NEONATOLOGY Flashcards

(242 cards)

1
Q

Premature infant

Inabilty to generate intrathoracic pressure necessary to inflate lungs without surfactant

A

Hyaline Membrane Disease/

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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2
Q

Term and late preterm
Benign, self limited respiratory distress sydrome
Related to delayed clearance of fluid

A

Transient tachypnea of the newborn

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3
Q

Persistent Fetal Circulation

A

Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension of the Newborn (PPHN)

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4
Q

Term, posterm, SGA

Mild to severe respiratory distress with cardiopulmonary failure

A

Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

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5
Q

Premature

chronic lung disease

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

neonatal chronic lung disease

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6
Q

Defect in pleuroperitoneal canal

A

Bochdalek Hernia

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7
Q

Posterior defect of diaphragm, more common on left

A

Bochdalek Hernia

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8
Q

Central anterior defect of the diaphragm

A

Morgagni Hernia

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9
Q

Cessation of breathing for longer than 20 secs or any duration accompanied by cyanosis and bradycardia

A

Apnea

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10
Q

CXR: bowel gas pattern in hemithorax

A

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

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11
Q

CXR: prominent pulmonary vascular markings (fuzzy vessels)

A

TTN

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12
Q

CXR: bubbly lungs (cystic lucencies)

A

BPD

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13
Q

CXR: coarse streaking granular pattern of both lung fields

A

MAS

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14
Q

CXR: perihilar streaking

A

Neonatal Pneumonia

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15
Q

CXR: underaerated atelectasis

A

RDS

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16
Q

CXR: hyperaerated

A

TTN

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17
Q

CXR: hyperexpansion with flat diaphragm and widened rib spaces

A

MAS

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18
Q

CXR: fluid in intralobular fissures

A

TTN

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19
Q

CXR: streaky interstitial markings, patchy atelectasis, cystic areas, hyperinflation

