Neoplasia 3 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

List the 4 carcinomas accounting for over half of all new cancers in the UK

A

Breast, Lung, Bowel, Prostrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of malignant neoplasms are diagnosed in people over 65? Under 24?

A

Over 65 = 60%

Under 24 = 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the most common cancers in children under 14?

A

Leukaemias, central nervous system tumours and lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Despite a low incidence in the UK, pancreatic cancer accounts for a large percentage of deaths in cancer patients, explain why?

A

Pancreatic cancer has a very poor 5 year survival rate so despite a low incidence, the majority of patients diagnosed with the disease results in mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the cancers with the best and worst five year survival rates

A

Best- Testicular, melanoma and breast

Worst- Pancreatic, lung and oesophageal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which factors must be considered when predicting the outcome of cancer?

A
  • Age
  • general health status
  • tumour type
  • the grade (differentiation)
  • tumour stage
  • availability of effective treatments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is tumour stage?

A

Measure of the malignant neoplasm’s overall burden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is tumour stage measured?

A

Most common method is the TNM staging system

T- refers to the size of the primary tumour (T1-T4)

N- describes the extent of the regional node metastasis e.g. N0- N3

M- denotes the extent of the metastatic spread e.g. M0- M1
The T, N and M are then converted into a stage I to IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the T1 to T4 stages from the TNM classification for breast cancer

A
T1= less than 2 cm
T2= 2cm-5cm 
T3= greater than 5cm
T4= local spread
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the special system for Lymphoma staging?

A

Ann Arbor staging

I= single node region

II= indicates two separate regions on same side of diaphragm

III= indicates spread to both sides of diaphragm

IV= indicates diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extra-lymphatic organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What special system is used for colorectal carcinoma?

A

Dukes staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which grading system is used for breast carcinoma and what does the system assess?

A

Bloom-Richardson

Assesses tubule formation, nuclear variation and number of mitoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does grading differ from staging?

A

Grading measures the level of differentiation whereas staging measures the amount of tumour present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the main forms of cancer treatment?

A

Surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, hormone therapy, treatment targeted to specific molecular alterations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is adjuvant treatment?

A

Given after surgical removal of a primary tumour to eliminate subclinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is neoadjuvant treatment?

A

Treatment given to reduce the size of a primary tumour before surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does radiotherapy kill cells?

A
  • Kills rapidly dividing cells especially in G2 of cell cycle
  • High dosage causes either direct or free radical induced damage to DNA which is detected by cell cycle check points and so triggers apoptosis to occur
  • Double-stranded DNA breakages also produced damaged chromosomes that prevent M phase in mitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the different classes of chemotherapy drugs?

A
  • Antimetabolites
  • Alkylating and platinum-based drugs
  • Antibiotics
  • Plant Derived drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do antimetabolites work?

A

Mimic normal substrates involved in DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do alkylating and platinum-based drugs work?

A

Cross-link the two strands of the DNA helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do antibiotics work?

A

Act in several different ways

For example doxorubicin inhibits DNA topoisomerase needed for DNA synthesis whereas bleomycin causes double-stranded DNA breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do plant derived drugs work?

A

Block microtubule assembly and interfere with mitotic spindle formation

23
Q

Give an example of hormone therapy treatment and how it works

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) e.g. tamoxifen bind to oestrogen receptors and prevent oestrogen binding

Used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancer

24
Q

What are tumour markers?

A

Various substances that are released into the circulation by cancer cells that allow for monitoring of cancer burden

Examples include: hormones, oncofetal antigens, specific proteins and mucins/glycoproteins

