Neonatology Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

DDH affects 1-3% newborns, what are risk factors and which hip is most affected?

A

Anything causing crowding in uterus eg. large birth weight, oligohydramnios
-female, first born babies,
-breech position, sibling(s) affected
Left hip most affected.

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2
Q

When should babies have their hips examined? (NB: if high risk US is done at 2-4weeks)

A

in first days of life and at 6weeks

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3
Q

If neonatal exam suggests hip instability what should you and in what timeframe? If hips still unstable at x weeks=requires rx.

A
  • arrange an US by 2-4weeks

- x = 6weeks

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4
Q

What is the treatment for DDH that hasn’t resolved by 6 weeks?

A

-long-term splinting in flexion abduction in a Pavlik harness

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5
Q

If DDH is detected from 6-18months how is it treated? And if after 18months?

A

6-18mnths: exam under anaesthesia, arthrography and closed reduction
18mnths+: open reduction with corrective osteotomies to maintain joint stability

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6
Q

What Test and Manoeuvre are used to examine the neonates hip?

A
  • The Ortolani Test: clunk as femoral head relocated

- The Barlow Manoeuvre: attempt to dislocate an unstable hip with pressure on femoral head w thumb

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7
Q

What is the main risk with a Pavlik harness to treat DDH? How can you monitor this? What age are these contraindicated in?

A
  • AVN of fem head from excess abduction
  • US and making sure fit is good
  • CI >4.5 months (or if hips are irreducible)
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8
Q

Talipes equinovarus is club foot, most idiopathic but 20% associated with genetic conditions. What is the 3 abnormalities of foot?

A
  • inversion
  • adduction of forefoot relative to hindfoot
  • equinus=plantarflexion deformity
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9
Q

What is the preferred treatment of talipes equinovarus, starting ASAP but changing gradually.

A

-Ponseti method: foot manipulated in a long leg plaster cast

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10
Q

If ponseti method fails to correct talipes, what surgery is carried out?

A

-soft tissue release

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11
Q

Neonatal jaundice is divided into: early, jaundice and prolonged jaundice, describe each in terms of mostly pathological or physiological and time frames

A

Early - <24hrs, most pathological (!) action needed
Jaundice - 24hr-14days mostly physiological
Prolonged - 14days+ (>21 if preterm) can be phys or pathological

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12
Q

Name 2 ways in which bilirubin can me measured in suspected neonatal jaundice:

A
  • transcutaneous bilirubinometres

- serum bilirubin measurements

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13
Q

Name 3 pathological causes of early neonatal jaundice (!)

A
  • sepsis
  • rhesus incompatibility
  • ABO incompatibility
  • red cell anomalies: spherocytosis, eliptocytosis, G6PD def.
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14
Q

In ABO incompatibility in neonate, what IgG antibody is always present?

A

Maternal anti-A or anti-B haemolysin

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15
Q

Based on differentials, what tests are important when investigating early neonatal jaundice?

A
  • septic screen: FBC, CRP, blood culture
  • packed cell vol, blood film
  • group and save
  • DAT, maternal blood group, G6PD level
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16
Q

For what reasons does neonatal jaundice often occur between 24hrs-2weeks?

A
  • shorter RBC lifespan so more bilirubin produced
  • less bilirubin conjugated (hepatic immaturity)
  • absence of gut flora impedes bile pigment elimination
  • breastfeeding w difficulties -> dehydration and less elimination of bilirubin (more enterohepatic circulated)
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17
Q

In physiological neonatal jaundice the bilirubin is __ and rises in first few days then resolves over 2weeks, levels should be monitored to prevent___

A
  • unconjugated

- kernicterus

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18
Q

What pathological causes of neonatal jaundice (24hr-2wks ) exist (name 2+)

A
  • polycythaemia
  • cephalohaematoma resorption
  • hypothyroidism
  • haemoglobinopathies
  • viral hepatitis
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19
Q

What is kernicterus? Levels of unconjugated bilirubin >350umol high risk(!)

