Nervous system diseases

Question 1

Dysmetria

Answer 1

Abnormal muscular gait; wide abnormal walk

test propiocetion - knuckling

Question 2

Hypermetria

Answer 2

Over stepping ( goose stepping )

Question 3

Paresis

Answer 3

Slight or incomplete paralysis

Question 4

Torticollis

Answer 4

Twisting of neck, head bent to chest

Question 5

Nystagmus

Answer 5

Involuntary movement of eyeballs

Question 6

Strabismus

Answer 6

Uncontrolled deviation of eye

Question 7

Anisocoria

Answer 7

Unsymmetrical pupil sizes

Question 8

What is Cranial nerve 1

Answer 8

Olfactory
Smell

Question 9

Cranial never 2

Answer 9

II-Optic
Vision

Question 10

Cranial nerve 3

Answer 10

III-Oculomotor
Pupils-PLR

Question 11

Cranial nerve 4

Answer 11

IV-Trochlear
Eye movement-nystagmus

Question 12

Cranial nerve 5

Answer 12

V-Trigeminal
Mastication-Facial sensation

Question 13

Cranial nerve 6

Answer 13

VI-Abducens
Eye movement-Strabismus

Question 14

Cranial nerve 7

Answer 14

VII-Facial
Blink reflex, ear movement

Question 15

opisthotonus

Answer 15

arching of the neck and back

Question 16

tonic v clonic

Answer 16

tonic is stiff and clonic is shaky, jittery in seizures

Question 17

Cranial nerve 8

Answer 17

VIII-Vestibulocochlear
Hearing and balance-vertigo

Question 18

Cranial nerve 9

Answer 18

IX-Glossopharyngeal
Swallowing and Gag reflex

Question 19

Cranial nerve 10

Answer 19

X-Vagus
Swallowing and Gag reflex

Question 20

Cranial nerve 11

Answer 20

XI-Accessory
Neck movement

Question 21

Cranial nerve 12

Answer 21

XII-Hypoglossal
Tongue movement

Question 22

what is Menace response and what CN they are associated with

Answer 22

CN - 2,3 palpebral reflex and 7
a reaction with a more faster movement to cause a blinking reflex

Question 23

What is panniculus reflex

Answer 23

pinching along the spine and will respond to with a “fly twitch”

Question 24

How will a patient be positioned for surgery for cervical disk ?

Answer 24

dorsal recumbency

Question 25

What position would the patient be placed in for a thoracolumabar disk surgery ?

Answer 25

Ventral recumbency

Question 26

what drugs for treatment can be used to help treat a brain disorder due to trauma

Answer 26

Osmotic agents (Mannitol slow IV bolus) Diuretics (Furosemide IV) Anti-seizure medication if needed Corticosteroids: Prednisolone sodium succinate iv

Question 27

what is idiopthic vestibular disease and common reasons for it

Answer 27

An acute disorder seen in middle aged dogs and cats. common causes: ear infection ( tymapnic membrane has ruptured) or nausea medication (antihistamine) Selegiline can be used to help treat

Question 28

What are the phases of seziures

Answer 28

**Aura** Initial manifestation – hiding, pacing, barking, nervous, salivating **Ictal** Actual seizure **Post Ictal** Period after seizure - disorientation, circling, blindness, weakness

Question 29

what is the go to drug for seizures

Answer 29

DIazepam IV, rectal

Question 30

what is idiopathic epilepsy

Answer 30

Characterized by repeated episodes of seizures for which no cause exists.

Question 31

What breeds have been suggested hereditary epilepsy

Answer 31

Predominantly in German Shepherd, Miniature and Toy Poodle, Saint Bernard, Cocker Spaniel, Beagle, Irish Setter, Golden Retriever, and some mixed breeds.