25
List the tumour markers for choricocarcinoma, yolk sac tumours, colon cancer and prostate cancer
Choricocarcinoma- HCG Yolk sac- AFP Colon- CEA Prostate- PSA
26
What is cancer screening?
Involves looking for early signs of disease in healthy people so can detect cancers as early as possible when the chance of curing is highest
27
What are the problems with cancer screening?
Lead time bias (detect cancer 5 years earlier that without the screening programme despite the mortality meaning that they will die anyway) Length bias (screening programmes are more likely to pick up slow growing tumours with better prognosis) Over diagnosis (cancer unlikely to cause problems)
28
List the current ages, time intervals and tests used in UK screening programmes for cervix, breast and colorectal cancer
Cervix- women aged 24 to 65, 24-49 year olds are screened every 3 years by a smear test whereas women aged 50-65 are screened every 5 years Breast- women aged 47 to 73 are screened every 3 years Colorectal- women and men aged 60-69 are screened every 2 years by sending a FOB blood test home to check for blood in the stools
29
HPV is a cause of cervical cancer. Which two other types of cancer are associated with this virus?
Anal and Penile cancers
30
How does familial adenomatous polyposis and HNPCC differ?
FAP- begins as more than 100 benign polyps in large bowel due to inherited mutation in ANP gene, can become cancerous by the adenocarcinoma sequence HNPCC- due to inherited mutations to the MSH2 and MLH1 genes
31
Which type of cancer can be caused due to mutations in the RB1 gene, other than retinoblastoma?
Osteosarcoma
32
Mutations to BRAC2 gene can cause which form of cancer in males?
Male breast cancer
33
How can breast cancer be treated by cancer therapy targeting specific oncogenes?
Over-expression of HER-2 gene can be blocked by the drug Herceptin
34
How can chronic myeloid leukaemia be treated by cancer therapy targeting specific oncogenes?
Chromosomal rearrangement seen in the disease whereby an abnormal Philidelphia chromosome is produced, codes for an oncogenic fusion protein BCR-ABL Imatinib drug can inhibit the fusion protein formed
35
Describe the steps of Duke staging?
A - inner lining of the bowel B - invaded muscle C - invaded nearby lymph nodes D - cancer metastasized
36
What reason do we measure the blood for tumour markers?
To diagnose and to monitor the progress of treatment
37
What cancer is cancer antigen 125 seen elevated in?
ovarian
38
Which cell is high in hodgkins lymphoma?
Reed Sternberg cell Eosinophils
39
What cancer is alpha fetoprotein seen high in?
Liver, testes and ovaries
40
Why is radiation given to people in fractionated doses?
Fractionated to limit damage to normal tissues
41
In the grading system, what would a grade 4 indicate?
anaplastic or undifferentiated
42
What is androgen blockade used for?
prostate cancer
43
What did chemicals such as 2-napthylamine teach us about carcinogens?
- There is a long delay (sometimes decades) between carcinogen exposure and malignant neoplasm onset - The risk of cancer depends on total carcinogen dosage - There is sometimes organ specificity for particular carcinogens, e.g. 2-napthylamine causes bladder carcinoma.
44
What did the Ames test show?
- Initiators are mutagens | - Promoters cause prolonged proliferation in target tissues
45
How do pro-carcinogens become carcinogens?
Converted by the cytochrome 450 enzyme in the liver
46
How does HPV infection lead to cancer?
It expresses the E6 and E7 proteins that inhibit p53 and pRB protein function respectively, both of which are important in cell proliferation - direct carcinogen
47
How can the two hit hypothesis be explained?
Both tumour suppressor genes must be inactivated to enhance neoplastic growth
48
Name a condition that arises from inefficient nucleotide excision repair and why does this occur?
Xeroderma Pigmentosum Nucleotide instability
49
Name a condition that arises from inefficient mismatch repair and why does this occur?
Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) Microsatellite instability
50
Name a condition that arises from inefficient double strand breakrepair and why does this occur?
Breast/ ovarian cancer Chromosomal instability
51
Cancer mutations affect 6 hallmark cellular behaviours, what are they?
1 - Self-sufficiency in growth signals 2 - Resistance to growth stop signals 3- No limit on the number of times a cell can divide (cell immortalisation) 4 - Sustained ability to induce new blood vessels (angiogenesis) 5 - Resistance to apoptosis 6 - The ability to invade and produce metastases
52
What are the 4 most common cancers that make up 54% of al cancer?
Breast - 15% Lung - 13% Prostate - 13% Bowel - 13%
53
What cancers have the worst survival rates?
Pancreas - 3% Lung - 10% Oesophagus - 15% Brain - 19%
54
In TMN staging, what do each of the letters correspond to?
T - size of primary tumour N - Extent of nodal metastases M - the extent of distant metastatic spread