Nephrology Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of transient non-visible haematuria

A

urinary tract infection
menstruation
vigorous exercise (this normally settles after around 3 days)
sexual intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of persistent non-visible haematuria

A

cancer (bladder, renal, prostate)
stones
benign prostatic hyperplasia
prostatitis
urethritis e.g. Chlamydia
renal causes: IgA nephropathy, thin basement membrane disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management of haematuria

A

urine dipstick is the test of choice for detecting haematuria

renal function, albumin:creatinine (ACR) or protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) and blood pressure should also be checked

urine microscopy may be used but time to analysis significantly affects the number of red blood cells detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

definition of persistent non-visible haematuria

A

blood being present in 2 out of 3 samples tested 2-3 weeks apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when should haematuria be referred on to secondary care?

A

urgent:
Aged >= 45 years AND:
unexplained visible haematuria without UTI, or
visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of UTI

Aged >= 60 years AND have unexplained nonvisible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test

non-urgent:
Aged 60 >= 60 years with recurrent or persistent unexplained urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causes of polyuria

A

Common (>1 in 10)
diuretics, caffeine & alcohol
diabetes mellitus
lithium
heart failure

Infrequent (1 in 100)
hypercalcaemia
hyperthyroidism

Rare (1 in 1000)
chronic renal failure
primary polydipsia
hypokalaemia

Very rare (<1 in 10 000)
diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

Normal anion gap ( = hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis)
gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss: diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula
renal tubular acidosis
drugs: e.g. acetazolamide
ammonium chloride injection
Addison’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

causes of raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

Raised anion gap
lactate: shock, hypoxia
ketones: diabetic ketoacidosis, alcohol
urate: renal failure
acid poisoning: salicylates, methanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is due mainly to problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract

Causes
vomiting / aspiration (e.g. peptic ulcer leading to pyloric stenos, nasogastric suction)
diuretics
liquorice, carbenoxolone
hypokalaemia
primary hyperaldosteronism
Cushing’s syndrome
Bartter’s syndrome
congenital adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

causes of respiratory acidosis

A

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by a number of conditions
COPD
decompensation in other respiratory conditions e.g. life-threatening asthma / pulmonary oedema
sedative drugs: benzodiazepines, opiate overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of respiratory alkalosis

A

Common causes
anxiety leading to hyperventilation
pulmonary embolism
salicylate poisoning
CNS disorders: stroke, subarachnoid haemorrhage, encephalitis
altitude
pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

minimal change disease

membranous glomerulonephropathy

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

amyloidosis

diabetic nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

definition of nephrotic syndrome

A

Triad of:
1. Proteinuria (> 3g/24hr) causing
2. Hypoalbuminaemia (< 30g/L) and
3. Oedema

Loss of antithrombin-III, proteins C and S and an associated rise in fibrinogen levels predispose to thrombosis. Loss of thyroxine-binding globulin lowers the total, but not free, thyroxine levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

definition of nephritic syndrome

A

haematuria, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

causes of nephritic syndrome

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephrosis

IgA nephropathy

Alport syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is acute interstitial nephritis

A

fever, rash, arthralgia
eosinophilia
mild renal impairment
hypertension

Pathophysiology
histology: marked interstitial oedema and interstitial infiltrate in the connective tissue between renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

causes of acute interstitial nephritis

A

drugs: the most common cause, particularly antibiotics
penicillin
rifampicin
NSAIDs
allopurinol
furosemide
systemic disease: SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjögren’s syndrome
infection: Hanta virus , staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

common findings in acute interstitial nephritis

A

Investigations
sterile pyuria
white cell casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

main differences between AKI and CKD

A

renal ultrasound - most patients with CKD have bilateral small kidneys.

