
309
The visible nail area from the nail root to the free edge is known as the:
a) nail bed
b) nail body
c) nail wall
d) nail matrix
b) nail body
310
Swelling of the nail that is often associated with onychauxis is referred to as:
a) agnails
b) pterygium
c) onychophyma
d) leuconychia
c) onychophyma
311
Which of the following statements does NOT describe a French manicure?
a) pink polish applied to the nail
b) peach polish applied to the nail
c) bright red polish applied to the nails
d) white polish applied to the free edge
c) bright red polish applied to the nails
312
Beau's lines are characterized by indentations that run:
a) across the nail
b) within the nail root
c) underneath the nail bed
d) along the free edge of the nail
a) across the nail
313
When filing the nails, it is suggested to begin with which finger?
a) thumb
b) ring finger
c) pointer finger
d) little finger
d) little finger
314
The circular motion used to massage the fingers is called what type of movement?
a) nail
b) bone
c) joint
d) knuckle
c) joint
315
Discoloration of the nail may indicate serious problems in which of the following parts of the nail?
a) lunula
b) cuticle
c) mantle
d) nail bed
d) nail bed
316
Which of the following conditions refers to an excess of living skin attached to the nail plate that disrupts normal nail growth?
a) pterygium
b) leuconychia
c) bruised nails
d) onychophagy
a) pterygium
317
All of the following descriptions identify possible causes of paronychia EXCEPT:
a) nutritional deficiency
b) infected hangnail
c) bacterial infection
d) prolonged exposure of hands to water
a) nutritional deficiency
318
What is another name for onychauxis?
a) agnails
b) hangnails
c) pterygium
d) hypertrophy
d) hypertrophy
319
Onychia is an inflammation of the:
a) cuticle
b) nail wall
c) nail matrix
d) hyponychium
c) nail matrix
320
Indented, vertical lines down the nail plate that may be caused by illness or injury are called:
a) roots
b) furrows
c) grooves
d) corrugations
b) furrows
321
Generally, which nail shape is the strongest?
a) oval
b) square
c) pointed
d) rounded
b) square
322
When removing polish from the nails, work from:
a) tip to base
b) base to tip
c) side to side
d) center to outside
b) base to tip
323
Which of the following nail diseases is also known as paronychia?
a) felon
b) onychia
c) tinea pedis
d) tinea manus
a) felon
324
Which of the following nail diseases is also known as paronychia?
a) felon
b) onychia
c) tinea pedis
d) tinea manus
a) felon
325
What would be the correct response if a client arrives for a manicure and exhibits signs of onychophagy?
a) reprimand the client
b) refuse to perform manicure
c) refer the client to a physician
d) offer to perform a weekly nail service, including polish
d) offer to perform a weekly nail service, including polish
326
What is the skin that touches, overlaps and surrounds the nail?
a) lunula
b) cuticle
c) nail wall
d) perionychium
d) perionychium
327
Pterygium of the nail can occur at either the hyponychium or at the:
a) nail wall
b) nail root
c) eponychium
d) perionychium
c) eponychium
328
The disorder in which the nail grows into the edge of the nail grooves causing ingrown toenails is called:
a) onychauxis
b) leuconychia
c) onychogryposis
d) onychocryptosis
d) onychocryptosis
329
In which direction should you shape a nail to prevent splitting?
a) from top to bottom
b) from the bottom to the top
c) from the outer edge toward the center
d) from the center toward the outer edge
c) from the outer edge toward the center
330
The problem reported most often by clients who wear sculptured nails is the formation of what under the artificial nail?
a) splits
b) bacteria
c) bruises
d) hangnails
b) bacteria
331
The folds of skin on either side of the nail groove are called the?
a) nail bed
b) nail wall
c) nail plate
d) perionychium
b) nail wall
332
Masks that contain botanicals and ingredients that are designed to calm and sooth sensitive skin are known as:
a) gel
b) cream
c) modeling
d) clay/mud
a) gel
333
Healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and:
a) color
b) pallor
c) dryness
d) dullness
a) color
334
Which condition is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?
a) milia
b) asteatosis
c) seborrhea
d) bromidrosis
c) seborrhea
335
An inflammatory disorder of the skin characterized by dry or moist lesions that requires medical attention is known as:
a) eczema
b) seborrhea
c) impetigo
d) miliaria rubra
a) eczema
336
A hue with black added is known as a:
a) tint
b) tone
c) shade
d) value
c) shade
337
The effects of the skin’s aging process can be seen in the:
a) dermis
b) cuticle
c) epidermis
d) scarf skin
a) dermis
338
What type of blush is suitable for all skin types?