Question 32

what drug can be used to help decrease the effects of epilepsy

Answer 32

penobarbital (if no liver disease is detected) gabopentin Potassium bromide medazolam primadone Levetiracetam (Keppra) ## Footnote anti convulsants; they do not remove seizures, only decrease the time and effects. good to inform client to time the seizures

Question 33

What is Status epilepticus

Answer 33

Continual seizures for prolonged period (>5-10 min) **Emergency** hyperthermia is common in seizuring patients

Question 34

What is Intervertebral Disc Disease

Answer 34

Compression of the spinal cord, spinal nerves, or nerve root by the intervertebral disk. 75-100% of all discs have undergone degenerative changes by 1 year of age in these breeds

Question 35

What breeds is extrusion IDD common in and what it is

Answer 35

Common in younger chondrodystrophic breeds of dogs (eg Dachshund, corgis). Tearing of the annulus fibrosus and the rupturing of the nucleus pulposus into vertebral canal (Type I disc).

Question 36

What is protrusion IDD

Answer 36

Common in older (>5 years) large-breed dogs. Partial tearing of the annulus fibrosus and bulging of the dorsal aspect of the disc into vertebral canal (Type II).

Question 37

What is fenestraion and hemilaminectomy

Answer 37

o

Question 38

Schiff-Sherrington sign

Answer 38

Rigid hypertonicity of front legs, hypotonicity of rear legs, normal reflexes, pain perception from release of inhibitory pathways from L1-L7

Question 39

what is Alantoaxial subluxation/ instability and who is it commonly seen in

Answer 39

Spinal cord trauma occurs when cranial portion of axis displaced into spinal column. (C1 and C2) Seen most frequently in young (<1 year) toy and miniature dog breeds (occasionally other breeds).

Question 40

What would be seen in a radiograph in an alantoaxial subluxation

Answer 40

ventroflexion

Question 41

Cervical Spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler Syndrome) and who is it commonly seen in

Answer 41

Cervical cord compression from caudal vertebral (C5-C7) malformation or misarticulation Large-breed dogs, predominantly Great Danes (male) <1 year and Doberman Pinschers >2 years

Question 42

What is degenerative myleopathy and who is ti commmonly seen in

Answer 42

Slow progressive diffuse degeneration of white matter in both ascending and descending tracts of all segments of the spinal cord. Most affected in german shepards

Question 43

What is Discospondylitis (Vertebral Osteomyelitis) and what organisms are they associated with

Answer 43

Occurs when bacteria or fungi become implanted in the bones of the vertebral column. Organisms include - Brucella canis, Staph, Proteus, Streptococcus canis, E coli, Corynebacterium, Pasteurella, Aspergillus, Mycobacterium

Question 44

What is Ischemic Myelopathy Caused By Fibrocartilaginous Embolism (FCE)

Answer 44

Ischemic myelopathy results from necrosis of the spinal cord gray and white fiber tracts when emboli obstruct veins + arteries in leptomeninges and cord.

Question 45

Neural Deafness is most common in which types of species / breed

Answer 45

dalamatians and blue eyed white cats

Question 46

What may be causes of Metabolic Neuropathy

Answer 46

Polyneuropathy reported in dogs with diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, and hypothyroidism. ## Footnote stances seen may be cervical ventroflexion or plantigrade stance (diabetes)

Question 47

who is laryngeal paralysis common in

Answer 47

Bouviers and young Siberian Huskies

Question 48

How does Larpar occur

Answer 48

Acquired form occurs from lead poisoning, rabies, trauma, and inflammatory infiltrates in vagus nerve.

Question 49

What is megaesophagius

Answer 49

Lack of effective esophageal peristalsis results in dilation and regurgitation of undigested food. ## Footnote myastenia gravis can be a cause to this

Question 50

What are the common ticks that can cause tick paralysis

Answer 50

Mostly due to common dog tick (Dermacentor variabilis) and Rocky Mountain wood tick (Dermacentor andersoni). The female mature tick

Question 51

Coonhound Paralysis or Polyradiculoneuritis

Answer 51

associated with raccon bites, Pathologic changes include segmental demyelination with degeneration of myelin and axons, especially ventral nerve root. Causes acute respiratory paraalysis

Question 52

what are 3 causes to respiratory paralysis

Answer 52

nicotine, coonhound paralysis and tick paralysis

Question 53

Facial nerve paralysis and common breeds

Answer 53

Degeneration of myelinated fibers, unknown cause. Reported in adult dogs and cat (>5 years). Cockers, Corgis, Boxers, English Setters, DLH cats