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VetMed Year 1 > NEU 2 > Flashcards

NEU 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Explain what temporal summation of postsynaptic potentials are

A

Temporal summation is where one presyanptic neuron releases several vesicles containing NTs over a short period of time (strong stimulus, more frequent action potentials over short period of time)

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2
Q

Explain what spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials are

A

Spatial summation is where 2 or more presynaptic neurons release one or few pools of vesicles containing NTs over a short period of time

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3
Q

Describe the fine structure of peripheral nerves

A
  • Includes cranial nerves, spinal nerves and ganglia
  • A nerve is composed of several bundles of nerve axons (nerve fibres)
  • Held together by connective tissue
  • Most nerves are mixed (contain both sensory and motor fibres)
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4
Q

Explain the term aetiology in the development of disease

A

The cause of the disease or condition (bacteria, genetic mutation etc)

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5
Q

Explain the term pathogenesis in the development of disease

A

The mecahnism and or development of disease (HOW it causes disease)

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6
Q

Describe some of the changes that can occur in nervous system disease

A
  • Chromatolysis after axonal damage or toxicity - swollen, loss of Nissl substance, pale, nucleus pushed to periphery, lose bluish stain
  • Hypereosinophilic: shrunken neurons, increased number of eosinophils
  • Swollen neurons due to lysosomal storage diseases
  • Viral inclusion bodies: appear as pinkish dots in cytoplasm of neurons
  • Cytoplasmic neuronal vacuolation: space in nerve cell body
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7
Q

List possible different causes of disease of the nervous system

A
  • Trauma
  • Congenital (hypomyelination)
  • Hypertension (cerebral oedema)
  • Cytotoxic oedema (intracellular fluid, systemic intoxication)
  • Inflammation
  • Degeneration
  • Neoplasia
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8
Q

Describe the difference between encephalitis, meningitis, myelitis

A

Encephalitis: inflammation of the brain
Meningitis: inflammation of the meninges
Myelitis: inflammation of the spinal cord

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9
Q

What does each of the letters in DAMNITV mean

A 
D: degenerative
A: anomalous
M: metabolic
N: neoplastic nutritional
I: inflammatory (infectious or immune mediated), idiopathic
T: toxic, trauma
V: vascular
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10
Q

Describe the methods of production and drainage of CSF

A
  • Produced in choroid plexus, present in all ventricles
  • Ultrafiltration of blood
  • Drained by arachnoid villi within sagittal sinus into lymph
  • Production and drainage are independent so production will continue even if drainage is not occuring effectively
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11
Q

Describe the flow of CSF through the ventricular system

A
  • Drains into subarachnoid space around the brain
  • Produced in all ventricles and flows through all
  • Lateral -> IIIrd -> IVth -> subarachnoid space
  • Aided by pulsing of choroid plexus
  • Some goes around brain, some around spinal cord and then dispersed into peripheries of body
  • Also absorbed into venous circulation and lymphatic vessles
  • Also into venous sinuses of dura mater
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12
Q

Compare ventriculomegaly and hydrocephalus

A

Ventriculomegaly: increased ventricle size
Hydrocephaly: the build up of fluid in the brain (can lead to ventriculomegaly)

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13
Q

Explain the 3 vector model of behaviour

A
  • There is an input, processing and an output

- A change in input vector will alter the output vector (e.g. suddenly going blind)

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14
Q

Describe what is meant by an input vector in the 3 vector model of behaviour and give examples

A
  • Sign stimulus or releaser
  • Certain stimuli can induce/release a relatively invariable motor response or invariable complex motor behaviour
  • Visual cues, chemical cues, sounds
  • Usually small parts of the environment
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15
Q

Explain the concept of the ethogram

A
  • Complete inventory of behaviour displayed by a species in a particular environment
  • Behaviour is described without explicit intial reference to its purpose
  • Described objectively
  • Just describes, does not look for a reason why
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16
Q

What are Tinbergen’s 4 levels of behavioural explanation

A
  • Function: what is the behaviour for
  • Evolution: where does behaviour come from
  • Mechanism: how is he behaviour acheived
  • Development: how does the behaviour develop in ontogeny
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17
Q

Describe what is meant by a status vector in the 3 vector model of behaviour and give examples

