Neonatology

Question 1

Small animal neonatal rectal temperatures are typically lower or higher than those of adult animals?

Answer 1

(Lower)

Question 2

What does the apgar score indicate?

Answer 2

(Viability of the neonate)

Question 3

Do you want a higher or lower apgar score for your neonates?

Answer 3

(Higher, means better viability, vitality and prognosis)

Question 4

What are the three neonatal reflexes that should be tested and strong in small animal neonates?

Answer 4

(Nursing, rooting, and righting)

Question 5

A respiratory rate greater than what value in a small animal neonate is indicative of something pathologic?

Answer 5

(40 breaths per minute)

Question 6

(T/F) Puppies and kittens should gain weight everyday until somewhere around 4-5 months of age.

Answer 6

(T)

Question 7

What is the major source of maternal antibodies in puppies and kittens?

Answer 7

(Colostrum)

Question 8

Does breeding two cats of the same blood type prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis in kittens?

Answer 8

(Yes)

Question 9

When should you introduce gruel to small animal neonates?

Answer 9

(3-4 weeks of age)

Question 10

Weaning should be completed in puppies and kittens by what time period?

Answer 10

(6-8 weeks)

Question 11

What body system should be matured by 8 weeks in puppies and kittens?

Answer 11

(Cardiovascular system)

Question 12

At what age can puppies and kittens thermoregulate?

Answer 12

(4 weeks or greater)

Question 13

What must the rectal temperature be before you should feed a puppy/kitten?

Answer 13

(> 96 degrees F)

Question 14

What is the maximum comfortable stomach capacity for a small animal neonate?

Answer 14

(4ml/100g)

Question 15

What are the small animal neonates’ worst enemies (the three Hs)?

Answer 15

(Hypothermia, hypoglycemia, and hypovolemia)

Question 16

When do small animal neonates gain the ability to thermoregulate? Answer is a range of weeks.

Answer 16

(4-6 weeks of age)

Question 17

Why can bloat and/or aspiration pneumonia result from hypothermia in a small animal neonate?

Answer 17

(Hypothermia induces paralytic ileus of the GI tract which leads to aspiration pneumonia and/or bloat)

Question 18

In a hypothermic small animal neonate, what temperature do they need to be before you can give them warm milk to aid in warming them up?

Answer 18

(>/= 96 degrees F)

Question 19

What is the shock bolus dose for a small animal neonate?

Answer 19

(30-40 ml/kg)

Question 20

When does deworming start in canine neonates?

Answer 20

(2 weeks of age, continues every 2 weeks until year-round control is started)

Question 21

(T/F) The fetal neurologic system is fully developed in precocial species.

Answer 21

(T)

Question 22

Physical (warmth, buoyancy) and chemical (inhibitory neurosteroids) factors are used to keep the fetus in what state while in-utero?

Answer 22

(Sleeping state)

Question 23

What event during parturition initiates hypoxia and hypercarbia in the neonate which stimulates respiration?

Answer 23

(Rupture of the umbilical cord)

Question 24

As pulmonary blood flow increases in a neonate, right-sided heart pressure decreases or increases (choose one) while the left-sided heart pressure decreases or increases (choose one).

Answer 24

(Right sided heart pressure decreases while left sided heart pressure increases)

Question 25

What fetal structures close as a result of the change in pressure within the neonatal heart? Two answers.

Answer 25

(Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus)

Question 26

Why do foals have a low tolerance for premature births?

Answer 26

(Bc their HPA axis does not start to active until 5 days prior to birth and the HPA axis is very important for postnatal life)

Question 27

(T/F) It is normal for a foal to be hypoglycemic in the first few hours of life.

Answer 27

(T)

Question 28

What is the purpose of the large animal neonatal GI tract being permeable to macromolecules in the first 12 to 24 hours post birth?

Answer 28

(Most importantly, to readily absorb the immunoglobulins from the mother’s colostrum)

Question 29

(T/F) The urachus is always sealed fully at birth.

Answer 29

(F, can seal after birth and that can be normal)

Question 30

Which of the following is true about a typical normal foal at birth? A - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then tachycardic (150-175 bpm) B - They are initially tachycardic (150-175 bpm) then bradycardic (60-80 bpm) C - They are born with a normal neonatal heart rate (80-100 bpm) D - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then have a normal neonatal heart rate (80-100 bpm)

Answer 30

(A) - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then tachycardic (150-175 bpm)

Question 31

Which of the following is false about a normal foal at birth? A - Their normal range of temperature is 99-101.8 oF B - Immediately postpartum their temperature may drop to 98.6 F C - Immediately postpartum their temperature may increase to 102.5 F D - Their temperature is generally poorly regulated

Answer 31

(C) - Immediately postpartum their temperature may increase to 102.5 F

Question 32

Foals are considered definitively premature if they are born before what day of gestation?