A

BPD

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20
Q

CXR: finely granular lungs, ground glass

A

RDS

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21
Q

CXR: sunburst pattern

A

TTN

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22
Q

CXR: may be normal

A

PPHN

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23
Q

Overaerated conditions

A

BPD
TTN
MAS
Neonatal pneumonia

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24
Q

Surfactant in fetal lung is present at

A

20 weeks AOG

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25
Surfactant appears in amniotic fluid at
28 - 32 wks AOG
26
Mature level of lung surfactant at
35 weeks aog
27
Most abundant component of surfactant
Phosphatidylcholine (65%)
28
Target SpO2 at 10 minutes of life
85-95%
29
Target SpO2 at 4 minutes of life
75-80%
30
Target SpO2 at 2 minutes of life
65-70%
31
Target SpO2 at 5 minutes of life
80-85%
32
Early onset of tachypnea | Relieved by O2
TTN
33
Onset within first 12 hours of birth | Cyanosis
PPHN
34
Early onset respiratory distress | with meconium stained amniotic fluids
MAS
35
Worsening respiratory status with increased work of breathing
BPD
36
Respiratory distress within first few hours of life
CDH
37
Within minutes of birth | Grunting
RDS
38
Difficulty with mouth breathing
Choanal atresis
39
Most common perinatal respiratory disorder (40%)
TTN
40
Most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (95%)
Bochdalek Hernia
41
Most common cause of apnea
Idiopathic apnea of prematurity
42
Most common congenital anomaly of the nose
Choanal atresia
43
Target SpO2 at 1 minutes of life
60-65%
44
Target SpO2 at 3 minutes of life
70-75%
45
Barrel chest
TTN
46
Scaphoid abdomen
CDH
47
Progressive worsming of cyanosis and dyspnea | Peak within 3 days then improves
RDS
48
Recovers rapidly within 3 days
TTN
49
Failure of normal circulatory transition after birth due to high pulmonary vascular resistance
PPHN
50
Distal progression of meconium stained fluid in conjunction with reabsorption of lung fluid
MAS
52
Exagerrated inflammatory response
BPD
54
Persistence od buccopharyngeal membranes
Choanal atresia
55
Maladaptation from acute injury
PPHN
56
Volutrauma or barotrauma during mech vent
BPD
57
Underdevelopment of the lungs due to compression
CDH
58
Deficiency of surfactant with overcompliant chest wall
RDS
59
Conditions associated with Choanal Atresia
CHARGE Syndrome VACTERL Treacher-Collins Kallman syndrome
60
Most common congenital anomaly associated with choanal atresia
CHARGE Syndrome
61
CHARGE Syndrome
``` Coloboma Heart defect Atresia, choanae Retardation Genital anomaly Ear defects ```
62
VACTERL
``` Verterbal defect Anus, imperforate Cardiac defect Tracheo- Esophageal fistula Renal defect Limb and radial anomaly ```
63
Choanal atresia is more common in which gender?
Females
64
History of chronic sinusitis Purulent nasal discharge Obstruction
Unilateral choanal atresia (60%)
65
Difficulty mouth breathing Suck in their lips Difficulty feeding, may develop cyanosis
Bilateral choanal atresia (40%)
66
Clinical diagnosis of choanal atresia is established by
Failure to pass firm catheter through each nostril 3-4 cm into the nasopharynx
67
Fiberoptic rhinoscopy finding in choanal atresia
Atretic plate (seen directly)
68
Best modality for anatomic abnormality in choanal atresia?
High resolution CT scan
69
Surgery in choanal atresia
Transnasal repair (no serious medical problems) Tracheotomy - if severe Elective - unilateral
70
Mild, moderate, severe BPD? | Breathing room air at 56 days old (36 wks AOG, if delivered <32 wks AOG) or discharged home
MILD BPD
71
Mild, moderate, severe BPD? | Need for O2 >30% at 56 days old (36 wks AOG, if delivered <32 wks AOG) or discharged home
SEVERE BPD
72
Mild, moderate, severe BPD? | Need for PPV at 56 days old (36 wks AOG, if delivered <32 wks AOG) or discharged home
SEVERE BPD
73
Mild, moderate, severe BPD? | Need for O2 <30% at 56 days old (36 wks AOG, if delivered <32 wks AOG) or discharged home
Moderate BPD
74
Modality needed for worsening or non-improving BPD?