A
  • The processing of the input vector
  • Can be altered by brain tumours
  • Motivation, emotion and memory are status variables and affect the way the information is stored and procesed
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18
Q

Describe what is meant by an output vector in the 3 vector model of behaviour and give examples

A
  • The elements of behaviour that are generated by an animal and are accessible through observation
  • Birdsong, locomotor behaviour, resting, grooming tc
  • Specific to a given species
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19
Q

Describe the clinical neurological signs caused by Toxoplasma in cats

A
  • Does not usually cuase disease in cats
  • Often chronically infected with no clinical symptoms
  • However in kittens: fading kitten syndrome, weakness, partial or total paralysis
  • Clinical symptoms in cats: paralysis, uncoordinated gait, weakness, seizures, progressive rigidity in one or more limbs as a result of myositis and neuritis
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20
Q

Describe the clinical neurological signs caused by Encephalitozoon in rabbits

A
  • Often subclinical

- May see: hindlimb paralysis, urinary incontinence, renal failure, head tilt, paralysis, death

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21
Q

Explain why some individual cats (or certain breeds) are susceptible to Toxoplasmosis

A
  • More often in kittens and cats with a weakened immune system
  • Increased susceptibiltiy whenever immunocompromised e.g. FIV, FeLV, FHV
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22
Q

Make observations regarding the epidemiology of Encephalitozoon in UK rabbits

A
  • Often ingested - contaminated food or water
  • More common in domesticated rabbits (none seen so far in wild populations)
  • Almost half of all domestic rabbits have been exposed
  • May be due to contaminating own food and water
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23
Q

Explain the importance of the mammalian immune system in Toxoplasmosis and Encephalitozoonosis

A
  • More likely to have clinical infection when immunocompromised
  • The immune response may be what is causing the damage rather than the parasite itself (particularly with Encephalitozoon)
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24
Q

Describe the positioning to obtain a radiography image of the spine

A
  • 2 orthogonal views (right angles to each other)
  • Anaesthesia
  • Avoid parallax errors - twisting etc
  • VD better than DV (area of interest nearer to plate)
  • Use foam wedges to ensure spine is straight
  • Flexed neck views useful in cases of suspeted instability
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25
Q

Describe what is meant by myelography and explain why it is useful

A
  • Contrast opacification of sub-arachnoid space
  • Introduced at the occipital-atlantal junction or caudal lumber region (between L5 and L6)
  • Should see 2 contrast columns
  • Deviation suggests damage to the spinal cord
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26
Q

What may be seen on a myelograph

A
  • Normal: 2 straight parallel lines
  • Extradural lesion: lower line being pushed upwards
  • Intradural: lower line being pushed down by lesion between lines
  • Intramedullary: both lines distorted due to lesion within lumen of cord
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27
Q

What are FLAIR and STIR MRIs?

A

FLAIR: supresses CSF, useful for lesions adjacent to ventricular structures
- STIR: supresses fat signal

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28
Q

Why is pain scoring needed?

A
  • Assessing whether analgesics should be used
  • Particularly useful in stoical animals such as cats or prey animals as are less likely to be treated with analgesics when they should be
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29
Q

Describe te general architecture of the vascular system of the spinal cord and brain

A
  • 5 main pairs of vessels
  • Rostral cerebral arteries, middle cerebral arteries, caudal cerebral arteries, rostral cerebellar arteries, caudal cerebellar arteries
  • Originate from ventral spinal cord from circle of Willis
  • Blood can go in different directions around the circle (no set direction)
  • Sits below the brain
  • Circle supplies by the basical artery and internal carotid arteries
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30
Q

What do the rostral cerebral arteries supply?

A

Medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres

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31
Q

What do the middle cerebral arteries supply?

A

The lateral and ventrolateral aspects of the cerebral hemispheres

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32
Q

What do the caudal cerebral arteries supply?

A

The occipital lobes

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33
Q

What do the rostral cerebellar arteries supply?

A

Rostral aspects of the cerebellum

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34
Q

What do the caudal cerebellar arteries supply?

A

The caudal and lateral aspects of the cerebellum

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35
Q

How is the basilar artery supplied?

A
  • At each intervertebral formamina, vertebral artery supplies the ventral spinal artery (basilar artery)
  • Vertebral artery is a branch of teh subclavian artery running through the vertebral foramina of C1-C6 and is lateral to the vertebral bodies and reasonably large
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36
Q

What are the 3 groups of sinuses in the brain?