A

Permanent neurological sequelae of severe hyperbilirubinaemia and acute bilirubin encephalopathy (deposited in basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei)
e.g. cerebral palsy, deafness, low IQ

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20
Q

How is kernicterus prevented?

A
  • phototherapy
  • exchange transfusion
  • IV Ig (if cause is isoimmune haemolytic disease)
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21
Q

What are signs of ABE (acute bilirubin encephalopathy) in neonates.

A
  • lethargy, poor feeding
  • hypotonia, shrill cry -> irritability, hypertonicity
  • then apnoea, seizures, coma, death
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22
Q

Phototherapy works by using light energy to convert __ to __ products (lumirubin etc) that can be excreted without __.

A
  • bilirubin
  • soluble
  • conjugation
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23
Q

Side effects of phototherapy for jaundice:

A
  • high/low temperature
  • eye damage (give protection)
  • diarrhoea, fluid loss
  • separation from mother
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24
Q

Exchange transfusion to treat jaundice uses __ blood, xml/kg given via __ vein and removed via the __ artery. Aim is to removed bilirubin.

A
  • warmed (37degrees)

- umbilical vein, umbilical artery

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25
Prolonged jaundice is often physiological/breastmilk jaundice, what red flags alert a more serious pathology?
- pale stool - hepatosplenomegaly, ascites - bruising/bleeding - neurological signs
26
Crigler-Najjar and Gilbert S. are unconjugated bilirubin causes of prolonged jaundice, name some conjugated causes: clues: gland related, chole-related, aemia/blood related and deficiency
- hypothyroidism, CF - biliary atresia - choledochal abnormalities - galactosaemia - a1 anti-trypsin def - neonatal haemochromatosis
27
Biliary atresia = biliary tree occlusion due to progressive cholangiopathy, it is rare but serious and earlier identified better prognosis, what signs?
- jaundice, dark urine, pale stools - spleen palpable by ~4wks - liver may become hard and enlarged
28
RDS (Resp. distress S.) is when a deficiency of __ leads to lower __ causing widespread __ __ and inadequate __
- surfactant - surface tension - alveolar collapse - gas exchange
29
Surfactant is a mixture of ___ and proteins excreted by the __ of the alveolar epithelium
- phospholipids | - type II pneumocytes
30
The more preterm the infant the higher chance of RDS, if preterm is anticipated what can be done? What does this trigger? timeframe -24-34wks
- give antenatal glucocorticoids to mother | - stimulates fetal surfactant production
31
At delivery/within 4hrs, what signs will be present in a baby with RDS? and when severe? NB: atelectasis then re-inflation w each breath exhausts the baby..
- tachypnea (>60breaths/min) - laboured breathing, chest wall recession, subcostal indrawing and nasal flaring - expiratory grunting (trys to create a positive airway pressure) - (severe ->cyanosis, hypoxia, low co, low BP, acidosis & renal failure)
32
How is RDS treated?
- delay clamping cord to promote placenta-fetal circulation - oxygen via 02-air blender start at 30% and increase - surfactant therapy - CPAP, NIPPV or mechanical ventilation
33
Name 3 ddx of increased work of breathing within hours of birth other than RDS.
- sepsis, meconium aspiration, congenital pneumonia - tracheo-oesophageal fistula - TTN
34
Describe an RDS typical CXR appearance:
-X-ray: ground glass diffuse granular lungs +/- air bronchograms (large airways outlined), heart border indistinct
35
Based on preterm gestation weeks and FiO2 %, you can intubate and give RDS prophylactic .. via..
``` surfactant ET (endotrachal) tube ```
36
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPS) complicates ventilation in some __ baby's especially with a birth weight
- RDS, <1kg - ante and postnatal steroids - surfactant
37
Pulmonary hypoplasia is rare, suspect in infants with persisting __ +/- feeding difficulties. Some degree occurs with an early elective delivery for early spontaneous ROMs
-neonatal tachypnoea
38
