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Next Gen Exam 3 > Neonatology > Flashcards

Neonatology Flashcards

Covers: Assessment of the Normal SA Neonate; The Compromised SA Neonate; Normal and Compromised LA Neonate; FPT and Septicemia; Normal Development and Maturation; FA Production; GI Disorders

1
Q

Small animal neonatal rectal temperatures are typically lower or higher than those of adult animals?

A

(Lower)

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2
Q

What does the apgar score indicate?

A

(Viability of the neonate)

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3
Q

Do you want a higher or lower apgar score for your neonates?

A

(Higher, means better viability, vitality and prognosis)

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4
Q

What are the three neonatal reflexes that should be tested and strong in small animal neonates?

A

(Nursing, rooting, and righting)

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5
Q

A respiratory rate greater than what value in a small animal neonate is indicative of something pathologic?

A

(40 breaths per minute)

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6
Q

(T/F) Puppies and kittens should gain weight everyday until somewhere around 4-5 months of age.

A

(T)

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7
Q

What is the major source of maternal antibodies in puppies and kittens?

A

(Colostrum)

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8
Q

Does breeding two cats of the same blood type prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis in kittens?

A

(Yes)

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9
Q

When should you introduce gruel to small animal neonates?

A

(3-4 weeks of age)

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10
Q

Weaning should be completed in puppies and kittens by what time period?

A

(6-8 weeks)

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11
Q

What body system should be matured by 8 weeks in puppies and kittens?

A

(Cardiovascular system)

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12
Q

At what age can puppies and kittens thermoregulate?

A

(4 weeks or greater)

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13
Q

What must the rectal temperature be before you should feed a puppy/kitten?

A

(> 96 degrees F)

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14
Q

What is the maximum comfortable stomach capacity for a small animal neonate?

A

(4ml/100g)

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15
Q

What are the small animal neonates’ worst enemies (the three Hs)?

A

(Hypothermia, hypoglycemia, and hypovolemia)

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16
Q

When do small animal neonates gain the ability to thermoregulate? Answer is a range of weeks.

A

(4-6 weeks of age)

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17
Q

Why can bloat and/or aspiration pneumonia result from hypothermia in a small animal neonate?

A

(Hypothermia induces paralytic ileus of the GI tract which leads to aspiration pneumonia and/or bloat)

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18
Q

In a hypothermic small animal neonate, what temperature do they need to be before you can give them warm milk to aid in warming them up?

A

(>/= 96 degrees F)

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19
Q

What is the shock bolus dose for a small animal neonate?

A

(30-40 ml/kg)

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20
Q

When does deworming start in canine neonates?

A

(2 weeks of age, continues every 2 weeks until year-round control is started)

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21
Q

(T/F) The fetal neurologic system is fully developed in precocial species.

A

(T)

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22
Q

Physical (warmth, buoyancy) and chemical (inhibitory neurosteroids) factors are used to keep the fetus in what state while in-utero?

A

(Sleeping state)

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23
Q

What event during parturition initiates hypoxia and hypercarbia in the neonate which stimulates respiration?

A

(Rupture of the umbilical cord)

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24
Q

As pulmonary blood flow increases in a neonate, right-sided heart pressure decreases or increases (choose one) while the left-sided heart pressure decreases or increases (choose one).

A

(Right sided heart pressure decreases while left sided heart pressure increases)

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25
Q

What fetal structures close as a result of the change in pressure within the neonatal heart? Two answers.

A

(Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus)

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26
Q

Why do foals have a low tolerance for premature births?

A

(Bc their HPA axis does not start to active until 5 days prior to birth and the HPA axis is very important for postnatal life)

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27
Q

(T/F) It is normal for a foal to be hypoglycemic in the first few hours of life.

A

(T)

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28
Q

What is the purpose of the large animal neonatal GI tract being permeable to macromolecules in the first 12 to 24 hours post birth?

A

(Most importantly, to readily absorb the immunoglobulins from the mother’s colostrum)

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29
Q

(T/F) The urachus is always sealed fully at birth.

A

(F, can seal after birth and that can be normal)

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30
Q

Which of the following is true about a typical normal foal at birth?

A - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then tachycardic (150-175 bpm)
B - They are initially tachycardic (150-175 bpm) then bradycardic (60-80 bpm)
C - They are born with a normal neonatal heart rate (80-100 bpm)
D - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then have a normal neonatal heart rate (80-100 bpm)

A

(A) - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then tachycardic (150-175 bpm)

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31
Q

Which of the following is false about a normal foal at birth?

A - Their normal range of temperature is 99-101.8 oF
B - Immediately postpartum their temperature may drop to 98.6 F
C - Immediately postpartum their temperature may increase to 102.5 F
D - Their temperature is generally poorly regulated

A

(C) - Immediately postpartum their temperature may increase to 102.5 F

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32
Q

Foals are considered definitively premature if they are born before what day of gestation?

A

(320 days)

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33
Q

What is the term for if a foal is born at a normal gestation length but has a small body size, low birth weight, rounded forehead, silky hair coat, floppy ears, flexor and articular laxity due to incomplete ossification, and generalized weakness?

A

(The foal is dysmature, born to term but with signs of prematurity)

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34
Q

How much IgG consumption is considered adequate transfer of passive immunity in a foal?

A

(If they received > 800 mg/dL)

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35
Q

How much IgG consumption is considered partial failure of transfer of passive immunity in a foal?

A

(If they received < 800 mg/dL but > 400 mg/dL)

36
Q

How much IgG consumption is considered complete failure of transfer of passive immunity in a foal?

A

(If they received < 400 mg/dL)

37
Q

Which of the following tests can be used in foals to estimate IgG concentrations?

A - Serum total protein concentrations
B - Serum total globulin concentrations
C - Serum GGT concentrations

A

(B, has similar sensitivity and specificity to the snap test; A is useful in non-dehydrated calves and C is used in carnivores or calves)

38
Q

Which of the following is not normal for a cria?

A - Body temperature of 100-102 oF
B - Heart rate 60-90 bpm
C - Respiratory rate 10-30 bpm
D - All of the above are normal

A

(D)

39
Q

What are the two primary signs that clients can use to monitor the health of their criations?

A

(Weight gain and activity)

40
Q

(T/F) Crias born at night often have problems and are considered immediately as high risk.

A

(T)

41
Q

A total solids of 5.2 in a cria is considered adequate TPI, partial FTPI, or complete FTPI (choose one).

A

(Partial FTPI, complete is < 5 g/dl and adequate is above 5.5 g/dl)

42
Q

What causes the clinical signs of infection?

A

(The host inflammatory response to the presence of pathogenic microorganisms)

43
Q

What diagnostic test is strongly indicated in severely ill foals who you suspect have septicemia?

A

(Blood culture → allows for identification of infectious agent and antimicrobial susceptibility testing)

44
Q

What blood glucose values have been associated with a poor prognosis for survival in foals? Two answers.

A

(< 50 mg/dL or >180 mg/dL)

45
Q

What blood chemistry value is an indicator of impaired perfusion and if elevated post 24 hours of life is a clear indicator of need for critical care in a foal?

A

(Lactate)

46
Q

(T/F) A low serum amyloid A value rules out the possibility of a bacterial infection.

A

(F, normal values (even below 10 mg/L) do not rule out the possibility of infection, instead used as a trend while treating)

47
Q

What is one of the most important therapies when it comes to treating a septicemic foal?

A

(Nursing care such as providing a clean, dry, warm environment)

48
Q

(T/F) There are no equine colostrum replacers available.

A

(T)

49
Q

Why do you have to administer antibodies parenterally in a foal who has FTPI if they have been alive for more than 24 hours?

A

(Bc the GI tract will no longer be permeable to immunoglobulins like it is in the first 24 hours of life)

50
Q

The combination of what two classes of antibiotics is typically used in a septicemic foal?

A

(Beta-lactams and aminoglycosides)

51
Q

What is the maintenance rate of resuscitation fluids in a foal?

A

(2 ml/kg/hr)

52
Q

What can isotonic fluids be supplemented with to correct hypoglycemia in a septicemic foal?

A

(50% dextrose, 50-100ml per liter of fluids)

53
Q

When do puppies and kittens’ eyes and ears open? Range of days.

A

(10-14 days)

54
Q

When is the dam responsible for stimulating urination and defecation for puppies and kittens?

A

(From birth to 2 weeks of age)

55
Q

What is the socialization period for puppies?

A

(4-12 weeks of age)

56
Q

When are the fear periods for puppies? Two answers.