A
  • Dorsal
  • Ventral
  • Connecting
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37
Q

Describe the pathway of the dorsal sinuses.

A
  • Dorsal sagittal, straight and the transverse sinus
  • Dorsal sagittal starts in the bone, runs into the falx
  • Transverse sinuses run down within the skull
  • Straight sinus drains the great cerebral vein
  • The transverse sinuses drain the dorsal sagittal sinus
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38
Q

Describe the ventral sinuses

A
  • Dorsal and ventral petrosal sinuses
  • Run rostral to caudal and connect caudally with the transverse sinus
  • the cavernous sinus is a fine network of veins and connects pairs of sinuses
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39
Q

Describe the connecting sinuses

A
  • Join things up between the cerebral and spinal sinuses and dorsal and ventral
  • Extracranial connection to the maxillary vein
  • Connection to ventral venous sinuses
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40
Q

Describe the arterial supply to the spinal cord

A
  • Segmental arteries at every iintervertebral foramina
  • Cervical: vertebral artery
  • Thoracic: intercostal arteries
  • Lumbar: aorta
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41
Q

Describe the structure and physiological role of the blood brain barrier.

A
  • Isolates circulating blood from parenchyma of the brain
  • Made up of capillaries surrounded by closed overlapping endothelium, dense basement membrane, processes of astrocytes
  • Is a selective barrier for exchange substances (blocks large molecules)
  • Mainly active transport across unless lipid soluble
42
Q

Explain the clinical significance of the blood brain barrier

A
  • Is the separation between the blood and the brain
  • Large macromolecules and non-lipid soluble drugs will be excluded from the brain
  • Cannot assume that a drug will reach a useful concentration in the brain
  • Drugs may become less useful as the blood brain barrier heals due to the action of the drug so higher concentrations may be needed
43
Q

Describe the structure of the meninges and the spaces between them

A
  • 3 layers
  • Goind outside in: dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
  • Space between dura mater and arachnoid = subdural space
  • Space between arachnoid and pia = subarachnoid space
  • Spaces contain CSF
  • Are continuous around the brain and spinal cord
  • Extend along dorsal and ventral nerve roots into the intervertebral foraminae
44
Q

What is the function of CSF?

A

Protection of the brain, support (bouyancy), nutrition

45
Q

Describe the structure of the dura mater

A
  • Intercranially adherent to the periosteum of the skull
  • Spinal: separated from the periosteum by the eidural space which is filled with fat
  • Tough layer composed mainly of dense connective tissue
46
Q

Describe the structure of the pia mater

A
  • Fibres blend with arachnoid mater

- Thin layer which is adherent to underlying brain/spinal cord

47
Q

Describe the structure of the arachnoid mater

A

Fine layer pressed up against the dura mater with fine whispy filaments which extend to and blend with pia mater

48
Q

What are the functions of the meninges?

A
  • Protection
  • Containment of CSF
  • Maintenance of BBB
  • Support
49
Q

Explain how the meninges provide support to the spinal cord

A
  • Spinal cord is suspended within meninges by denticulate ligaments within dura mater
  • Some movement is possible
  • Denticulate ligaments have focal fimr atachment between the pia-arachnoid and dura mater
50
Q

Define the common types of infectious neuronal disease and the types of microorganisms that cause them

A

Neurotropic: directly infects nervous tissue, spreads cell to cell
Neural abscess: has to be next to nervous tissue, septic focus is site where infection enters nervous tissue
- Haematogeonus: spreads through blood
Can be caused by viruses, bacteria, fungi and prions

51
Q

Describe indicators of neurological infection

A

Depression, pyrexia, cervical pain, hyperaesthesia, photophobia, generalised rigidity, seizures, paralysis (local and general), ataxia, papilloedema, possible ophthalmic inflammation, systemic signs (septic shock and brachycardia)

52
Q

Outline the routes and processes of CNS infection

A
  • Trojan horse invasion
  • Transcellular invasion
  • Paracellular invasion
53
Q

Discuss microbial toxins in neurological disease

A
  • Can be ingested or produced during infection
  • For toxin to be ingested pathogen does not need to be alive
  • Rye grass staggers and algae are examples where thee toxin alone can be ingested
  • Tetanus and Botulism are examples of toxins produced by bacteria
54
Q