ECG and 2D echo to detect cor pulmonale and/or pulmonary hypertension
75
First intestinal discharge of a newborn
Meconium
76
Early consequences of MAS
``` Airway obstruction Chemical pneumonitis Release of inflammatory mediators Surfactant dysfunction Increase in pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary hypertension ```
77
How long is meconium exposure in neonates with Stained umbilical cord
15 minutes - thick | 1 hr - thin
78
How long is meconium exposure in neonates with YELLOW STAINED NAILS
4-6 hours
79
How long is meconium exposure in neonates with STAINED VERNIX CASEOSA
12 hours
80
TRUE OR FALSE: routine intubation to aspirate lungs of vigorous infants is ineffective in reducing MAS
True
81
TRUE OR FALSE: meconium is sterile
True | But it may inhibit normally bacteriostatic quality of amniotic fluid
82
Why sedate infants on Mech Vent?
Pain precipitates hypoxia and right to left shunting
83
Respiratory distress with cyanosis despite adequate ventilation
PPHN
84
Pathogenesis of PPHN
``` Maladaptation from acute injury Remodeling of pulmonary vasculature (thickened vascular walls, smooth muscle hyperplasia) Pulmonary hypoplasia (CDH, POTTER SYNDROME) Obstruction (TAPVR, Polycythemia) ```
85
Risk factors for PPHN
``` Lung disease Systemic disorders Congenital heart disease Perinatal factors — asphyxia — perinatal hypoxia — maternal ASPIRIN or INDOMETHACIN ```
86
Gold standard to confirm PPHN
2D echo
87
Pathogenesis of PPHN
Marked pulmonary HPN due to elevated PVR and altered pulmonary vasoreactivity, leading to RIGHT TO LEFT shunting across foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
88
Management of PPHN
Mech vent Pressors Inhaled Nitric oxide (reduce PVR, improves V/Q mismatch) Adequate hydration (prevent aggravation of shunt)
89
Suggestive of R to L shunting through ductus arteriosus
PaO2 or O2 sat gradient between pre- (right radial artery) and postductal (umbilical artery)
90
Poorly ventilated alveoli
TTN
91
Alveolar collapse
RDS
92
Why are infants born via CS more at risk for TTN?
``` No stress (lack of cathecolamine surge and active Na+ reabsorption in lung) No uterine contractions (contractions result in high transpulmonary pressure leading to lung fluid efflux) ```
93
Modality that is Diagnostic of TTN
Lung ultrasound Double lung point Comet tail artifacts
94
Management of TTN
Supportive O2, thermoregulation Beta agonists
95
Effects of surfactant deficience
``` Increased surface tension leading to alveolar collapse Progressive atelectasis V/Q mismatch Hypoxia Failure to develop effective FRC ```
96
CXR: Low lung volumes and air bronchograms within first 24 hrs of life
RDS
97
When to do surfactant replacement?
<26 wks AOG: Within 15 mins | All preterm infants intubated in DR
98
INSURE technique
Intubate SURfactant via ETT Extubate to CPAP
99
Mainstay therapy for RDS
CPAP
100
Indications for mech vent in RDS
Severe Respiratory failure Persistent Apnea
101
Causes of Apnea
``` Idiopathic apnea of prematurity Direct depression of CNS respiratory drive — hypoglycemia, meningitis — drugs, hemorrhage, seizures Disturbance in O2 delivery — shock, sepsis, anemia Ventilation defections — obstruction of airway — pneumonia — muscle weakness ```
102
Apnea management
Stimulation PPV CPR Methylxanthines — increase resp drive by lowering threshold response to hypercapnia, enhances diaphragm contractility, prevents fatigue
103
23 year old primigravid, delivered at 33 wks AOG, male NB via NSVD. Several minutes after birth, NB developed tachypnea, prominent grunting, intercostal and subcostal retractions, nasal flaring, which progressed to cyanosis. Upon auscultation, diminshed breath sounds, harsh tubular quality and fine crackles on inspiration. What is your initial diagnosis?
RDS
104
23 year old primigravid, delivered at 33 wks AOG, male NB via NSVD. Several minutes after birth, NB developed tachypnea, prominent grunting, intercostal and subcostal retractions, nasal flaring, which progressed to cyanosis. Upon auscultation, diminshed breath sounds, harsh tubular quality and fine crackles on inspiration. What is the primary cause of the case above?
