Neoplasia Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
New growth
A
Neoplasia
2
Q
Loss of normal growth control; cells start doing their own thing, “transformed”
A
Neoplasia
3
Q
Parasitic and autonomous qualities
A
Neoplasia
4
Q
Study of neoplasms (tumors)
A
`Oncology
5
Q
What is the spectrum of neoplasia?
A
Benign -> locally aggressive -> intermediate malignant -> malignant
6
Q
What are the 2 anatomic components of tumors?
A
Parenchyma
Stroma
7
Q
Neoplastic cells; determines how a tumor is named
A
Parenchyma
8
Q
Supporting CT and vasculature
A
Stroma
9
Q
Degree of resemblance of tumor cells to parent cells
A
Differentiation
10
Q
Dedifferentiated or undifferentiated
A
Anaplasia
11
Q
More resemblance between tumor cells and parent cells
A
Well differentiated (“low grade”)
12
Q
Little resemblance between tumor cells and parent cells
A
Poorly differentiated (“high grade”)
13
Q
What does increased/abnormal DNA replication lead to (“poorly differentiated”)?
A
Pleomorphism
Nuclear hyperchromatism
Increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
Atypical nuclei
Numerous and atypical mitoses
Prominent nucleoli
13
Q
What is seen under the microscope in precancerous epithelial tissues undergoing dysplasia?
A
Disorderly maturation, pleomorphism, mitotic activity
13
Q
A microscopic, potentially reversible, altered growth or maturation pattern
A
Dysplasia
13
Q
Dysplastic changes involving the full thickness of the epithelium
A
Carcinoma in-situ
14
Q
In epithelial tissues (cervix, oral mucosa), it is precancerous and may progress to malignancy
A
Dysplasia
15
Q
In bone lesions, it does NOT imply a precancerous state, just altered growth
A
Dysplasia
16
Q
Arises from surface epithelium (Squamous-
skin, larynx, tongue; Transitional- bladder,
ureter, renal pelvis)
A
Papilloma
16
Q
Still a pre-invasive (precancerous) state, so
not cancer
A
Carcinoma in-situ
16
Q
Benign tumor of glandular epithelium; can have many variants
A
Adenoma
16
Q
Known as the most advanced stage of dysplasia
A
Carcinoma in-situ
17
Q
Named for appearance- finger-like epithelial
projections overlying cores of vascular fibrous CT
A
Papilloma
17
Q
Characterized by adenomatous papillary processes that extend into cystic spaces, as in cystadenoma of the ovary
A
Papillary cystadenoma
17
Clinical appearance, anatomic site, or cell type (root word) + “oma”
Benign epithelial tumors
18
Most often named by tissue of origin
Benign mesenchymal
18
Fibrous tissue (benign mesenchymal)
Fibroma
18
Disorganized tissue at unexpected site (non-neoplastic)
Choristoma
19
Skeletal muscle (benign mesenchymal)
Rhabdomyoma
19
Root word anatomically or cellularly + “Carcinoma”
Malignant epithelial
19
What are the notable malignant -oma exceptions?
Lymphoma
Melanoma
Mesothelioma
Seminoma
Glioblastoma
Hepatoma
19
Cartilaginous (benign mesenchymal)
Chondroma
19
Bone (benign mesenchymal)
Osteoma
19
Smooth muscle (benign mesenchymal)
Leiomyoma
19
Fat (benign mesenchymal)
Lipoma
19
Pleomorphic adenoma (salivary), fibroadenoma (breast)- only fibrous portion is neoplastic
Benign mixed tumors
19
Vessels (benign mesenchymal)
Angioma
20
Synonym of malignant
Cancer
20
A mass that projects above a mucosal surface
Polyp
20
Neoplasm with cells derived from more than 1 germ layer, totipotent cells
Teratoma
20
Disorganized tissue native to the site (non-neoplastic generally)
Hamartoma
20
What are the notable non-neoplastic -oma exceptions?