Exceptions to this rule include:
autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
diabetic nephropathy (early stages)
amyloidosis
HIV-associated nephropathy

Other features suggesting CKD rather than AKI
hypocalcaemia (due to lack of vitamin D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

definition of AKI

A

a rise in serum creatinine of 26 micromol/litre or greater within 48 hours

a 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days

a fall in urine output to less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours in adults and more than 8 hours in children

> = 25% fall in eGFR in children / young adults in 7 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

causes of AKI

A

prerenal
hypovolaemia secondary to diarrhoea/vomiting
renal artery stenosis

intrinsic
The second group of causes relate to intrinsic damage to the glomeruli, renal tubules or interstitium of the kidneys themselves. This may be due to toxins (drugs, contrast etc) or immune-mediated glomuleronephritis.

glomerulonephritis
acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
acute interstitial nephritis (AIN), respectively
rhabdomyolysis
tumour lysis syndrome

postrenal
obstruction to the urine coming from the kidneys resulting in things ‘backing-up’ and affecting the normal renal function
kidney stone in ureter or bladder
benign prostatic hyperplasia
external compression of the ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

signs of AKI

A

Many patients with early AKI may experience no symptoms. However, as renal failure progresses the following may be seen:
reduced urine output
pulmonary and peripheral oedema
arrhythmias (secondary to changes in potassium and acid-base balance)
features of uraemia (for example, pericarditis or encephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

findings in AKI

A

Urinalysis
all patients with suspected AKI should have urinalysis

Imaging
if patients have no identifiable cause for the deterioration or are at risk of urinary tract obstruction they should have a renal ultrasound within 24 hours of assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

drugs to stop in AKI

A
  • NSAIDs (except if aspirin at cardiac dose e.g. 75mg od)
  • Aminoglycosides
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
  • Diuretics