Surfactant deficiency
105
23 year old primigravid, delivered at 33 wks AOG, male NB via NSVD. Several minutes after birth, NB developed tachypnea, prominent grunting, intercostal and subcostal retractions, nasal flaring, which progressed to cyanosis. Upon auscultation, diminshed breath sounds, harsh tubular quality and fine crackles on inspiration. What is the expected CXR findings?
Fine reticular granularity of lung parenchyma, ground glass appearance, air bronchogram
106
23 year old primigravid, delivered at 38 wks AOG, male NB via CS. Several minutes after birth, NB developed tachypnea, expiratory grunting, retractions. Upon auscultation, clear breath sounds. What is your initial diagnosis?
TTN
107
23 year old primigravid, delivered at 38 wks AOG, male NB via CS. Several minutes after birth, NB developed tachypnea, expiratory grunting, retractions. Upon auscultation, clear breath sounds. What is the cause of the case above?
slow absorption of fetal lung fluid
108
23 year old primigravid, delivered at 38 wks AOG, male NB via CS. Several minutes after birth, NB developed tachypnea, expiratory grunting, retractions. Upon auscultation, clear breath sounds. What is the expected CXR?
Hyperaerated lung, prominent pulmonary vascular markings, sunburst pattern, flat diaphragms, fluid in interlobar fissures
109
A 32 yo G4P3 gave birth to a 42 week male neonate via NSVD after 18 hours of labor. (+) meconium staining. 12 hours after birth, neonate noted to have grunting, nasal flaring, and intercostal retractions. He was tachycardic and hypoxemic at 80% O2 sats. Blood deawn from right radial artery and umbilical artery showed PaO2 gradient. What is your initial diagnosis?
PPHN
110
A 32 yo G4P3 gave birth to a 42 week male neonate via NSVD after 18 hours of labor. (+) meconium staining. 12 hours after birth, neonate noted to have grunting, nasal flaring, and intercostal retractions. He was tachycardic and hypoxemic at 80% O2 sats. Blood deawn from right radial artery and umbilical artery showed PaO2 gradient. What is the cause of the case above
Right to left shunting through foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus after birth
111
A 32 yo G4P3 gave birth to a 42 week male neonate via NSVD after 18 hours of labor. (+) meconium staining. 12 hours after birth, neonate noted to have grunting, nasal flaring, and intercostal retractions. He was tachycardic and hypoxemic at 80% O2 sats. Blood deawn from right radial artery and umbilical artery showed PaO2 gradient. What is the expected chest xray?
Normal lung
112
``` A 32 yo G4P3 gave birth to a 42 week male neonate via NSVD after 18 hours of labor. (+) meconium staining. 12 hours after birth, neonate noted to have grunting, nasal flaring, and intercostal retractions. He was tachycardic and hypoxemic at 80% O2 sats. Blood deawn from right radial artery and umbilical artery showed PaO2 gradient. Which modality is useful in evaluation? A. CT scan B. 2D echo C. 12L ECG D. CXR ```
B. Real time echocardiography with doppler flow
113
A 30 week premature baby was treated for severe RDS. The patient was on mech vent for 2 weeks, subsequently extubated but never completely weaned off O2. At 36 weeks postmenstrual, can tolerate O2 at 1 lpm. What is the pathophysiology?
Chronic lung injury due to hypoxia, generation of free radicals from O2 supplementation and inflammation
114
A 30 week premature baby was treated for severe RDS. The patient was on mech vent for 2 weeks, subsequently extubated but never completely weaned off O2. At 36 weeks postmenstrual, can tolerate O2 at 1 lpm. What is the classification?
MILD BPD
115
A 30 week premature baby was treated for severe RDS. The patient was on mech vent for 2 weeks, subsequently extubated but never completely weaned off O2. At 36 weeks postmenstrual, can tolerate O2 at 1 lpm. What is the expected chest Xray finding?
Interstitial emphysema, wandering atelectasis with concomitant hyperinflation and cyst formation
116