A

(4 weeks of age and 8-10 weeks of age → should avoid strong negative stimuli at these times)

57
Q

What should be avoided during the puppy fear periods?

A

(Strong negative stimuli)

58
Q

What is the socialization period for kittens?

A

(3-16 weeks of age)

59
Q

Do puppies or kittens have a longer socialization period?

A

(Kittens)

60
Q

If a dam experiences protein energy malnutrition during her pregnancy, what will result in her calves?

A

(The calves will be less able to generate heat to maintain body temperature)

61
Q

What body condition is associated with an increased risk of dystocia?

A

(Overconditioned)

62
Q

A deficiency in what mineral results in cardiomyopathy which leads to stillbirths and poor suckling?

A

(Selenium)

63
Q

A deficiency in what mineral results in weak calves, increased number of stillbirths, and swayback in kids and lambs?

A

(Copper)

64
Q

What is done to prevent pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants? Be specific.

A

(Increase grain ingestion during the last 6 weeks of gestation, 1-2 lbs per head per day)

65
Q

Small ruminants experience hypocalcemia/hypercalcemia (choose one) during late gestation so calcium is supplemented in/removed from (choose one) their diet.

A

(Hypocalcemia; supplemented by adding limestone/calcium carbonate to their mineral mix)

66
Q

Dairy cow energy is restricted 60 days prior to parturition, termed the dry period, but during the last how many weeks of gestation are they placed on a transition diet to prepare them for their lactation diet?

A

(The last 2-3 weeks)

67
Q

The administration of what type of medication stimulates maturational events in the fetal lungs, kidneys, liver, and GI tract which is important to do if planning on inducing a dam?

A

(Glucocorticoids)

68
Q

When should ruminant neonates be able to get into sternal recumbency after birth?

A

(Within 5 minutes)

69
Q

When should small ruminant neonates be standing after birth?

A

(Within 10-20 minutes)

70
Q

When should calves be standing after birth?

A

(Within 20-30 minutes)

71
Q

When should piglets be standing after birth?

A

(Within 3-5 minutes)

72
Q

When should calves be nursing after birth?

A

(Within 45-90 minutes)

73
Q

When should small ruminant neonates be nursing after birth?

A

(Within 30-45 minutes)

74
Q

When should piglets be nursing after birth?

A

(Within 25-35 minutes)

75
Q

How much colostrum should a calf consume within the first 2 hours of life?

A

(7.5% of their body weight, will then consume another 7.5% within the next 6-12 hours of birth)

76
Q

How much colostrum should small ruminant neonates and piglets consume within the first 2 hours of life?

A

(5% of the body weight)

77
Q

Of the pathogens listed below, all of which can be passed via colostrum, which is destroyed when colostrum is frozen?

A - Caprine arthritis encephalitis
B - Ovine progressive pneumonia
C - Johne’s disease
D - Mycoplasmosis
E - Bovine leukemia virus

A

(E, but freezing also destroys cellular function so frozen colostrum will only provide humoral immunity and not cellular (it’s not included in the basic t-mobile plan :P cause…cellular…i’m tired))

78
Q

A food animal neonates temperature falling below what temperature is considered hypothermia?

A

(98 degrees)

79
Q

How many times a day should newborn ruminants be fed?

A

(4 times a day; dairy calves are an exception, 3 is best)

80
Q

When should newborn piglets be fed if they do not have a sow to naturally feed on?

A

(Every 3 hours)

81
Q

When should you drop down from 4 feedings to 3 feedings a day in food animal neonates?

A

(At 4 days of age)

82
Q

When should you drop down from 3 feedings to 2 feedings a day in food animal neonates?

A

(At 2 weeks of age)

83
Q

What portion of the milk replacer should be increased during the winter?

A

(Fat, winter milk replacer should have a higher fat content than summer milk replacer)

84
Q

What should the percentage of fiber content be in milk replacer?

A

(Less than 1%)

85
Q

What should be the first two ingredients of milk replacer that indicate a higher quality than other replacers that do not have these first two ingredients?

A

(Whey and dried powdered milk)

86
Q

When are iron injections administered in piglets to prevent iron deficiency when they deplete their liver iron stores by 7 days post birth?

A

(Iron injections are given at 2 days after birth)

Next Gen Exam 3 (8 decks)

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