Define : preterm, low birthweight (LBW), very LBW, extremely LBW and small for gest. age (SGA).`12
Preterm: neonate <37weeks gestational age (GA) LBW: <2500g regardless of GA VLBW: <1500g regardless of GA ELBW: <1000g "" SGA: birthweight below the 10th percentile for GA
39
IUGR = a reduction of expected fetal growth in utero, most commonly is __ when weight centile is __ compared to length and head circumference -ie. __. (usually due to an insult __ in pregnancy e.g. __)
- asymmetrical - reduced - head sparing - later in pregnancy e.g. pre-eclampsia
40
Less common symmetrical IUGR suggest foetus was affected from __ pregnancy, seen in babies with __ or constitutionally small and are more likely to remain __
- early - chromosomal abnormalities - small permanently
41
Poverty accounts largely for variance in birthweights, what other factors can cause IUGR?
- malformation, twins, congenital infection | - placental insufficiency (maternal HD, high BP, smoking, diabetes, sickle cell..)
42
Other than shorter adult stature and possibly health, what are major complications of IUGR? -risks from infection/malformation if present..
- hypogylcaemia (poor fat/glycogen stores) - hypothermia (larger SA) - polycythaemia 2dry to chronic hypoxia - NEC - meconium aspiration
43
~40% prematurity causes are unknown, what are some possible causes?
- smoking, malnutrition, poverty - PMH of prematurity, GU infectio/chorioamnionitis - PT, DM, polyhydramnios, multiple pregnancy - uterine malformation - placenta disorders, premature ROM
44
What are pre-term babies likely to require support with after birth?
- thermoregulation | - nutrition
45
In RDS air from overdistended alveoli can track into the interstitium -> pulmonary interstitial __ . In 10% ventilated infants, air leaks into pleural cavity causing a _
- emphysema | - pneumothorax
46
How can you thermoregulate a pre-term baby?
- put in plastic bag at birth - stabilise under a radiant warmer +/- heated matress - humidified incubator
47
What can stimulate respiration for a preterm with periods of bradycardia/apnnoea?
Caffeine
48
Patent ductus arteriosus with shunting of blood from left to right is common in preterm infants with__ and can cause difficulty __
RDS | -difficulty weaning the infant from artificial ventilation
49
If symptomatic how can a patent DA be closed medically in a pre-term?
-a prostaglandin sythetase inhibitor, indomethacin or ibroprofen
50
Why are preterm babys at risk of iron deficiency? (same reason they are at increased risk of infection) and 2 other reasons..
- iron is mostly transferred in the last trimester and from loss of blood from sampling and inadequate EPO response - iron supplements are started at several weeks
51
NEC (Necrotising Enterocolitis) is higher in preterms due to the bowel being vulnerable to _, what is beneficial in preventing this disease?
- ischaemic injury and bacterial invasion | - breast milk = (can add pre+probiotics too)
52
what are signs of NEC in the infant? What can NEC progress to?
- feed intolerance, vomiting, bile may be stained - distended abdomen, stool +/- blood - pain - can --> bowel perforation
53
NEC treatment? NB: mechanical ventilation and circulatory support may be needed
- stop oral feeding - give broad-spec Abx vs aerobic and anerobes - parenteral nutrition
54
20% VLBW infants have haemorrhages in the brain, these can be detected with _. RFs include:
US scans of craium | -asphyxia, severe RDS, pneumothorax
55
Retinopathy of prematurity affects developing blood vessels at the junction of the __& __ __. There is vascular __ which can progress to retinal __ , fibrosis and __.
vascularised and non-vascularised retina proliferation retinal detatchment blindness
56
Retinopathy of prematurity affects 35% VLBW infants so infants at risk (
<1500g or <32 weeks GA
57
Laser therapy reduces visual impairment in retinopathy of prematurity, what injections may prove beneficial?
-intravitreal anti-VEGF
58
At birth name 3 things the growth-restricted infant is at risk of: - hypo - hypo - hypo - p____
- hypothermia (large SA:V ratio esp w large head) - hypoglycaemia (from poor fat and glycogen stores) - hypocalcaemia - polycythaemia Ht > 0.65
59
