Neuro 1 Flashcards

(250 cards)

1
Q

What are the components of the anatomical position?

A

SHAFT (Standing erect, head facing forward, arms at the side with palm facing forward, feet slightly apart, toes facing forward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

State the layers of the scalp (from superficial to deep)

A

SCALP (Skin, connective tissues, aponeurosis, loose areolar, pericranium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones? (PT FOES)

A

PT FOES (parietal, temporal); (frontal, occipital, ethmoid, sphenoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the paired cranial bones?

A

parietal and temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the unpaired cranial bones?

A

frontal, occipital, ethmoid, and sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many cranial bones are there?

A

There are 8 cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the sutures?

A

This separates one part of the cranial bone from another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This separated two parietal bones.

A

Saggital suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This separates the frontal from parietal bone.

A

Coronal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This separates parietal bones to occipal bone.

A

Lamboidal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This separates the parietal and temporal bone.

A

Squamosal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the facial bones?

A

Vomer, Maxilla, Mandible, Nasal bone, inferior nasal conchae, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bones, palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

State the paired and unpaired facial bones.

A

Paired: Maxilla, nasal bone, inferior nasal conchae, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bone, palatine bones
Unpaired: Mandible, vomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This is the moveable and strongest part of the facial bone.

A

Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do you call the nerves attached to the spinal cord?

A

spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many nerves are there that are associated to the PNS?

A

86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the somatic nervous system?

A

This is the fight or flight response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Rest and digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Known as the flight or fight response

A

Somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Known as the “rest and digest” nervous system.

A

Autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the embryonic divisions?