Granuloma (group of macrophages)
Hematoma (bruise)
20
From squamous epithelium (skin, mouth, esophagus, vagina) or areas of squamous metaplasia (bronchi or cervix)
Squamous cell carcinoma
21
Marked by production of keratin
Squamous cell carcinoma
22
From urinary tract epithelium
Transitional cell carcinoma
23
Glandular origin; includes tumors of GI, mucosa, endometrium, pancreas
Adenocarcinoma
23
The root word anatomically/cellularly +
“Sarcoma
Malignant mesenchymal
24
Often shows desmoplasia
Adenocarcinoma
25
Cartilaginous (malignant mesenchymal)
Chondrosarcoma
25
Fibrous (malignant mesenchymal)
Fibrosarcoma
25
Smooth muscle (malignant mesenchymal)
Leiomyosarcoma
26
Bone (malignant mesenchymal)
Osteosarcoma
26
Skeletal muscle (malignant mesenchymal)
Rhabdomyosarcoma
27
Vessels (malignant mesenchymal)
Angiosarcoma
27
Which one is correctly matched?
a. chondroma, non-neoplastic collection of tissue not native to the site
b. angioma, malignant tumor of blood vessels
c. pleomorphic adenoma, a high-grade malignancy of glandular epithelium
d. rhabdomyoma, benign tumor of skeletal muscle
d. rhabdomyoma, benign tumor of skeletal muscle
28
Fat (malignant mesenchymal)
Liposarcoma
29
Burkitt lymphoma
Hodgkin disease/lymphoma
Wilm’s tumor
Eponyms
30
Name some words often added to describe variants of a tumor’s appearance under the microscope
Cystic, papillary, tubular, solid, etc
31
Benign or malignant?
Clinical presentation:
Non-cancerous
Slow growing
Local, does not spread, may cause local damage
Surgically removable
Survivable - good prognosis
Benign
32
Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth is slow (months to years)
Benign
32
Benign or malignant?
Clinical presentation:
Cancerous
Rapid growth
Invade and destroy adjacent tissue
Metastasis = defining feature
Can cause death - poor prognosis
Malignant
33
Benign or malignant?
Microscopic:
Well-differentiated
Normal mitoses
Encapsulation
Benign
34
What is the hallmark of malignancy?
Metastasis
34
Benign or malignant?
Microscopic:
Well to poorly differentiated (or anaplastic)
Atypical mitoses
Non-encapsulated
Malignant
35
Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth affected by hormones, blood supply, pressure constraints
Benign
36
Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth is variable, may be rapid
Malignant
36
Benign or malignant?
Local invasion is destructive and no capsule
Malignant
36
Benign or malignant?
Rate of growth may outgrow blood supply, leading to necrosis
Malignant
36
Benign or malignant?
Local invasion beyond anatomic tissue boundaries
Malignant
36
Benign or malignant?
Local invasion capsule at periphery
Benign
37
Benign or malignant?
Crosses over anatomical boundaries (ex: nose up to brain)
Malignant
37
What percentage of newly diagnosed malignant tumors have clinically evident metastases?
30% (early detection is important!)
37
What does the capacity of metastasis depend on?
Tumor type
37
In what ways does malignancy spread?
Seeding in body cavities
Lymphatic spread
Hematogenous (blood) spread
Paths of least resistance
38
What type of malignancy spread?
Ovarian cancer
Seeding in body cavities
38
What type of malignancy spread?
Lung and liver are common vsecondary sites
Hematogenous (blood) spread
38
More anaplastic, larger tumor = _______ likely to spread
more
38
What type of malignancy spread?
Sarcomas
Hematogenous (blood) spread
38
What type of malignancy spread?
Batson’s venous plexus - along vertebral column, potential spread to jaw
Path of least resistance
38
What type of malignancy spread?
Carcinomas
Lymphatic spread
39
What type of malignancy spread?
Neural spread
Path of least resistance
40
What are the steps of neoplasm formation?
Initiation
Promotion
Progression
40
Genetic changes are heritable with the
accumulation of mutations leading to
characteristic features of cancer; however,
actual inherited cancers are ____________
infrequent
40
Cancer is a _________ disorder- mostly from acquired random mutations during regular ______ ___________ (Bad luck!) or from environmental exposure
genetic; cell division
41
Cancer is a _____________ process. It does not just happen from one time of “bad luck”
multi-step
41
What step of neoplasm formation?
Carcinogen exposure causing genetic damage and single cell (“monoclonal”) growth
Initiation
42
Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Increase growth
Proto-oncogenes
43
What step of neoplasm formation?
Additional genetic damage over time leads to heterogenous population of cells (visible clinically)
Promotion
43
Name 3 carcinogens that can cause a neoplasm to form
Chemicals
Radiant energy
Microbial agents (ex: viruses like HPV, EBV)
43
What step of neoplasm formation?