name 3 problems associated w being large for gestational age infants (>90th centile) (most = normal but may be from mother T1/gest.DM or congenital disease) - birth ___ e.g. from ___ ___, or birth ____ - hypo___ due to _____ - p____
- birth trauma e.g. shoulder dystocia, birth asphyxia - hypoglycaemia due to hyperinsulinemia - polycythaemia
60
Give 5 scenarios in which hypoglycaemia is more likely in first 24hrs of life: ..babies:
- with IUGR - who are pre-term - who are born to mothers with DM - who are large-for-dates - hypothermic, polycythaemic, or ill for any reason
61
Preterm/IUGR babies may have hypoglycaemia due to: ___? | vs. infants of a DM mother --> hypoglycaemia due to: ___?
- IUGR: poor glycogen stores | - DM: sufficient stores but hyperplasia of the islet cells -> high insulin levels
62
Name 3 sx of hypoglycaemia in the newborn:
- jitteriness - irritability - apnoea - lethargy - drowsiness - seizures
63
- how is hypoglycaemia usually prevented? | - if BMs are low on 2 occasions despite this, what/how do we give?
- prevent by early and frequent milk feeding | - if still low, give IV dextrose infusion (aim maintain BM > 2.6mmol/l)
64
NB: to correct hypoglycaemia in a new born dextrose is usually given IV infusion, if v high conc e.g. 20% is needed, how should it be given due to what risk?
-high concs give via central venous catheter (avoids extravasation into tissues can -> tissue necrosis)
65
If in a hypoglycaemic neonate there has been a significant difficulty or delay in starting IV dextrose what can be given instead?
-Glucagon
66
Explain what birth asphyxia is? Risk?
- lack of oxygen in labour/delivery | - risk of brain injury and death
67
What gasping is seen in birth asphyxia and what do we call it? and how does HR change?
- fetus O2 deprived in utero -> gasps, primary apnoea (HR maintained) - if lack of O2 continues, --> irregular gasping then 2nd period of apnoea (secondary) with this HR and BP falls
68
In secondary apnoea from birth asphyxia (-if lack of O2 continues, --> irregular gasping then 2nd period of apnoea), what is the only way infant can recover upon delivery?
-needs help with lung expansion upon delivery: positive pressure ventilation or tracheal tube to lungs directly
69
Name 2 causes of a continuous asphyxia insult (rare) | and 1 v common cause of intermittent birth asphyxia:
- continuous: after placental abruption, or cord prolapse | - intermittent: during labour from prolonged and frequent contractions
70
HIE (Hypoxic-Ischaemic Encephalopathy) clinical manifests ~48hrs post asphyxia, state a ft of: - mild - moderate - severe
mild: irritable infant, +/- hyperventilation, hypertonia, impaired feeding, stary eyes mod: abnormal movements, hypotonic, can't feed, +/- seizures severe: no normal spontaneous movement/response to pain, fluctuating limb tone, multi-organ failure, seizures
71
Name 4 ways you can manage infants with HIE (different aspects of their care)
-respiratory support -rx clinical seizures w anti-convulsant -fluid restrict due to transient renal impairment -rx hypotension by volume and inotrope support -monitor and rx hypoglycaemia, electrolyte imbalance esp low Ca2+ -
72
What is the standard therapy for mod-severe HIE? | Neuroprotection achieved how?
- inducing mild therapeutic hypothermia (cool to 33-34 rectal temperature for 72hrs by wrapping in a cooling blanket) - reduces brain damage if started within 6hrs of birth in an infant >36weeks' gestation
73
Trisomy 18: small babies, short sternum (resp problems), small chin and rockerbottom feet, heart and renal abnormalities What syndrome and prognosis?
- Edward's Syndrome | - 90% die within first year
74
Polydactyly, severe developmental malformations, heart, renal, midlife defects, rarely survive >1 month, what is this rarer trisomy syndrome?
-trisomy 13: Patau Syndrome
75
What would the karyotype be for a female child with Turner's Syndrome?
45X
76
Williams syndrome is a 7q11.23 deletion that often presents with congenital heart defects (AS, PS) with bulbous tipped nose, wide mouth and widely spaced teeth, developmental delay... - what is the personality? - 15% have a what electrolyte abnormality
- overfriendly personality | - hypercalcaemia