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BIO 102 > Nervous System MCQ > Flashcards

Nervous System MCQ Flashcards

(104 cards)

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1
Q

Which part of a neuron primarily receives incoming signals?

A

(B) Dendrite. Dendrites are the branched projections of a neuron that receive synaptic inputs from other neurons.

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2
Q

What is the main term for the cell body of a neuron, containing the nucleus and organelles?

A

(C) Soma. The soma, or cell body, is the core region of a neuron housing the nucleus and organelles.

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3
Q

What is the function of the myelin sheath on many axons?

A

(B) It insulates the axon and increases action potential speed. Myelination provides electrical insulation, allowing action potentials to travel faster.

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4
Q

Which glial cell type produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system?

A

(B) Schwann cell. Schwann cells wrap around PNS axons to form myelin sheaths.

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5
Q

Which glial cells create the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?

A

(C) Oligodendrocytes. Oligodendrocytes wrap multiple CNS axons with myelin.

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6
Q

Which ion has a much higher concentration inside a neuron at rest?

A

(B) Potassium (K⁺). Neurons maintain high intracellular K⁺ and high extracellular Na⁺ at rest.

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7
Q

What is the role of the axon hillock in a neuron?

A

(B) It generates action potentials. The axon hillock is the usual trigger zone for action potentials.

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8
Q

What are Nodes of Ranvier?

A

(A) Gaps in the myelin sheath where action potentials are regenerated. They allow action potentials to jump in saltatory conduction.

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9
Q

Which type of glial cell acts as the main immune defense in the CNS?

A

(C) Microglia. Microglia are the resident immune cells of the CNS.

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10
Q

Which glial cells contribute to forming and maintaining the blood-brain barrier?

A

(A) Astrocytes. Astrocytic end-feet help maintain the blood-brain barrier.

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11
Q

A multipolar neuron is characterized by:

A

(B) One axon and multiple dendrites. Multipolar neurons are the most common type in vertebrates.

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12
Q

Bipolar neurons have:

A

(C) One axon and one dendrite extending from the cell body.

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13
Q

Unipolar (pseudo-unipolar) neurons are characterized by:

A

(A) A single process that splits into two branches, functioning as one axon.

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14
Q

What is the approximate resting membrane potential of a typical neuron?

A

(B) -70 mV. Most neurons maintain a resting potential around -60 to -70 mV.

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15
Q

Which ion’s movement is primarily responsible for the depolarization (rising phase) of an action potential?

A

(B) Influx of Na⁺. During depolarization, Na⁺ rushes into the neuron.

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16
Q

Which event causes the repolarization (falling phase) of the action potential?

A

(A) Opening of voltage-gated K⁺ channels and K⁺ efflux.

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17
Q

What happens during the absolute refractory period of a neuron?

A

(A) No new action potential can be initiated, regardless of stimulus strength.

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18
Q

What characterizes the relative refractory period?

A

(B) A larger-than-normal stimulus can trigger another action potential.

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19
Q

According to the all-or-none principle, if a stimulus fails to reach threshold, the neuron will:

A

(B) Not fire an action potential at all.

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20
Q

How does myelination affect action potential conduction in an axon?

A

(C) It speeds up conduction via saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier.

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21
Q

The voltage threshold for firing an action potential in a typical neuron is around:

A

(C) -55 mV.

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22
Q

During an action potential, the sodium-potassium pump:

A

(A) Actively restores ion gradients after the action potential.

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23
Q

In a chemical synapse, communication between neurons occurs via:

A

(B) Release of neurotransmitters across a synaptic cleft.

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24
Q

What triggers the release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic terminal?

A

(A) Influx of Ca²⁺ into the terminal.