Evolution and selection of more aggressive tumors capable of metastasis that are less responsive to treatment
Progression
44
Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill cells with unrepaired genetic damage
Tumor cell/host cell interaction genes
44
What kind of cancers do children usually get?
Leukemia, lymphoma, sarcoma, CNS tumor
44
What are the 4 major classes of cancer genes that control growth?
Proto-oncogenes
Tumor suppressor genes
Apoptosis regulation genes
Tumor cell/host cell interaction genes
45
Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Stop cell growth and help in DNA repair
Tumor suppressor genes
45
What is the classic example of a tumor suppressor gene?
TP53 (aka p53)
46
Which major class of cancer genes that control growth?
Determine cell death
Apoptosis regulation genes
46
Name the 4 hallmarks of cancer highlighted in class
Self-sufficiency in growth signals (oncogenes)
Insensitivity to growth inhibition (tumor suppressor genes)
Evasion of apoptosis (apoptosis regulation genes)
Evasion of immune system (tumor cell/host interaction genes)
47
The immune system (cell-mediated) helps prevent what?
Tumor formation/progression
47
Has the overall death rate increased or decreased?
Decreased (less smoking, earlier detection, better tx)
47
What is the evidence that the immune system helps prevent tumor formation and progression?
Increased frequency of cancer in immunocompromised (ex: congenital, transplant, AIDS)
48
What is the target and indication of Herceptin?
Target = HER2/neu
Indication = breast cancer
48
Uses endogenous or synthetic substances to improve or restore immune system function to fight cancer
Immunotherapy
48
What is the target and indication of Rituximab?
Target = CD20
Indication = B-NHL
49
What is the target and indication of Certuximab?
Target = EGFR
Indication = Head, neck, oral cancer
49
Has the overall incidence rate increased or decreased for women and men?
Increased for women
Stable for men
49
What does epidemiology help with?
Preventing and reducing disease burden
Improving tx
Reducing cost
Predicting needs for resource allocation
49
The majority of cancers are inherited.
About 1/3 of newly diagnosed malignancies have already metastasized.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
50
Studying who (Age, gender) gets a tumor,
where they live (environmental risk
factors) and their family (genetic factors,
acquired predisposing conditions) helps identify etiology and pathogenesis
Epidemiology
50
The branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health
Epidemiology
51
What can help identify cancer risk factors?
Studying populations, habits, diets, and environmental exposures
52
Which state has the highest incidence of new cancer cases and deaths in the US?
KY
52
Name environmental exposures that are associated with increased cancer risk
Occupational
Chronic sun exposure
Smoking
Alcohol
Obesity
Oncogenic viruses (HPV)
53
T/F: Older people are more likely to get cancer
TRUE
54
What should you closely follow for early cancer detection?
Precursor (precancer/premalignant) lesions
54
Risk for?
Oral, vulvar, and penile leukoplakia
Risk for squamous cell carcinoma
55
Risk for?
Smoking induced squamous metaplasia
Dysplasia of bronchial mucosa
Risk for bronchogenic carcinoma
55
Risk for?
Endometrial hyperplasia and dysplasia
Risk for endometrial carcinoma
56
Risk for?
Villous adenoma of colon
Risk for colorectal carcinoma
57
Are benign tumors premalignant?
Generally no
58
Symptoms not related to tumor spread or hormone production
Paraneoplastic syndromes
59
Name the tumor effects on host
Location is crucial
Hormone production
Bleeding + infedction
Intestinal complications
60
Affects 10-15% of cancer patients
Paraneoplastic syndromes
61
May indicate underlying neoplasm
Paraneoplastic syndromes
62
Can be lethal and can mimic metastatic disease
Paraneoplastic syndromes
63
Diverse and associated with many tumors
Paraneoplastic syndromes
64
Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Progressive loss of body fat and lead body mass with weakness, anorexia, and anemia
Cachexia
64
Name the 4 Paraneoplastic syndromes
Cachexia
Hypercalcemia
Cushing syndrome
Hypercoagulability
65
Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
High metabolic rate
Cachexia
65
Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Caused by tumor and host cytokines, not due to tumor’s nutritional demands
Cachexia
66
Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Due to release of PTHrP, TGF-a (activates osteoclasts and active vitamin D)
Hypercalcemia
67
Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Ectopic ACTH production
Cushing syndrome
68
Which Paraneoplastic syndrome?