A 30 week premature baby was treated for severe RDS. The patient was on mech vent for 2 weeks, subsequently extubated but never completely weaned off O2. At 36 weeks postmenstrual, can tolerate O2 at 1 lpm. What is the management?
Supportive
117
A 30 week premature baby was treated for severe RDS. The patient was on mech vent for 2 weeks, subsequently extubated but never completely weaned off O2. At 36 weeks postmenstrual, can tolerate O2 at 1 lpm. What is are preventive strategies?
``` Early use of CPAP Early surfactant therapy Caffeine to prevent apnea Vitamin A Systemic corticosteroids (not routine) ```
119
Hyperoxia due to prolonged (>150 hrs) exposure to FiO2 >60%
BPD
124
Delayed fluid resorption (central mechanism)
TTN
125
Memorize APGAR SCORE
``` ACTIVITY 0 - limp 1 - flexion 2 - active PULSE 0 - absent 1 - <100 2 - >100 GRIMACE 0 - no response 1 - Grimace 2 - cry, cough, sneeze, pull away APPEARANCE 0 - blue 1 - pink body, blue ext 2 - pink all over RESPIRATION 0 - absent 1 - slow, regular 2 - good, crying ```
126
Low Birth Weight
<2500
127
Very Low Birth Weight
<1500
128
Extremely Low Birth Weight
<1000
129
Fine soft immature hair, | Replaced by vellus hair in term infants
Lanugo
130
Flat blue gray, well-defined margins | Over buttocks and back
Mongolian spots
131
Benign, small papules or pustules on an erythematous base, usually 1-3 weeks after birth and persist for as long as 1 week, filled with eosinophils, found on trunk, face, ext
Erythema toxicum
132
Small pearly white inclusion cysts | Usually on the face
Milia
133
Lacy pattern on skin Cobblestone Vasomotor response to cold stress
Cutis marmorata
134
Open and closed comedones | From circulating acne
Neonatal acne
135
Vesiculopustular eruption around chin, neck, back, ext Palms and soles Benign lesions 2-3 days
Pustular melanosis
136
Division of body from forehead to pubis into red and pale halves, transient and harmless
Harlequin color change
137
Salmon patch, disappears with time
Birthmarks
138
Edema if scalp skin Crosses suture lines Minimal bleeding
Caput succedaneum
139
When does caput succedaneum resolve?
2-3 days
140
Subperiosteal location | No edema or discoloration in scalp
Cephalhematoma
141
Bleed in scalp, does not cross suture lines
Cephalhematoma
142
When does cephalhematoma resolve
2-3 weeks
143
Beneath epicranial aponeurosis, may extend to orbit and nape | Bleeding
Subgaleal hemorrhage
144
When does subgaleal hemorrhage resolve?
2-3 weeks
145
Congenital defect of the eye causing defects in the iris, lens, or retina
Coloboma
146
Temporary accumulations of epithelial cells on the hard palate or either side of the raphe
Epstein pearls
147
Redundant skin or webbing of the neck
Turner syndrome
148
PMI in infants
4th ICS just medial to midclavicular line
149
Bounding pulses and wide pulse pressure is suggestive of
PDA
150
Stronger pulses in upper extremity is suggestive of
Coarctation of the aorta
151
Soft vibratory, intermittent murmurs
Innocent murmurs
152
Redness, foul odor, discharge on umbilical stump
Omphalitis
153
Herniation of abdominal contents into the base of the umbilical cord
Omphalocoele
154
Herniation on abdomen, covered by a sac
Omphalocoele
155
Laterally located full thickness abdominal wall defect, usually right sided
Gastrochisis
156
Intraabdominal contents protrude through a fascial defect at the umbilicus that is covered by skin
Umbilical hernia
157
Urethral orifice in male located on the glans or ventral surface of the shaft
Hypospadia
158
Caudal curvature of the penis due to incomplete development of the foreskin
Chordee
159
Persistent processus vaginalis | Narrow opening at the inguinal ring allows peritoneal fluid to leave the abdominal cavity and accumulate in the scrotum
Hydrocele
160
Persistent processus vaginalis | opening at the inguinal ring allows extrusion of the abdominal viscera with increased intra abdominal pressure
Inguinal hernia
161
Single transverse palmar crease
Simian crease
162
Palsy involving C5-C6 | Upper trunk
Erb Duchenne palsy
163
Palsy involving C7-C8, T1 | Lower trunk
Klumpke palsy
164
Arm abducted and Pronated | Forearm internally rotated
Erb Duchenne
165
Absent biceps reflex, absent moro reflex on affected side