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25
Which neurotransmitter is primarily excitatory at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle?
(A) Acetylcholine (ACh).
26
Which neurotransmitter is the main inhibitory transmitter in the CNS?
(C) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
27
Which neurotransmitter is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?
(D) Glutamate.
28
Spatial summation in a neuron refers to:
(B) Combined effect of simultaneous signals from several presynaptic neurons.
29
Temporal summation refers to:
(B) Successive rapid inputs from the same presynaptic neuron.
30
Which enzyme breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
(C) Acetylcholinesterase.
31
Which of the following is an ionotropic receptor for acetylcholine?
(A) Nicotinic receptor.
32
Which of the following acetylcholine receptors is metabotropic (G-protein-coupled)?
(B) Muscarinic receptor.
33
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease targeting the:
(B) Acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
34
What type of receptors act through G-proteins and second messengers?
Metabotropic receptors ## Footnote Metabotropic receptors influence cellular signaling through G-proteins and second messengers, while nicotinic receptors function as ion channels.
35
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease targeting which receptors?
Acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction ## Footnote In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies bind and block postsynaptic nicotinic ACh receptors, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue.
36
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are used to treat depression by increasing what in the synaptic cleft?
Serotonin ## Footnote SSRIs block the reuptake transporter of serotonin, enhancing serotonergic signaling in brain pathways.
37
Which structure is part of the central nervous system (CNS)?
Spinal cord ## Footnote The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord; cranial and spinal nerves belong to the PNS.
38
Which structure is part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
Spinal nerve ## Footnote Spinal nerves and cranial nerves outside the brain/spinal cord are components of the PNS.
39
Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord primarily contains which of the following?
Neuron cell bodies and dendrites ## Footnote Gray matter consists of neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated fibers; white matter contains myelinated axons.
40
Bundles of axons in the CNS are called _____, whereas bundles of axons in the PNS are called _____.
Tracts; nerves
41
A ganglion in the nervous system refers to what?
A cluster of neuron cell bodies in the PNS ## Footnote In the CNS, a cluster of neuron cell bodies is called a nucleus.
42
A nucleus in neuroanatomy refers to what?
A cluster of neuron cell bodies in the CNS ## Footnote A nucleus is distinct from a ganglion, which is found in the PNS.
43
Which glial cells are found in the PNS surrounding neuron cell bodies in ganglia?
Satellite cells
44
Which glial cells form the blood-brain barrier in the CNS?
Astrocytes
45
Which part of a spinal nerve carries sensory (afferent) fibers into the spinal cord?
Dorsal root
46
Which part of a spinal nerve carries motor (efferent) fibers out of the spinal cord?
Ventral root
47
Which central structures contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Brain ventricles
48
The somatic nervous system primarily controls what type of muscle?
Voluntary skeletal muscle
49
The autonomic nervous system primarily regulates what type of functions?
Involuntary functions of organs
50
Which neurotransmitter is released by all autonomic preganglionic neurons?
Acetylcholine
51
Most sympathetic postganglionic neurons release which neurotransmitter at their target organ?
Norepinephrine
52
Which neurotransmitter do parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release?
Acetylcholine
53
Which autonomic branch is mainly responsible for the 'fight or flight' response?
Sympathetic nervous system
54
Which autonomic branch is mainly responsible for 'rest and digest' activities?
Parasympathetic nervous system
55
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers originate from the _____ spinal cord.
Thoracic and lumbar
56
Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the _____ and sacral spinal cord.
Brainstem (cranial nerves)
57
The knee-jerk (patellar) reflex is an example of a _____ reflex arc.
Monosynaptic
58
A withdrawal reflex is typically _____ and ipsilateral.
Polysynaptic
59
What does a reflex arc typically include (in order)?
Receptor → sensory neuron → integration center → motor neuron → effector
60
During the crossed extensor reflex, the opposite limb's extensor muscles do what?
Contract to support body weight
61
Which receptor detects stretch in skeletal muscle during a stretch reflex?
Muscle spindle
62
The Golgi tendon organ responds to changes in _____ tension.
Muscle
63
Which neuron carries impulses from peripheral sensory receptors towards the CNS?
Afferent neurons
64
Which neuron carries impulses from the CNS to effectors?
Efferent neurons
65
The hippocampus is critically involved in what?
Memory formation and learning
66
Which brain structure is primarily associated with processing fear and emotion?
Amygdala
67
Which brain region coordinates voluntary movement, balance, and posture?
Cerebellum
68
Which region of the brainstem regulates vital functions like breathing and heart rate?
Medulla oblongata
69
Which part of the brainstem contains respiratory centers?
Pons
70
Which part of the midbrain contains the superior and inferior colliculi?
Tectum
71
The occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex is primarily responsible for what?
Vision
72
The temporal lobes are mainly involved in processing what?
Auditory information and language comprehension
73
The parietal lobes of the cortex primarily process what?
Somatosensory information
74
The frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are most closely associated with what?
Voluntary motor function and executive functions
75
What type of information does the cortex primarily process in the parietal lobes?
Somatosensory information. ## Footnote The parietal lobes, specifically the postcentral gyrus, process tactile sensations such as touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.