may need to stop:
* Metformin
* Lithium
* Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
treating AKI
supportive management - careful fluid balance to ensure that the kidneys are properly perfused but not excessively to avoid fluid overload review a patient's medication list treating hyperkalaemia All patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist. Renal replacement therapy (e.g. haemodialysis) is used when a patient is not responding to medical treatment of complications, for example hyperkalaemia, pulmonary oedema, acidosis or uraemia (e.g. pericarditis, encephalopathy).
26
treatments for hyperkalaemia
treating hyperkalaemia IV calcium gluconate - stabilisation of cardiac membrane short term EC to IC shift * Combined insulin/dextrose infusion * Nebulised salbutamol removal of K+ from body * Calcium resonium (orally or enema) * Loop diuretics * Dialysis
27
stages of AKI
Stage 1 Increase in creatinine to 1.5-1.9 times baseline, or Increase in creatinine by ≥26.5 µmol/L, or Reduction in urine output to <0.5 mL/kg/hour for ≥ 6 hours Stage 2 Increase in creatinine to 2.0 to 2.9 times baseline, or Reduction in urine output to <0.5 mL/kg/hour for ≥12 hours Stage 3 Increase in creatinine to ≥ 3.0 times baseline, or Increase in creatinine to ≥353.6 µmol/L or Reduction in urine output to <0.3 mL/kg/hour for ≥24 hours, or The initiation of kidney replacement therapy, or, In patients <18 years, decrease in eGFR to <35 mL/min/1.73 m2
28
diagnostic criteria for ADPKD
The screening investigation for relatives is abdominal ultrasound: Ultrasound diagnostic criteria (in patients with positive family history) two cysts, unilateral or bilateral, if aged < 30 years two cysts in both kidneys if aged 30-59 years four cysts in both kidneys if aged > 60 years
29
managing ADPKD
tolvaptan (vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist) may be an option. NICE recommended it as an option for treating ADPKD in adults to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency only if: they have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment there is evidence of rapidly progressing disease and the company provides it with the discount agreed in the patient access scheme.
30
what is ADPKD
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is the most common inherited cause of kidney disease, affecting 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. Two disease loci have been identified, PKD1 and PKD2, which code for polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively ADPKD type 1 - 85% cases, chr16, presents with renal failure earlier ADPKD type 2 - 15% cases, chr4
31
what are the features (and extra-renal features) of ADPKD
hypertension recurrent UTIs flank pain haematuria palpable kidneys renal impairment renal stones Extra-renal manifestations liver cysts (70% - the commonest extra-renal manifestation): may cause hepatomegaly berry aneurysms (8%): rupture can cause subarachnoid haemorrhage cardiovascular system: mitral valve prolapse, mitral/tricuspid incompetence, aortic root dilation, aortic dissection cysts in other organs: pancreas, spleen; very rarely: thyroid, oesophagus, ovary
32
what is Alport's syndrome
X-linked dominant pattern defect in gene coding for type IV collagen - causes abnormal glomerular basement membrane more severe in males
33
how is Alport syndrome diagnosed
molecular genetic testing renal biopsy electron microscopy: characteristic finding is of the longitudinal splitting of the lamina densa of the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in a 'basket-weave' appearance
34
what are the features of Alport syndrome
Alport's syndrome usually presents in childhood. The following features may be seen: microscopic haematuria progressive renal failure bilateral sensorineural deafness lenticonus: protrusion of the lens surface into the anterior chamber retinitis pigmentosa renal biopsy: splitting of lamina densa seen on electron microscopy
35
what is amyloidosis
extracellular deposition of an insoluble fibrillar protein termed amyloid the accumulation of amyloid fibrils leads to tissue/organ dysfunction can be systemic or localized further characterised by precursor protein (e.g. AL in myeloma - A for Amyloid, L for immunoglobulin Light chain fragments)
36
how is amyloidosis diagnosed
Congo red staining: apple-green birefringence serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat
37
what is the anion gap
The anion gap is calculated by: (sodium + potassium) - (bicarbonate + chloride) A normal anion gap is 8-14 mmol/L
38
what causes a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
lactate: shock, hypoxia ketones: diabetic ketoacidosis, alcohol urate: renal failure acid poisoning: salicylates, methanol 5-oxoproline: chronic paracetamol use
39
what causes a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss: diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula renal tubular acidosis drugs: e.g. acetazolamide ammonium chloride injection Addison's disease
40
what is anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease
Rare type of small-vessel vasculitis associated with both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis caused by anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies against type IV collagen more common in men (sex ratio 2:1) and has a bimodal age distribution (peaks in 20-30 and 60-70 age bracket) associated with HLA DR2