Venous thrombosis and nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
Hypercoagulability
69
Estimates aggressiveness based on cytologic differentiation
Grading
69
Goes from I - IV in order of increasing anaplasia
Grading
70
Which has greater clinical value, grading or staging?
Staging
71
Size of primary tumor and extent of regional and distant spread
Staging
71
What does TNM system measure/stand for?
T = tumor size (1-4)
N = regional nodal involvement (0-3)
M = metastasis (0,1)
72
TNM system
Staging
73
AJC system (0-IV)
Staging
74
Describe the diagnostic process
Chief complaint/history/exam
Analyze and form differential dx
Gather more data (imaging, bloodwork, biopsy)
Final dx
Tx
Re-eval, analyze
75
What is required for a lab diagnosis of cancer?
Detailed clinical findings
Adequate, representative, properly preserved biopsy
76
What do you put biopsied samples in?
Formalin
77
What are the sampling approaches?
Cytologic smear
Biopsy
78
What are the 2 types of cytologic smears?
Direct scraping
Fine needle aspiration
79
Which type of cytologic smear?
Good for superficial fungal and herpes infections
Direct scraping
80
Which type of cytologic smear?
Good for readily palpable lesions (breast, thyroid, lymph node, salivary gland)
Fine needle aspiration
81
Which sampling approach?
Incisional (part of the tissue) or excisional (all abnormal tissue)
Biopsy
82
____________ assistance ensures accurate sampling for internal lesions. Name a few examples
Ex: mammogram-guided, CT-guided, ultrasound-guided
83
Routine samples are _________ fixed and embedded in paraffin wax (FFPE) for routine H&E staining.
This same tissue block can later be used for additional ______-based molecular tests (FISH, IHC, PCR etc.)
formalin; DNA
84
Useful to determine the cellular differentiation of poorly differentiated tumor cells
Immunohistochemistry
85
Useful in diagnosis of lymphomas to determine lineage (B or T cell) and differentiation stage and in treatment of B-cell lymphomas
Immunohistochemistry
86
Requires fresh tissue (no formalin!)
Flow cytometry
87
Helps classify leukemia and lymphoma
Flow cytometry
88
What are the serologic markers for tumors?
PSA
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Alpha-fetoprotein
89
Which serologic marker for tumors?
Low sensitivity and low specificity
PSA
90
Which serologic marker for tumors?
Cancers of colon, pancreas, stomach, and breast
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
91
Which serologic marker for tumors?
Hepatocellular carcinomas, yolk sac remnants
Alpha-fetoprotein
92
Which serologic marker for tumors?
Not good for early detection, but GREAT for detecting reccurrences
PSA, CEA, and alpha-fetoprotein
93
Uses body fluids that contain tumor cells or their products for screening, detecting, and monitoring cancer
Liquid biopsy
94
Can detect monoclonality in lymphoid malignancies
PCR
95
Translocations and gene amplification
FISH/PCR
96
Name the 4 molecular techniques for molecular diagnosis
Prognostic and therapeutic monitoring
Residual disease
Hereditary predisposition (BRCA 1)
Targeted therapy
97
Which molecular technique?
Tumors from different sites with similar mutations can be given similar drugs
Targeted therapy
98
Rapid sequencing on entire genome
Genomics
99
Can identify driver and passenger mutations that help target treatment
Genomics
100
Epigenetic modifications genome-wide
Epigenomics
101
Microarray quantifies all RNAs expressed
Transcriptomics
102
Measure all proteins simultaneously
Proteomics
103
Test all of the cell’s metabolites
Metabolomics
104
T/F: RNA is easier to work with than DNA
FALSE, DNA is easier to work with
105
Currently developing methods to sequence several hundred _____ _________ to detect mutations in as few as 5% of tumor cells
key genes
106
Used to identify changes in DNA copy number
DNA arrays
107
In the future, may be used to predict drug efficacy
Epigenomics
108
In the future of cancer diagnostics, there will be a paradigm shift to classify tumors based on _____________ and associated therapeutic _________, rather than on morphology or cell origin
mutation; targets
109
Optimal diagnosis and management combines what?
Histopathology + molecular diagnostic techniques