Answer 32

(320 days)

Question 33

What is the term for if a foal is born at a normal gestation length but has a small body size, low birth weight, rounded forehead, silky hair coat, floppy ears, flexor and articular laxity due to incomplete ossification, and generalized weakness?

Answer 33

(The foal is dysmature, born to term but with signs of prematurity)

Question 34

How much IgG consumption is considered adequate transfer of passive immunity in a foal?

Answer 34

(If they received > 800 mg/dL)

Question 35

How much IgG consumption is considered partial failure of transfer of passive immunity in a foal?

Answer 35

(If they received < 800 mg/dL but > 400 mg/dL)

Question 36

How much IgG consumption is considered complete failure of transfer of passive immunity in a foal?

Answer 36

(If they received < 400 mg/dL)

Question 37

Which of the following tests can be used in foals to estimate IgG concentrations? A - Serum total protein concentrations B - Serum total globulin concentrations C - Serum GGT concentrations

Answer 37

(B, has similar sensitivity and specificity to the snap test; A is useful in non-dehydrated calves and C is used in carnivores or calves)

Question 38

Which of the following is not normal for a cria? A - Body temperature of 100-102 oF B - Heart rate 60-90 bpm C - Respiratory rate 10-30 bpm D - All of the above are normal

Answer 38

(D)

Question 39

What are the two primary signs that clients can use to monitor the health of their criations?

Answer 39

(Weight gain and activity)

Question 40

(T/F) Crias born at night often have problems and are considered immediately as high risk.

Answer 40

(T)

Question 41

A total solids of 5.2 in a cria is considered adequate TPI, partial FTPI, or complete FTPI (choose one).

Answer 41

(Partial FTPI, complete is < 5 g/dl and adequate is above 5.5 g/dl)

Question 42

What causes the clinical signs of infection?

Answer 42

(The host inflammatory response to the presence of pathogenic microorganisms)

Question 43

What diagnostic test is strongly indicated in severely ill foals who you suspect have septicemia?

Answer 43

(Blood culture → allows for identification of infectious agent and antimicrobial susceptibility testing)

Question 44

What blood glucose values have been associated with a poor prognosis for survival in foals? Two answers.

Answer 44

(< 50 mg/dL or >180 mg/dL)

Question 45

What blood chemistry value is an indicator of impaired perfusion and if elevated post 24 hours of life is a clear indicator of need for critical care in a foal?

Answer 45

(Lactate)

Question 46

(T/F) A low serum amyloid A value rules out the possibility of a bacterial infection.

Answer 46

(F, normal values (even below 10 mg/L) do not rule out the possibility of infection, instead used as a trend while treating)

Question 47

What is one of the most important therapies when it comes to treating a septicemic foal?

Answer 47

(Nursing care such as providing a clean, dry, warm environment)

Question 48

(T/F) There are no equine colostrum replacers available.

Answer 48

(T)

Question 49

Why do you have to administer antibodies parenterally in a foal who has FTPI if they have been alive for more than 24 hours?

Answer 49

(Bc the GI tract will no longer be permeable to immunoglobulins like it is in the first 24 hours of life)

Question 50

The combination of what two classes of antibiotics is typically used in a septicemic foal?

Answer 50

(Beta-lactams and aminoglycosides)

Question 51

What is the maintenance rate of resuscitation fluids in a foal?

Answer 51

(2 ml/kg/hr)

Question 52

What can isotonic fluids be supplemented with to correct hypoglycemia in a septicemic foal?

Answer 52

(50% dextrose, 50-100ml per liter of fluids)

Question 53

When do puppies and kittens' eyes and ears open? Range of days.

Answer 53

(10-14 days)

Question 54

When is the dam responsible for stimulating urination and defecation for puppies and kittens?

Answer 54

(From birth to 2 weeks of age)

Question 55

What is the socialization period for puppies?

Answer 55

(4-12 weeks of age)

Question 56

When are the fear periods for puppies? Two answers.

Answer 56

(4 weeks of age and 8-10 weeks of age → should avoid strong negative stimuli at these times)

Question 57

What should be avoided during the puppy fear periods?