a) dry
b) liquid
c) cream
d) powder
b) liquid
339
Accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:
a) acne
b) milia
c) rosacea
d) comedones
b) milia
340
Which makeup product is used to define and emphasize the shape and size of the eyes?
a) eyeliner
b) mascara
c) eye shadow
d) eyebrow pencil
a) eyeliner
341
Which of the following causes a red, streaky, or patchy rash where the substance has touched the skin?
a) seasonal disease
b) cosmetic disorder
c) allergic contact dermatitis
d) irritant contact dermatitis
c) allergic contact dermatitis
342
The blend method of hair removal is a combination of thermolysis technology and:
a) Galvanic
b) long-wave
c) short-wave
d) high frequency
a) Galvanic
343
What hair removal method is available for clients who cannot tolerate hot wax treatments?
a) shaving only
b) electrolysis only
c) cold wax treatment
d) bleaching or lightening only
c) cold wax treatment
344
The multiple-needle process is sometimes called:
a) thermolysis
b) the blend method
c) Galvanic electrolysis
d) a chemical depilatory
c) Galvanic electrolysis
345
Why would the cosmetologist apply a lighter shade of foundation during a corrective makeup service?
a) to widen an area
b) to conceal blemishes
c) to minimize a facial area
d) to highlight a facial feature
d) to highlight a facial feature
346
A hue with white added is a:
a) tint
b) tone
c) square
d) value
a) tint
347
A pimple is an example of a(n):
a) tertiary skin lesion
b) secondary skin lesion
c) objective symptom
d) subjective symptom
c) objective symptom
348
Semi-permanent individual lashes do not adhere to lower lashes for as long as top ones because of:
a) perspiration
b) their shorter length
c) moisture from tears
d) oils in the area
d) oils in the area
349
A papule is an example of a:
a) tertiary lesion
b) primary skin lesion
c) a subjective symptom
d) secondary skin lesion
b) primary skin lesion
350
What usually looks like a burn and often shows as dry, red and rough skin?
a) pathology
b) etilogy
c) allergic contact dermatitis
d) irritant contact dermatitis
d) irritant contact dermatitis
351
Which hair removal treatment uses wavelengths of light to penetrate and diminish or destroy the hair bulb?
a) thermolysis
b) blend method
c) laser hair removal
d) photo-epilation
c) laser hair removal
352
The skin care equipment that provides a soothing heat and softens the skin to allow penetration of products is known as:
a) vacuum
b) Wood's Lamp
c) infrared lamp
d) facial steamer
c) infrared lamp
353
Melanocytes are found in the:
a) stratum corneum
b) stratum granulosum
c) subcutaneous layer
d) stratum germinativum
d) stratum germinativum
354
An abnormal change in the structure of an organ or tissue is called a(n):
a) wheal
b) fissure
c) lesion
d) infection
c) lesion
355
In seborrhea, the appearance of the skin is:
a) oily
b) dry and dull
c) smooth and pink
d) red and blotchy
a) oily
356
Which type of mask is recommended for clients with normal to dry skin?
a) gel
b) mud
c) clay
d) cream
d) cream
357
Which hair removal treatment uses an intense, pulsed light beam that creates a burst of energy to destroy hair bulbs?
a) thermolysis
b) blend method
c) laser hair removal
d) photo-epilation
d) photo-epilation
358
What is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin with reduced sebum production?
a) rosacea
b) steatoma
c) asteatosis
d) seborrhea
c) asteatosis
359
The skin care equipment that uses different colors of light to indicate various conditions of the skin is known as the:
a) Wood's Lamp
b) infrared lamp
c) magnifying lamp
d) high frequency current
a) Wood's Lamp
360
What hair removal method removes the hair by decomposing the papilla?
a) blend
b) waxing
c) shaving
d) Galvanic
d) Galvanic
361
The excretion of sweat from the skin is controlled by the:
a) nervous system
b) muscular system
c) endocrine system
d) circulatory system
a) nervous system
362
Semi-permanent individual eyelashes last for a period of approximately:
a) 7 to 14 days
b) 6 to 8 weeks
c) 9 to 12 weeks
d) 3 to 6 months
b) 6 to 8 weeks
363
The stratum germinativum and what other layer of the skin contain melanin?
a) dermis
b) subcutaneous
c) stratum corneum
d) stratum spinosum
d) stratum spinosum
364
What do you mix with color in a filler before applying to hair
distilled water
365
red circular patches on the skin containing small blisters is
tinea
366
What are the different reactions to hair if it contains metallic salts in a 1:20 test
lead--hair strands lighten quickly; silver--no reaction after 30 mins; copper--hair boils