Describe the transcellular method of crossing the blood brain barrier

A
  • Pathogen binds to host cell and invades through cell
  • Endocytosis
  • Can be passive or acivated by pathogen
  • Staphylococci, Listeria, Cryptococcus
55
Q

Describe the paracellular method of crossing the blood brain barrier

A
  • Elicits some form of response that breaks down tight junctions or vascularisation
  • Increased pinocytic activity leading to trans-endothelial channel formation or tight junction function being broken down
  • Can occur as a result of inflammatory (cytokines, free radical) or microbial factors (adhesion molecules, microbial proteins etc)
  • Nipah virus, Lyme disease
56
Q

Describe the Trojan horse method of crossing the blood brain barrier

A
  • Pathogens already in cell (macrophage)
  • Cell can enter as a natural process and pathogen enters with cell
  • No antibody interaction
  • Requires primary infection, will spread where cell goes, may be refractive to antibdy once established
57
Q

Describe virulence factors that are used by viruses to cross the blood brain barrier

A
  • Key structural proteins (attachment processes, enzymes to modify host components)
  • enveloped proteins (virus has to attach and invade cells)
58
Q

Describe virulence factors that are used by bacteria to cross the blood brain barrier

A
  • Common surface proteins (Fimbriae) or outer membrane proteins
  • Some bacteria have specific invasion mechanisms
  • Intracellular survival mechanisms
  • Facilitate passage across Gram -ve membranes
59
Q

Describe the monosynaptic reflex.

A
  • Allows for rapid responses to changes in muscle position
  • Most muscles are antagonistic
  • Reciprocal inhibition of flexors and extensors of the same joint
60
Q

Compare monosynaptic and polysynaptic relfex arcs

A
  • Monosynaptic controls one area at a time (flexors and tensors of the same joint)
  • Polysynaptic is slow and maintains posture
  • Slow fibres allow for subtle control of intrafusal muscle fibre length and tension
61
Q

Describe the structure and function of the muscle spindle

A
  • Nuclear bag fibres or nuclear chain fibres
  • Nuclear bag have nuclei in one place
  • Number of different innervations
  • 2 types of sensory: 1a (fast) and 2 (slow
  • Slow motor fibres
  • 1a associated with monosynaptic connections and reflexes
  • Slow connected with polysynaptic
  • Slow originate from flower spray endings, fast from annular spiral
  • Slow give static info, fase give dynamic info
62
Q

Describe the function of the golgi tendon organ

A
  • Within tendon, series of nerve fibres wrap around and interact with collagen fibres of tendon
  • Way to measure tension within tendon
  • Act as strain gauge
  • Produce reverse myotatic relfexes
  • Clasp knife reflex: overload of tension results in release
63
Q

Describe Schiff Sherrington syndrome

A
  • Inhibitory interneurons located on dorsolateral border of ventral grey column L1-L7
  • Ascend contralaterally to cervical intumescence
  • If cord severed, hindlimbs paralysed and rigid forelimb extension
  • Only when lying on its side, overridden when walking
64
Q

Describe the monosynaptic reflex in association with myotatic reflexes

A
  • Tendon reflexes

- Myotatic relfexes are monosynaptic

65
Q

Define proprioception

A

Positional awareness

66
Q

Compare the projections in conscious and unconscious proprioception

A

Projection into cerebellum = unconscious. 2 neurones required
Projection into somesthetic cortex = conscious. 3 neurones required

67
Q

Describe conscious proprioception

A
  • Cuneate (forelimbs)/gracile (hindlimbs and trunk) tracts
  • Run with dorsal funiculus of the spinal cord
  • Projects into spinal cord, along cord until caudal medulla, then first synapse
  • Synapses into gracile or cuneate, then derfurcates up to thalamus into sensory cortex
  • 3 neurons, crosses over midline and projects into contralateral side of the brain
68
Q

Describe unconscious proprioception

A
  • Spinocerebellar tracts
  • Hindlimbs and trunk travel by dorsal and ventral SCT
  • Forelimbs travel via spinocerebellar pathway and cranial SCT
  • Lateral funiculus
  • Difference is that information synapses when enters cord and then again when in cerebellum
69
Q