Erb duchenne
166
ipsilateral alteration in diaphragm excursion is due to involvement of which brachial nerve in Erb Duchenne palsy
C4
167
Claw hand
Klumpke
168
Paralyzed, no wrist. Movement | Absent grasp reflex on hand
Klumpke
169
Klumpke paralysis with involvement of T1 sympathetic nerves
Horner syndrome | Ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos
170
Most commonly fractured bone during labor and delivery
Clavicle
171
Appearance? Disappearance? | Rooting Reflex
32 weeks aog | 1 mo
172
Appearance? Disappearance? | Palmar Grasp
28 weeks | 2-3 months
173
Appearance? Disappearance? | Placing or Stepping Reflex
37 weeks | 4-5 mos
174
Appearance? Disappearance? | Moro Reflex
28-32 weeks | 5-6 months
175
``` Appearance? Disappearance? Tonic neck (fencing) Reflex ```
35 weeks | 6-7 mos
176
Appearance? Disappearance? | Plantar Grasp Reflex
11 weeks | 7-9 mos
177
Appearance? Disappearance? | Landau Reflex
3 mos | Covered up by voluntary action
178
Appearance? Disappearance? | Parachute Reflex
4-9 mos | Covered up by voluntary action
179
Appearance? Disappearance? | Crawling Reflex
28 weeks | Disappear just after a few weeks
180
This reflex is a prerequisite to walking
Parachute reflex
181
Which reflex normally persists throughout life
Parachute reflex
182
Assymetric moro reflex response suggests
Fractured clavicle Brachial plexus injury Hemiparesis
183
Components of EINC
Immediate and thorough drying Skin to skin contact Properly timed cord clamping Non separation of newborn and mother
184
Eye prophylaxis is indicated for?
Protection vs gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
185
Credes prophylaxis
1% silver nitrate solution
186
When is Hep B ig given?
Mother is HBsAg positive | Or HBsAg status is unknown and bw is <2 kg
187
Newborn screening act of 2004
RA 9288
188
The Universal Newborn Screening and Intervention Act of 2009
RA 9709
189
Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism
Thyroid dysgenesis
190
Most common cause of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
21-hydroxylase deficiency (cortisol)
191
Episodic or chronic hemolytic anemia after exposure to oxidants
G6PD
192
Enzyme deficiency in PKU
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
193
Unpleasant musty odor
PKU
194
Burnt sugar odor
MSUD
195
Deficiency of branch chain a-ketoacid dehydrogenase
MSUD
196
Which Enzymes accumulate in MSUD
Isoleucine Leucine Valine
197
Associated defects in omphalocele
``` OEIS complex Omphalocele Imperforate anus Exstrophy of cloaca Spine defects ```
198
What is the normal amniotic fluid L/S ratio
2:1
199
Milk that is high lactose, and high protein content
Foremilk
200
Milk that is creamy with high fat content
Hind milk
201
Earliest milk produced and secreted for 3 days
Colostrum
202
Protein rich milk, 80% water High content of secretory igA, lactoferrin, lysozyme Low fat and carbs
Colostrum
203
Casein:whey ratio of human milk
Low 10: 90 in early milk 40: 60 in mature (2:3)
204
Contraindications to breastfeeding
``` Illicit drugs - ABSOLUTE HIV Tb - until after 2 weeks of tx HSV varicella Cancer chemo Galactosemia, MSUD, PKU ```
205
Micronutrients found more in formula milk
Vitamin D, K and iron
206
Clinically apparent jaundice when serum bilirubin concentration is
5 mg/dl or higher
207
Most common cause of jaundice in healthy infants
Physiologic jaundice
208
Elevated conjugated bilirubin suggests
Pathologic causes
209
Dreaded complication of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemis
Kernicterus | >20 mg/dl
210
Jaundice from insufficient caloric intake
Breastfeeding jaundice
211
Presence of glucoronidase in breastmilk
Breast milk jaundice
212
Breastfeeding baby, on 3rd day of life develops jaundice | How do you advice the mother?
``` Breastfeeding jaundice Frequent breastfeeding (>10/24 hrs) ```
213
Breastfeeding baby, on 8th day of life develops jaundice | How do you advice the mother?
Breast milk jaundice | Temporary interruption of breastfeeding (2 days)
214
Most common cause of hemolytic disease of newborn
ABO incompatibility
215