Answer 57

(Strong negative stimuli)

Question 58

What is the socialization period for kittens?

Answer 58

(3-16 weeks of age)

Question 59

Do puppies or kittens have a longer socialization period?

Answer 59

(Kittens)

Question 60

If a dam experiences protein energy malnutrition during her pregnancy, what will result in her calves?

Answer 60

(The calves will be less able to generate heat to maintain body temperature)

Question 61

What body condition is associated with an increased risk of dystocia?

Answer 61

(Overconditioned)

Question 62

A deficiency in what mineral results in cardiomyopathy which leads to stillbirths and poor suckling?

Answer 62

(Selenium)

Question 63

A deficiency in what mineral results in weak calves, increased number of stillbirths, and swayback in kids and lambs?

Answer 63

(Copper)

Question 64

What is done to prevent pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants? Be specific.

Answer 64

(Increase grain ingestion during the last 6 weeks of gestation, 1-2 lbs per head per day)

Question 65

Small ruminants experience hypocalcemia/hypercalcemia (choose one) during late gestation so calcium is supplemented in/removed from (choose one) their diet.

Answer 65

(Hypocalcemia; supplemented by adding limestone/calcium carbonate to their mineral mix)

Question 66

Dairy cow energy is restricted 60 days prior to parturition, termed the dry period, but during the last how many weeks of gestation are they placed on a transition diet to prepare them for their lactation diet?

Answer 66

(The last 2-3 weeks)

Question 67

The administration of what type of medication stimulates maturational events in the fetal lungs, kidneys, liver, and GI tract which is important to do if planning on inducing a dam?

Answer 67

(Glucocorticoids)

Question 68

When should ruminant neonates be able to get into sternal recumbency after birth?

Answer 68

(Within 5 minutes)

Question 69

When should small ruminant neonates be standing after birth?

Answer 69

(Within 10-20 minutes)

Question 70

When should calves be standing after birth?

Answer 70

(Within 20-30 minutes)

Question 71

When should piglets be standing after birth?

Answer 71

(Within 3-5 minutes)

Question 72

When should calves be nursing after birth?

Answer 72

(Within 45-90 minutes)

Question 73

When should small ruminant neonates be nursing after birth?

Answer 73

(Within 30-45 minutes)

Question 74

When should piglets be nursing after birth?

Answer 74

(Within 25-35 minutes)

Question 75

How much colostrum should a calf consume within the first 2 hours of life?

Answer 75

(7.5% of their body weight, will then consume another 7.5% within the next 6-12 hours of birth)

Question 76

How much colostrum should small ruminant neonates and piglets consume within the first 2 hours of life?

Answer 76

(5% of the body weight)

Question 77

Of the pathogens listed below, all of which can be passed via colostrum, which is destroyed when colostrum is frozen? A - Caprine arthritis encephalitis B - Ovine progressive pneumonia C - Johne’s disease D - Mycoplasmosis E - Bovine leukemia virus

Answer 77

(E, but freezing also destroys cellular function so frozen colostrum will only provide humoral immunity and not cellular (it’s not included in the basic t-mobile plan :P cause…cellular…i’m tired))

Question 78

A food animal neonates temperature falling below what temperature is considered hypothermia?

Answer 78

(98 degrees)

Question 79

How many times a day should newborn ruminants be fed?

Answer 79

(4 times a day; dairy calves are an exception, 3 is best)

Question 80

When should newborn piglets be fed if they do not have a sow to naturally feed on?

Answer 80

(Every 3 hours)

Question 81

When should you drop down from 4 feedings to 3 feedings a day in food animal neonates?

Answer 81

(At 4 days of age)

Question 82

When should you drop down from 3 feedings to 2 feedings a day in food animal neonates?

Answer 82

(At 2 weeks of age)

Question 83

What portion of the milk replacer should be increased during the winter?

Answer 83

(Fat, winter milk replacer should have a higher fat content than summer milk replacer)

Question 84

What should the percentage of fiber content be in milk replacer?

Answer 84

(Less than 1%)

Question 85

What should be the first two ingredients of milk replacer that indicate a higher quality than other replacers that do not have these first two ingredients?

Answer 85

(Whey and dried powdered milk)

Question 86

When are iron injections administered in piglets to prevent iron deficiency when they deplete their liver iron stores by 7 days post birth?

Answer 86

(Iron injections are given at 2 days after birth)