Outline the concept proprioception

A
  • Is multimodal - receptors and pathways
  • Conscious and unconscious
  • Conscious runs in dorsal funiculus, unconscious in lateral funiculus
  • Fast fibres (larger) so easier to damage
70
Q

Explain the concept of a nerve plexus

A
  • Formed as a result of contributions to limb by several somites (body units)
  • Each somite associated with one spinal nerve, several spinal nerves to each limb
  • Individual muscles in limb formed by contributions from several somites
  • Each muscle supplied by several spinal nerves
  • Muscles supplied by nerves leaving the limb plexuses
  • Individual spinal nerves need to regroup to be able to innervate the muscle together
71
Q

Describe the differences between a plexus and a spinal nerve

A
  • A plexus is a collection of somites associated with nerves
  • A spinal nerve is a collection of nerve fibres that leave the spine to innervate muscles in the limb and trunk
72
Q

Give the roots, muscles supplied and cutaneous area supplied by the suprascapular nerve

A
  • C6, 7
  • Supraspinatus, infraspinatus
  • No cutaneous supply
73
Q

Give the roots, muscles supplied and cutaneous area supplied by the subscapular nerve

A
  • C6, 7
  • Subscapularis
  • No cutaneous supply
74
Q

Give the roots, muscles supplied and cutaneous area supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve

A
  • C7, 8
  • Flexors of elbow joint
  • Medial surface of forearm (and manus in horse)
75
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the median nerve

A
  • C8, T1
  • Flexors of carpus and digits
  • Palmar surface of manus (and dorsum digit in horse)
76
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the ulnar nerve

A
  • C8, T1, 2
  • Flexors of carpus and digits
  • Caudal surface of forearm and lateral surface manus (dorsum digit in horses)
77
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the radial nerve

A
  • C7, 8, T1
  • Extensors of elbow, carpus and digits
  • Craniolateral surface of forearm and dorsum manus (except digit in horse)
78
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the axillary nerve

A
  • C7, 8
  • Flexors of elbow
  • Lateral surface of arm
79
Q

Describe what is meant by biological rhythms

A
  • A rhythm is a function which oscillates or cycles at a regular frequency
  • Biological rhythms are measurable activities generated by some internal oscillator
80
Q

Give examples of rhythms and explain each.

A
  • Circadian: a daily rhythmical change in behaviour or in a physiological process. Roughly a 24 hour cycle
  • Infradian: rhythms with periods longer than the period of a circadian rhyth i.e. with a frequency less than one cycle in 28 hours e.g. reproductive cycles
  • Ultradian: rhythms with periods shorter than the period of a circadian rhythm e.g. REM cycle in sleep
  • Seasonal (type of infradian) e.g. polyoestrus, seasonal polyoestrus (long day/short day), monoestrus
81
Q

Describe the function of rhythms

A
  • Synchronisation of the body with the environment

- Maintenance of internal temporal endogenous processes within the body

82
Q

What are Zeitgeber and give examples

A
  • Any external lcue that entrains the internal time keeping system of organisms
  • Strongest is light
  • Others include temperature, social interactions, pharmacological manipulation and eating/drinking patterns
  • Zeitgeber -> entrainment -> endogenous rhythm
83
Q

Give the positions of biological clocks

A
  • Retina
  • Suprachiasmatic nucleus
  • Pineal gland
84
Q

Describe the retina as a biological clock

A
  • Photopigment present in ganglion cells in retina whose axons transmit information to the SCN, thalamus and olivary pretectal nucleus
  • Rods and cones not required
  • Melanopsin containing ganglion cells in teh retina
  • Melanopsin required to transform light into a nerve impulse
85
Q

Describe the suprachiasmatic nucleus as a biological clock

A
  • Is part of retinohypthalamic pathway
  • Nucleus sitauted atop optic chiasm
  • Is the position of the circadian clock
  • Retina -> retinohypothalamic pathway -> SCN (in hypothalamus)
86
Q

Describe the pineal gland as a biological clock

A
  • In diencephalon
  • Attached to dorsal tectum and produces melatonin and plays role in circadian and seasonal rhythms
  • Located immediately behind the thalamus
  • Melatonin is an amino acid derivative from tryptophan
  • Responds to light - more melatonin when dark, less when light
  • Melatonin induces sleep
  • Represses reproduction in long day breeders
  • Stimulates reproduction in short day breeders
87
Q