41
what are some features of anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease
pulmonary haemorrhage rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis this typically results in a rapid onset acute kidney injury nephritis → proteinuria + haematuria
42
what are the investigation findings for anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease
renal biopsy: linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane raised transfer factor secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages
43
how is anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease managed
plasma exchange (plasmapheresis) steroids cyclophosphamide
44
what is an arteriovenous fistula
direct connections between arteries and veins. They may occur pathologically but are generally formed surgically to allow access for haemodialysis. preferred method of access for haemodialysis due to the lower rates of complications. The time taken for an arteriovenous fistula to develop is 6 to 8 weeks
45
what are some complications of arteriovenous fistulas
infection thrombosis may be detected by the absence of a bruit stenosis may present with acute limb pain steal syndrome
46
how does CKD cause anaemia
usually a normochromic normocytic anaemia and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min reduced erythropoietin levels → diminished red blood cell production reduced absorption of iron (due to high hepcidin, leading to reduced iron absorption) reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow anorexia/nausea due to uraemia reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis) blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss
47
how is anaemia in CKD managed
target haemoglobin of 10 - 12 g/dl determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out prior to the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within 3 months then patients should be switched to IV iron
48
what are the bone issues in CKD
low vitamin D (1-alpha hydroxylation normally occurs in the kidneys) high phosphate low calcium: due to lack of vitamin D, high phosphate secondary hyperparathyroidism: due to low calcium, high phosphate and low vitamin D Osteitis fibrosa cystica aka hyperparathyroid bone disease Osteomalacia due to low vitamin D Osteosclerosis Osteoporosis
49
causes of CKD
diabetic nephropathy chronic glomerulonephritis chronic pyelonephritis hypertension adult polycystic kidney disease
50
how to stage CKD
CKD may be classified according to GFR: 1 Greater than 90 ml/min, with some sign of kidney damage on other tests (if all the kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD) 2 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage (if kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD) 3a 45-59 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function 3b 30-44 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function 4 15-29 ml/min, a severe reduction in kidney function 5 Less than 15 ml/min, established kidney failure - dialysis or a kidney transplant may be needed
51
features of CKD
Chronic kidney disease is usually asymptomatic and is generally diagnosed following abnormal urea and electrolyte results. However, some patients with undetected late-stage disease may become symptomatic. Possible features include: oedema: e.g. ankle swelling, weight gain polyuria lethargy pruritus (secondary to uraemia) anorexia, which may result in weight loss insomnia nausea and vomiting hypertension
52
treating HTN in CKD
ACEi - first line, help in proteinuric renal disease reduces filtration pressure therefore causes a lower GFT and high creatinine Furosemide - useful when the GFR falls to below 45 ml/min*. It has the added benefit of lowering serum potassium
53
mineral bone disease in CKD
1-alpha hydroxylation normally occurs in the kidneys → CKD leads to low vitamin D the kidneys normally excrete phosphate → CKD leads to high phosphate the high phosphate level 'drags' calcium from the bones, resulting in osteomalacia low calcium: due to lack of vitamin D, high phosphate secondary hyperparathyroidism: due to low calcium, high phosphate and low vitamin D
54
how to manage mineral bone disease in CKD
reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management phosphate binders vitamin D: alfacalcidol, calcitriol parathyroidectomy may be needed in some cases
55
what is diabetes insipidus
decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI) causes polyuria and polydipsia
56
causes of cranial DI
idiopathic post head injury pituitary surgery craniopharyngiomas infiltrative histiocytosis X sarcoidosis DIDMOAD is the association of cranial Diabetes Insipidus, Diabetes Mellitus, Optic Atrophy and Deafness (also known as Wolfram's syndrome) haemochromatosis
57
causes of nephrogrenic DI
genetic: more common form affects the vasopression (ADH) receptor less common form results from a mutation in the gene that encodes the aquaporin 2 channel electrolytes hypercalcaemia hypokalaemia lithium lithium desensitizes the kidney's ability to respond to ADH in the collecting ducts demeclocycline tubulo-interstitial disease: obstruction, sickle-cell, pyelonephritis
58
how to test for diabetes insipidus
high plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality a urine osmolality of >700 mOsm/kg excludes diabetes insipidus water deprivation test
59
how to manage diabetes insipidus
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus thiazides low salt/protein diet central diabetes insipidus can be treated with desmopressin
60
how to manage diabetic nephropathy
dietary protein restriction tight glycaemic control BP control: aim for < 130/80 mmHg ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be start if urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more dual therapy with ACE inhibitors and angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should not be started control dyslipidaemia e.g. Statins
61
what is fanconi syndrome
generalised reabsorptive disorder of renal tubular transport in the proximal convoluted tubule resulting in: type 2 (proximal) renal tubular acidosis polyuria aminoaciduria glycosuria phosphaturia osteomalacia
62
causes of fanconi syndrome
cystinosis (most common cause in children) Sjogren's syndrome multiple myeloma nephrotic syndrome Wilson's disease
63
what is fibromuscular dysplasia
renal artery stenosis secondary to artherosclerosis causes 90% of renal vascular disease fibromuscular dysplasia - causes the other 10% usually affects females features of fibromuscular dysplasia: hypertension chronic kidney disease or more acute renal failure e.g. secondary to ACE-inhibitor initiation 'flash' pulmonary oedema
64
fluid prescribing requirements in adults
25-30 ml/kg/day of water and approximately 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium and chloride and approximately 50-100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis 0.9% saline if large volumes are used there is an increased risk of hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis Hartmann's contains potassium and therefore should not be used in patients with hyperkalaemia
65
what is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
FSGS - causes nephrotic syndrome and CKD in young adults
66
what are the causes of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
idiopathic secondary to other renal pathology e.g. IgA nephropathy, reflux nephropathy HIV heroin Alport's syndrome sickle-cell
67
how is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis diagnosed and managed
renal biopsy focal and segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis on light microscopy effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy managed by steroids +/- immunosuppressants high recurrence rate in renal transplants
68
what are the features of haemolytic uraemic syndrome
acute kidney injury microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia thrombocytopenia
69
what are the causes of haemolytic uraemic syndrome
primary HUS primary HUS ('atypical') is due to complement dysregulation. secondary HUS classically Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7 'verotoxigenic', 'enterohaemorrhagic' this is the most common cause in children, accounting for over 90% of cases pneumococcal infection HIV rare: systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, cancer
70
how is haemolytic uraemic syndrome investigated and diagnosed
full blood count anaemia: microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia characterised by a haemoglobin level less than 8 g/dL with a negative Coomb's test thrombocytopenia fragmented blood film: schistocytes and helmet cells U&E: acute kidney injury stool culture looking for evidence of STEC infection PCR for Shiga toxins
71
how is haemolytic uraemic syndrome managed
supportive - fluids, blood transfusion and dialysis if required plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea eculizumab (a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody)
72
what is henoch-schonlein purpura
an IgA mediated small vessel vasculitis causing palpable purpuric rash (with localized oedema) over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs abdominal pain polyarthritis features of IgA nephropathy may occur e.g. haematuria, renal failure seen in children following infection self limiting especially in children without renal involvement
73
what is HIV associated nephropathy
features: massive proteinuria resulting in nephrotic syndrome normal or large kidneys focal segmental glomerulosclerosis with focal or global capillary collapse on renal biopsy elevated urea and creatinine normotension treat with ART
74
classification of hyperkalaemia
mild: 5.5 - 5.9 mmol/L moderate: 6.0 - 6.4 mmol/L severe: ≥ 6.5 mmol/L
75
what are the features of hypokalaemia
Features muscle weakness, hypotonia hypokalaemia predisposes patients to digoxin toxicity - care should be taken if patients are also on diuretics
76
what are the ECG features of hypokalaemia
U waves small or absent T waves prolonged PR interval ST depression
77
what are the ECG changes of hyperkalaemia
peaked or 'tall-tented' T waves (occurs first) loss of P waves broad QRS complexes sinusoidal wave pattern
78
what is IgA nephropathy
commonest cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide causing macroscopic haematuria in young males 1-2 days following an URTI caused by mesangial deposition of IgA immune complexes histology: mesangial hypercellularity, positive immunofluorescence for IgA & C3 assx with alcoholic cirrhosis coeliac disease/dermatitis herpetiformis Henoch-Schonlein purpura
79
what are the features of post-streprococcal glomerulonephritis
caused by immune complex (IgG, IgM and C3) deposition in the glomeruli develops 1-2 weeks after URT headache malaise visible haematuria proteinuria (may result in oedema) hypertension oliguria bloods: raised anti-streptolysin O titre are used to confirm the diagnosis of a recent streptococcal infection low C3
80
what is type 1, 2 and 3 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
type 1 accounts for 90% of cases cause: cryoglobulinaemia, hepatitis C renal biopsy electron microscopy: subendothelial and mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in a 'tram-track' appearance Type 2 - 'dense deposit disease' causes: partial lipodystrophy (patients classically have a loss of subcutaneous tissue from their face), factor H deficiency caused by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway low circulating levels of C3 C3b nephritic factor is found in 70% an antibody to alternative-pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb) stabilizes C3 convertase renal biopsy electron microscopy: intramembranous immune complex deposits with 'dense deposits' Type 3 causes: hepatitis B and C
81
how does membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis present
nephrotic syndrome haematuria/proteinuria poor prognosis
82
what is minimal change disease and how does it present
T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane → polyanion loss the resultant reduction of electrostatic charge → increased glomerular permeability to serum albumin nephrotic syndrome normotension - hypertension is rare highly selective proteinuria only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus renal biopsy normal glomeruli on light microscopy electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes
83
causes of minimal change disease
drugs: NSAIDs, rifampicin Hodgkin's lymphoma, thymoma infectious mononucleosis
84
management of minimal change disease and prognosis
oral corticosteroids: majority of cases (80%) are steroid-responsive cyclophosphamide is the next step for steroid-resistant cases 1/3 have just one episode 1/3 have infrequent relapses 1/3 have frequent relapses which stop before adulthood
85
complications of nephrotic syndrome
increased risk of thromboembolism related to loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism renal vein thrombosis, resulting in a sudden deterioration in renal function hyperlipidaemia increasing risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke etc chronic kidney disease increased risk of infection due to urinary immunoglobulin loss hypocalcaemia (vitamin D and binding protein lost in urine)
86
what is peritoneal dialysis
Peritoneal dialysis (PD) is a form of renal replacement therapy. It is sometimes used as a stop-gap to haemodialysis or for younger patients who do not want to have to visit hospital three times a week. Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis - involves four 2-litre exchanges/day.
87
complications of peritoneal dialysis
peritonitis coagulase-negative staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common cause. Staphylococcus aureus is another common cause antibiotics should cover both Gram positive and Gram negative organisms the BNF recommends vancomycin (or teicoplanin) + ceftazidime added to dialysis fluid OR vancomycin added to dialysis fluid + ciprofloxacin by mouth sclerosing peritonitis
88
what are the features of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
rapid loss of renal function associated with the formation of epithelial crescents in the majority of glomeruli nephritic syndrome: haematuria with red cell casts, proteinuria, hypertension, oliguria features specific to underlying cause (e.g. haemoptysis with Goodpasture's, vasculitic rash or sinusitis with Wegener's)
89
causes of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Goodpasture's syndrome Wegener's granulomatosis others: SLE, microscopic polyarteritis
90
what is renal papillary necrosis
visible haematuria, loin pain and proteinuria results from coagulative necrosis of the renal papillae due to a variety of causes: severe acute pyelonephritis diabetic nephropathy obstructive nephropathy analgesic nephropathy phenacetin was the classic cause but this has now been withdrawn NSAIDs sickle cell anaemia
91
what are the types of renal replacement therapy
haemodialysis peritoneal dialysis renal transplant
92
what is haemodialysis
most common form of renal replacement therapy regular filtration of the blood through a dialysis machine in hospital 3 times per week, with each session lasting 3-5 hours 8 weeks before the commencement of treatment, the patient must undergo surgery to create an arteriovenous fistula, which provides the site for haemodialysis
93
what is peritoneal dialysis
Dialysis solution is injected into the abdominal cavity through a permanent catheter. The high dextrose concentration of the solution draws waste products from the blood into the abdominal cavity across the peritoneum. After several hours of dwell time, the dialysis solution is then drained, removing the waste products from the body, and exchanged for new dialysis solution Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) - as described above, with each exchange lasting 30-40 minutes and each dwell time lasting 4-8 hours. The patient may go about their normal activities with the dialysis solution inside their abdomen Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) - a dialysis machine fills and drains the abdomen while the patient is sleeping, performing 3-5 exchanges over 8-10 hours each night