Hemolytic anemia due to D antigrn
Rh incompatibility
216
Hyperbilirubinemia Increased B1 (indirect bb) Difect coombs test positive
Rh incompatibility | ABO incompatibility
217
Hyperbilirubinemia | Increased direct bb
Cholestatic jaundice Intrahepatic (sepsis, hypothyroid, prolonged tpn, galactosemia, CF, A1 antitrypsin deficiency) Extrahepatic (choledocal cys, biliary atresia)
218
A 3-day old infant is jaundiced from the head down to upper trunk. What is the estimated serum bb?
9-12
219
A newborn, 38 wks AOG, developed jaundice at 12 hrs of life. Within the next 8 hours, it spreads to mid abdomen. Careful examination revealed hepatosplenomegaly, chorioretinitis, and mild hydrocephalus. What is the estimated bb levels? What is the possible cause? Bhutani chart risk stratification? Management? Diagnostic modality and expected finding?
``` 15 mg/dl TORCH infection High risk Phototherapy CT scan - intracranial calcifications ```
220
``` Jaundice appearing between the second and third day of life in full term infants is most likely due to? A. Normal changes B. Acute hemolysis C. Sepsis neonatorum D. Erythroblastosis fetalis ```
A. Normal changes
221
Complication of phototherapy
Bronze baby syndrome with photodestruction of copper porphyrins causing retinal destruction
222
When to do exchange transfusion?
- ongoing hemolysis despite Phototherapy of 4-6 hrs - bb increases up to 25 mg/dl in 48 hrs - signs of bb encephalopathy - hydrops fetalis or anemia
223
Early signs of bilirubin encephalopathy
``` Hypertonia Arching Torticollis Opisthotonus Fever High pitched cry ```
224
RH - mother delivers RH + child | What should be done?
Injection of Anti-D gamma globulin (rhogam) after each Rh+ child
225
The most important risk factor that predisposes an infant to sepsis is?
Prematurity
226
Antibiotic of choice for gram neg sepsis
Ampi-Amik
227
IUGR BABY BORN TO A MOTHER WITH INFECTION DURING PREGNANCY | Vesicular lesions on face and mouth
HSV
228
IUGR BABY BORN TO A MOTHER WITH INFECTION DURING PREGNANCY | Purpuric lesions all over the body
Rubella
229
IUGR BABY BORN TO A MOTHER WITH INFECTION DURING PREGNANCY Maculopapular rash Imaging: periostitis of the bone
Syphilis
230
IUGR BABY BORN TO A MOTHER WITH INFECTION DURING PREGNANCY Chorioretinitis Imaging: periventricular calcifications
CMV
231
``` IUGR BABY BORN TO A MOTHER WITH INFECTION DURING PREGNANCY Chorioretinitis Microcephaly Hepatosplenomegaly Imaging: intracerebral calcifications ```
Toxoplasmosis
232
IUGR BABY BORN TO A MOTHER WITH INFECTION DURING PREGNANCY Cutaneous scars Imaging: cortical atrophy
Varicella
233
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by C. Trachomatis | Medication?
Erythromycin or ethylsuccinate | Azithromycin
234
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by N. gonorrhea | Medication?
Ceftriaxone Cefotaxime And treat also for C. trachomatis
235
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by gram positive bacteria | Medication?
Erythromycin or bacitracin ointment
236
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Gram neg bacteria | Medication?
Gentamicin, tobramycin, ciprofloxacin
237
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by herpes simplex | Medication?
Suspect if not responding to antibiotics Vidarabine, trifluridine. Iododeocyuridine Acyclovir
238
Early onset sepsis
Birth to 7 days of life
239
Late onset sepsis
Day 8 to 30
240
Most common lifethreatening infection of the GIT in neonates
Necrotizing enterocolitis
241
Triad of NEC
Intestinal ischemia Enteral nutrition Pathogen
242
Most common involved area in NEC
Distal ileum | Proximal colon
243
Histologic finding characteristic of NEC
Coagulation necrosis
244
Most common congenital infection
CMV
245
Triad of CMV congenital
Chorioretinitis Microcephaly Periventricular calcifications
246
Triad of toxoplasmosis
Chorioretinitis Hydrocephalus Intracranial calcifications
247
Leading cause of deafness in neonates
CMV
248
Most common cause of STDs
C. Trachomatis
249
Complication of erythromycin in Infants <6 wks
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis