Nephrology Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Urnie Na and FENa consistent with pre-renal causes

A

Urine Na <20

FENa <1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Urnie Na and FENa consistent with intrinsic renal dysfunction

A

Urine Na >20 (inability to concentrate)

FENa >1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is contrast induced nephropathy different than other forms of ATN?

A

Mechanism of action

Contrast induced causes spasm of the afferent arteriole leading to concentrated urine and very low urine Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the timing for ATN caused by medications?

A

5-10d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Shape of oxalate crystals

A

Envelope shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drugs implicated in ATN

A

Aminoglycosides

amphoterocin

Cisplatin

Vancomycin

acyclovir

Cyclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is medication induced ATN dose dependant?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aminoglycosides and furosemide share this adverse effect

A

Ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kidney dysfunction and rash in a patient who recently underwent cardiac or renal artery cath

A

Livedo reticularis

cholesterol atheroemboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hansel or wright stain

A

stain for eosinophils

most accurate test for AIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most accurate test in papillary necrosis

A

CT showing anatomic changes to papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Classic presentation for IgA nephropathy

A

Gross hematuria in asian american 1-2d after URI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Therapy for polyarteritis nodosa

A

Predisone and cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What screening test to perform in a patient with polyarteritis nodosa

A

HBV surface antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In amyloidosis, HIV nephropathy, polycystic kidney disease and diabetes, the kidneys are….(small or enlarged)

A

enlarged

unlike HTN where they are smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for amyloidosis nephropathy

A

prednisone and melphalan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nephrotic range proteinuria =

A

>3.5g/24hrs in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nephrotic syndrome leads to this coagulopathy…why

A

Thrombosis

loss of protein C, protein S and antithrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cancer patients more likely have this type of nephrotic syndrome

20
Q

Children commonly develop this type of nephropathy

A

minimal change disease

21
Q

AIDS and IV drug abusers typically have this type of nephropathy

A

Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

22
Q

NSAID users will typically develop this type of nephropathy

A

minimal change disease and membranous

23
Q

By definition nephrotic syndrome is…

A

Hyperproteinuria (>3.5g/24hrs)

Hypoproteinemia

Hyperlipidemia

Periorbital edema

24
Q

Used to reduce protein loss in nephrotic syndrome

A

ACEi and ARBs

25
Used to manage edema in nephrotic syndrome
Salt restriction and diuretics
26
Initial therapy for Nephrotic syndrome includes....second line includes...
Glucocorticoids 2nd line-- further immune suppression with cyclophosphamide
27
Uremia is defined as
Metabolic acidosis Fluid overload Encephalopathy Hyperkalemia Pericarditis
28
Type of RTA associated with hyperkalemia
type IV RTA
29
Type of RTA associated with hypokalemia
Type I and II
30
Location of type I, II and IV RTA
I- distal II- Proximal IV- Hyporeninemia, hypoaldosteronemia-- throughout
31
Defect in Type I RTA
Distal tubule unable to genernate new HCO3 which means H+ cannot be excreted Leads to high urine pH
32
People with Type I RTA will commonly suffer from recurrent...
Calcium oxylate kidney stones
33
Type I RTA is associated with
SLE and Sjogrens Use of Amphoterocin
34
Test for type I RTA
Give Acid and watch urine pH Inability for urine to decrease pH indicates a Type I RTA
35
Cause of type II RTA
Proximal Inability of tubule to resorb filtered bicarb (fanconi, amyloidosis, myeloma, acetazolamide, heavy metals)
36
Urine findings in type II RTA
At first, persistently high urine pH due to increase HCO3 excretion. When Bicarb is depleted HCO3 will be low
37
Test for Type II RTA
Give HCO3 If Urine pH increases= type II RTA
38
Type II RTA has this effect on bones
Chronic metabolic acidosis causes leaching of Ca from bones and osteomalacia
39
Treatment for Type II RTA
Difficault Thiazides will help volume deplete and cause distal retention of HCO3
40
Cause of Type IV RTA
Hyporeninemia/hyopaldosteronemia --most often occurs in diabetes --Loss of aldosterone effect leads to loss of Na+ and retention of potassium and H+
41
Persistently high Na+ despite low Na+ diet is consistent with this type of RTA
Type IV
42
Treatment for type IV RTA
administer fludrocortisone | (high mineralocorticoid effect)
43
Measurement of urine anion gap...why?
UAG= Na - Cl Acid is buffered in urine as ClNH4 Therefore Cl is a measure of acid in the urine
44
Stones \<5mm-- let pass Stones 5-7mm get this tx...
Nifedipine and tamulosin to help
45
Best initial therapy for hypertensive crisis
Lebetolol or nitroprusside