Explain how biological clocks work

A
  • Process: light enters the eye -> info from retiina to SCN -> SCN sends signal to pineal gland -> meltonin secretion altered
  • Primary pacemaker of SCN is entrained to solar time by retinal afferents
  • Maintains and synchronises tissue-based clocks in major organ systems by endocrine, autonomic and behavioural cues
  • Linked to structures across the body, not just the brain
88
Q

Describe the function of peripheral clocks and how they work

A
  • Circadian clocks exist in CNS and peripheral tissues
  • SCN is master clock (light from retina)
  • Peripheral clocks of many organs present, can be entrained by signals from SCN as well as otehr signals such as nutrient availability
89
Q

Explain what chronopharmacology is and outline its veterinary relevance

A
  • Targeting the clock to treat metabolic diseases
  • Reduce toxicity of anti-cancer drugs
  • Circadian changes in blood pressure (high bp in early morning becuase high levels of hormones in morning)
  • Veterinary relevance:
    little except husbandry, welfare, reproduction, depression as a disease of circadian clocks
90
Q

Describe the location of the lumbosacral plexus and give the nerves forming it

A
  • In and around sublumbar muscles ventral to the lumbar vertebrae
  • Ventral rami of L4-S2
91
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the femoral nerve (and saphenous) nerves

A
  • Roots: L4-6
  • Muscles (femoral): quadriceps femoris
  • Muscles (saphenous): sartorius
  • Cutaneous supply (femoral): none
  • Cutaneous supply (saphenous): medial surface of leg to metatarsus
92
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the obturator nerve

A
  • Roots: L4-6
  • Muscles: adductor group (OOGAP)
  • Cutaneous supply: none
93
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the cranial and caudal gluteal nerves

A
  • Roots: L6-S2
  • Muscles: guteal muscles
  • Cutaneous supply: none
94
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the caudal cutaneous femoral nerve

A
  • Roots: S1 -2
  • Muscles: none
  • Cutaneous supply: caudal aspect of thigh
95
Q

Give the roots, muscles and cutaneous area supplied by the sciatic nerve (including tibial and common peroneal branches)

A
  • Roots: L6-S2
  • Muscles (sciatic): hamstring muscle group, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus
  • Muscles (tibial): extensors of hock and flexors of digits
  • Muscles (common peroneal): flexors of hock and extensors of digits
  • Cutaneous supply (sciactic): none
  • Cutaneous supply (tibial): caudomedial aspect of leg, plantar foot (dorsum of digit in horses)
  • Cutaneous supply (common peroneal): craniolateral aspect of leg, dorsum of foot (except digit in horses)
96
Q

Discuss basic neural and neurochemical mechanisms of anxiety-related behaviour

A
  • Stimulation of SNS
  • Release of noradrenaline and adrenaline
  • Cortisol released due to action of SNS (stress hormone)
  • Hypothalamus - pituitary - adrenal axis (HPA axis) has been activated in a stressful situation
97
Q

Describe the endocrine processes involved in anxiety

A
  • HPA (hypothalamus pituitary adrenal) axis activated in a stressful situation(BY SNS)
  • Hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), carried to anterior pituitary gland via portal system, stimulates ACTH release
  • ACTH enters blood stream, acts on adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids
98
Q

Describe the brain structures involved in anxiety and explain how they are involved

A
  • Amygdala: almond shaped groups of neurons deepp within medial temporal lobes next to lateral ventricles
  • Central nucleus is most important part - sends information to the rest of the body
  • Sensory input and input from hypothalamus
  • Output to hypothalamis, midbrain, pons and medulla
99
Q

Explain how pharmacology can be used to treat anxiety

A
  • e.g. Benzodiazepines
  • Can also induce sedation
  • Bind to receptors in amygdala
  • Make it easier for Cl- ions to pass through membrane, change membran potential - hyperpolarised, more difficult to generate action potential
  • i.e. Benzodiazepines make amygdala less responsive to stimuli
100
Q

Explain how the brain, periphery and physiological reactions interact in anxiety

A
  • Make a circle
  • All affect each other
  • Perception of fear leads to physiological response, which are also affected by feelings of fear, however this also works in reverse

VetMed Year 1 (13 decks)

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