94
what is renal transplantation
receipt of a kidney from either a live or deceased donor. The average wait for a kidney in the UK is 3 years, though patients may also receive kidneys donated by cross-matched friends or family. The donor kidney is transplanted into the groin, with the renal vessels connected to the external iliac vessels. The failing kidneys are not removed. Following transplantation, the patient must take life-long immunosuppressants to prevent rejection of the new kidney. The average lifespan of a donor kidney is 10-12 years from deceased donors and 12-15 years from living donors.
95
describe hyperacute rejection
Hyperacute rejection (minutes to hours) - due to pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens (type II hypersensitivity reaction) widespread thrombosis of graft vessels → ischaemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ no treatment is possible and the graft must be removed
96
describe acute graft failure
acute graft failure (<6 months) usually due to mismatched HLA. Cell-mediated (cytotoxic T cells) usually asymptomatic and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria and proteinuria other causes include cytomegalovirus infection may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants
97
describe chronic graft failure
chronic graft failure (> 6 months) both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms cause fibrosis to the transplanted kidney (chronic allograft nephropathy) recurrence of original renal disease (MCGN > IgA > FSGS)
98
what are some immunosuppressants used in renal transplantation
Example regime initial: ciclosporin/tacrolimus with a monoclonal antibody maintenance: ciclosporin/tacrolimus with MMF or sirolimus add steroids if more than one steroid responsive acute rejection episode
99
what are the side effects of immunosuppression for renal transplant
Hypertension and hyperglycaemia. Tacrolimus can also cause hyperlipidaemia. Patients must be monitored for accelerated cardiovascular disease. Renal failure - due to nephrotoxic effects of tacrolimus and ciclosporin/graft rejection/recurrence of original disease in transplanted kidney Malignancy - patients should be educated about minimising sun exposure to reduce the risk of squamous cell carcinomas and basal cell carcinomas
100
what are the causes of rhabdomyolysis
seizure collapse/coma (e.g. elderly patient collapses at home, found 8 hours later) ecstasy crush injury McArdle's syndrome drugs: statins (especially if co-prescribed with clarithromycin)
101
what are the features of rhabdomyolysis
acute kidney injury with disproportionately raised creatinine elevated creatine kinase (CK) the CK is significantly elevated, at least 5 times the upper limit of normal elevations of CK that are 'only' 2-4 times that of normal are not supportive of a diagnosis and suggest another underlying pathophysiology myoglobinuria: dark or reddish-brown colour hypocalcaemia (myoglobin binds calcium) elevated phosphate (released from myocytes) hyperkalaemia (may develop before renal failure) metabolic acidosis
102
how is rhabdomyolysis managed
IV fluids to maintain good urine output urinary alkalinization is sometimes used
103
when would you use spironolactone?
ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used hypertension: used in some patients as a NICE 'step 4' treatment heart failure (see RALES study below) nephrotic syndrome Conn's syndrome
104
what are some renal side effects of systemic lupus erythematosus
WHO classification class I: normal kidney class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis
105
how to treat the renal side effects of systemic lupus erythematosus
treat hypertension initial therapy for focal (class III) or diffuse (class IV) lupus nephritis glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide subsequent therapy mycophenolate is generally preferred to azathioprine to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease
106
what are some findings in urine?
Hyaline casts consist of Tamm-Horsfall protein (secreted by distal convoluted tubule) seen in normal urine, after exercise, during fever or with loop diuretics Acute tubular necrosis brown granular casts in urine Prerenal uraemia 'bland' urinary sediment Red cell casts nephritic syndrome
107
features of type 1 renal tubular acidosis (distal)
inability to secrete H+ in DCT causes hypokalaemia, nephrocalcinosis, renal stones causes include idiopathic, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, Sjogren's, amphotericin B toxicity, analgesic nephropathy
108
features of type 2 renal tubular acidosis (proximal)
reduced HCO3- resorption in PCT causes hypokalaemia, osteomalacia causes include idiopathic, as part of Fanconi syndrome, Wilson's disease, cystinosis, outdated tetracyclines, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide, topiramate)
109
features of type 4 renal tubular acidosis
reduction in aldosterone leads in turn to a reduction in PCT ammonium excretion causes hyperkalaemia causes include hypoaldosteronism, diabetes
110