76
The frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are most closely associated with which functions?
Voluntary motor function and executive functions. ## Footnote Frontal lobes contain the primary motor cortex (precentral gyrus) and prefrontal areas important for decision making, planning, and social behavior.
77
What is the main function of the thalamus?
A relay station for most sensory information (except olfaction) to the cerebral cortex. ## Footnote Almost all sensory inputs (touch, taste, vision, hearing) are processed in thalamic nuclei before reaching the cortex.
78
What does the hypothalamus primarily regulate?
Homeostasis and endocrine control. ## Footnote The hypothalamus regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, sleep, and links the nervous system to the hormonal (endocrine) system via control of the pituitary.
79
What is the role of basal ganglia nuclei in the forebrain?
Coordination of movement and procedural learning. ## Footnote The basal ganglia help regulate movement initiation and facilitate learned motor patterns.
80
Which nucleus of the brain is most directly involved in sleep-wake cycles and arousal?
Reticular formation. ## Footnote The reticular activating system regulates consciousness and arousal.
81
What is the primary somatosensory cortex responsible for?
Receiving touch information. ## Footnote The postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe is the primary somatosensory cortex for tactile and proprioceptive input.
82
Which area of the brain is known as the primary motor cortex?
Precentral gyrus. ## Footnote The precentral gyrus in the frontal lobe initiates voluntary motor commands.
83
Where is Broca’s area typically located?
Left inferior frontal gyrus. ## Footnote In most people, Broca’s area controls language production; damage here causes expressive aphasia.
84
Where is Wernicke’s area located?
Left superior temporal gyrus. ## Footnote Wernicke’s area interprets spoken and written language.
85
What does an ischemic stroke lead to?
Loss of neurons due to lack of blood flow. ## Footnote An ischemic stroke causes brain tissue to die from oxygen deprivation.
86
What causes a hemorrhagic stroke?
Rupture of a brain blood vessel. ## Footnote Hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a cerebral artery bursts, leading to bleeding into or around the brain tissue.
87
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by what?
Demyelination of axons in the central nervous system. ## Footnote MS is an autoimmune disease in which CNS myelin is damaged, interrupting nerve conduction.
88
What does Guillain-Barré syndrome involve?
PNS demyelination. ## Footnote Guillain-Barré is an autoimmune neuropathy where peripheral nerve myelin is attacked.
89
What causes Parkinson’s disease?
Degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia (substantia nigra) with loss of dopamine. ## Footnote Parkinson’s involves death of dopaminergic neurons, reducing dopamine in motor circuits.
90
Huntington’s disease is characterized by the degeneration of which type of neurons?
GABAergic neurons in the striatum. ## Footnote Huntington’s involves GABA neuron loss in the caudate/putamen, causing chorea and psychiatric symptoms.
91
What pathology is typically observed in Alzheimer’s disease?
Amyloid-beta plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain. ## Footnote Alzheimer’s is marked by extracellular amyloid deposits and tau tangles, especially affecting the hippocampus and cortex.
92
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) primarily affects which neurons?
Both upper and lower motor neurons, causing progressive weakness. ## Footnote ALS involves degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy.
93
Myasthenia gravis leads to what type of muscle condition?
Muscle weakness that worsens with use. ## Footnote In myasthenia gravis, reduced functional ACh receptors at the NMJ cause fatigable skeletal muscle weakness.
94
Epilepsy is characterized by what?
Repeated seizures due to abnormal synchronous neuronal activity. ## Footnote Epilepsy involves recurrent, excessive neuronal discharges in the cortex, manifesting as seizures.
95
What is the result of a lesion in the left parietal lobe affecting Wernicke’s area?
Loss of speech comprehension (receptive aphasia). ## Footnote Wernicke’s area damage leads to fluent but nonsensical speech and impaired understanding of language.
96
What can damage to the right parietal lobe cause?
Left-sided neglect (hemineglect of the left side). ## Footnote Non-dominant parietal lesions often cause hemi-spatial neglect, where the patient ignores the contralateral side.
97
A positive Babinski sign in an adult indicates what?
Upper motor neuron lesion. ## Footnote The Babinski sign suggests corticospinal tract damage.
98
What does an upper motor neuron lesion typically cause?
Spastic paralysis with hyperreflexia. ## Footnote UMN lesions cause increased tone and reflexes, whereas LMN lesions cause flaccid paralysis.
99
A lower motor neuron lesion typically results in what?
Flaccid paralysis and hyporeflexia. ## Footnote LMN lesions interrupt motor output at or below the spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness.
100
What typically occurs in Brown-Séquard syndrome?
Ipsilateral paralysis and proprioception loss with contralateral pain/temp loss. ## Footnote Hemisection damages ipsilateral corticospinal and dorsal column tracts and contralateral spinothalamic tracts.
101
What might a patient with a midbrain lesion exhibit?
Locked-in syndrome (paralysis of most muscles except eyes). ## Footnote A midbrain/upper pons lesion can paralyze voluntary muscles while consciousness remains intact.
102
What does damage to the optic chiasm typically cause?
Loss of peripheral (temporal) visual fields in both eyes (bitemporal hemianopsia). ## Footnote Lesion at the optic chiasm interrupts crossing fibers from the nasal retinae.
103
What condition results from failure of the neural tube to close in the lumbosacral region?
Spina bifida, potentially with neural tissue exposure. ## Footnote This neural tube defect results in a gap in the vertebral arches.
104
Bell’s palsy is best described as what?
Idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve (VII) causing unilateral facial droop. ## Footnote Bell’s palsy involves acute dysfunction of the facial nerve.

BIO 102 (16 decks)

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