A

ProMeRho (Procencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencelon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the subdivisions of the prosencephalon? How many are there?
26
This embryonic division is your forebrain.
Procencephalon (forebrain)
27
This embryonic division is your midbrain
Mesencephalon (midbrain)
28
This is the most inferior part of the ebryonic division
Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
29
What are the subdivision/s of mesencephalon? How many are there?
Mesencephalon. 1
30
What are the secondary division/s of the rhombencephalon? How many are there?
Metencephalon Myelencephalon There are 2
31
What are the adult structures of telencephalon? How many are there. State what embryonic division is this.
BGCH (Basal ganglia, cerebrum, hipocampus)
32
What are the adult structures of diencephalon? How many are there? State the embryonic division.
SHET PI (Subthalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalmus, Thalamus, Pituitary gland, infindibulum
33
What are the adult structures of mesencephalon?
TT CC (tectum, tegmentum, crus cerebri)
34
What are the subdivisions of the metencephalon?
pons, cerebellum
35
What are the subdivisions of the myelencephalon?
medulla oblongata, spinal cord
36
What is the largest part of the brain?
cerebrum
37
What are the two parts of the cerebrum?
left and right hemisphere
38
What does the left hemisphere control?
logic, language, numbers,
39
When this hemisphere is damaged, the person may have dyscalculia/acalculia or may have aphasia. What hemisphere is this?
left hemisphere
40
Difference of ideomotor and ideational apraxia
ideomotor (can do automatic tasks howere is unable to do command tasks), ideational (cannot do command and automatic tasks)
41
The patient has difficulty with dressing and undressing. What hemisphere is affected?
right hemisphere
42
The patient has difficulty with automatic and command tasks. What hemisphere is damaged and state the kind of apraxia.
Ideational apraxia. Left hemisphere
43
What are the two types of cells in the nervous system?
Neurons and Neuroglia
44
This type of cell in the nervous system hold neurons together. Enhancement. Some common types of this cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes (which form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system)
Neuroglia
45
This carries electrical impulses (called action potentials) away from the neuron's cell body to other neurons, muscles, or glands.
Axon
46
This receive signals (electrical or chemical) from other neurons or sensory receptors and transmit them toward the neuron's cell body (soma). They act like antennae, gathering information from the surrounding environment or neighboring cells.
Dendrites
47
This is the foundation of the nervous system or the supporting framework, and the most numerous in the CNS
Astrocytes
48
The myelin sheath of CNS
oligodendrocytes
49
These cells are involved in immune system and macrophage of nervous system
Microglia
50
The supporting framework of PNS for more effective conduction
Satellite cells
51
The myelin sheath of PNS
Schwann cells
52
What is the function of basal ganglia?
Modulation, initiaion, smoothens motor, performance, tone (MIST)
53
What are the four lobes?
Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
54
What is the frontal lobe responsible for?
Motor, language, procedural memory, analytical thinking, behavior, emotions, cognition, judgement, intelligence, personality
55
What is the parietal lobe responsible for?
Sensation and perception
56
What is the temporal lobe responsible for?
Hearing, smelling, and memory (HSM - High School Musical)
57
What is the occipital lobe responsible for?
Vision
58
What is the responsibility of insular lobe
Pain, emotion, decision making
59
Lesion in the hippocampus will lead to
Amnesia
60
Limbic lobe consists of
Parahippocampus - encodes memory (STM) Uncus - Associated with CN 1 Cingulate gyrus - Associated with pain Hippocampus - Storage of memory (LTM) Amygdala - Sex motivation PUCHA
61
What is the function of the uncus?
62
What is the name and function of the BA4? What happens if there is a lesion?
Primary motor; this executes the movement. Lesion in this area may lead to flaccidity
63
What is the name of BA6? What happens if there is a lesion in BA6?
Premotor cortex; problems with movements, such as modifications of movement. Lesion in this area may lead to spasticity
64
What is BA8? What happens if there lesion there?
Frontal eyefield. Problems in this area may lead to frontal gaze palsy
65
What is BA9-12? What happens if there is lesion in that area?
Prefrontal. There will be behavioral changes.
66
What is BA44? What happens if there is lesion in that area?
Broca's area. Broca's aphasia
67
What are the Brodmann Areas that are under the frontal lobe area?
BA 4 & 6, BA 8, BA 9-12, BA 44
68
What are the Brodmann areas in the parietal lobe?
BA 3, 2, & 1, BA 5 & 7, BA 39, BA 40, BA 43
69
What is BA 3, 1, 2? What happens if there is lesion in that area?
primary somatosensory area; difficulties with sensation–it will lead to hemianesthesia
70
What is BA 5, 7? What happens if there is lesion in that area?
secondary somatosensory area; there will be inability to know the real sensory stimuli–tactile agnosia
71
What is BA39? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?
Angular gyrus; Gertsmann Syndrome
72
What is BA40? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?
Supramarginal gyrus. It may lead to ideomotor apraxia, somatoagnosia (soma meaning body, may problem with identifying body parts)
73
What is BA43? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?
Gustatory area. If there is lesion it will lead to aguesia (loss of taste)
74
What are the BA's area in the temporal lobe?
Wernicke's (22), primary auditory and secondary auditory brodmann areas (41 & 42)
75
What is BA 41? What happens if there is lesion in this area?
Primary auditory, deafness
76
What is BA 42? What happens if there is lesion in this area?
secondary auditory, difficulty with processing the hearing also known as secondary dysprosody
77
What is BA 22? What happens if there is lesion in this area?
Wernicke's, Wernicke's aphasia
78
What are the Brodmann area's of the occipital lobe?
BA 17, 18, 19
79
What brodmann area is the primary visual? What happens if there is lesion in that area?
BA 17. Blindness
80
What is brodmann area 18 and 19? What happens if there is lesion in this area?
Visual association; it will lead to visual hallucination, visual agnosia if both hemisphere
81
What are the commissural fiber?
This connects corresponding regions of two hemispheres
82
This structure of the brain is considered as the greatest commissure.
Corpus callosum
83
This connects various cortical regions within the same hemisphere.
Association fiber
84
This structure is the greatest association fiber.
Arcuate fasciculus
85
This connects the cerebral hemisphere with interior structures–distant connection
Projection fibers
86
______ are considered as projection fibers.
Tracts
87
What are the anatomical structures of the basal ganglia?
CPG (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen)
88
This composes of the CPG (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen)
Corpus striatum
89
What is under neostriatum?
Caudate nucleus, putamen
90
What is under lentiform?
Putamen, Globus pallidus
91
This is the other name of globus pallidus
Paleostriatum
92
What are the excitatory neurotransmitters? (AGE)
Acetycholine, Glutamate, Epinepherine/norepinephrine
93
What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters? State the areas of which they are most concentrated in.
GABA, dopamine, glycine GABA is most concentrated on cerebral cortex Glycine is most concentrated on spinal cord Dopamine is most concentrated on corpus striatum
94
This is the most abundant, or widely distributed excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS
Glutamate
95
What is the function of the subthalamus?
Motor control
96
What is the function of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (hypothalamus)?
Circadian rhythm–sleep-wake cycle
97
What is the function of preoptic medial nucleus?
sex drive and libido
98
What is the function of anterior of posterior hypothalamus?
regulates the temperature; anterior - removes the heart, posterior - puts heat inside
99
What is the function of lateral hypothalamus?
"l" for laklak, also the hunger and thirst center
100
What is the function of medial hypothalamus?
"musog" for satiety
101
What are the two components of the epithalamus?
Pineal gland and habenular nuclei
102
What is the function of the pineal gland (epithalamus)?
Secretes melatonin–induces sleep
103
What is the function of the habenular nuclei (epithalamus)?
Responsible for sensation such as olfaction (smell)
104
What is the function of the thalamus?
Responsible for the sensory relay center except for olfaction
105
This structure is also known as the little brain, located at the posterior aspect of the skull.
cerebellum
106
What is the difference between cerebrum and cerebellum?
The cerebrum controls the contralateral side of the body while the cerebellum controls the ipsilateral (same side)
107
What are the main functions of cerebellum?
coordination, balance, and muscle tone
108
What is the function of the brainstem?
Bridge all tracts and is considered as the reflex center. Cranial nerves III-XII are found here.
109
What cranial nerves are found in the midbrain?
CN III, IV
110
What cranial nerves are found in the pons?
CN V, VI, VII, VIII
111
What cranial nerves are found in the medulla oblongata?
CN IX-XII
112
What cranial nerve is found in the telencephalon?
CN I - Olfactory nerve
113
What cranial nerve is found in the diencephalon?
CN II
114
What separates the medulla oblangata?
foramen magnum
115
This is where the spinal cord tapers off (it is where the spinal cord is fading)
conus medullaris
116
This is the prolongation of the pia mater; attached to the coccyx
filum terminale
117
What is the Bell Magendie Law
Ventral & Dorsal Ventral/Anterior - efferent (motor) Dorsal - afferent (sensory)
118
Px has ventral spinal cord lesion, what happens to the patient?
motor problems
119
Px has dorsal spinal cord lesion, what happens to the patient?
sensory problems
120
What are meninges?
These are the layers of the brain
121
What are the three layers of the meninges?
DAP (Dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater)
122
What is the outermost aka pachymeninx?
Dura mater
123
It is the middle part of the meninges
arachnoid
124
What is the inner most layer of the meninges?
pia mater
125
What are leptomeninges?
pia mater + arachnoid
126
What are ventricles?
cavities that contain the CBF
127
What is the function of the cerebrospinal fluids (csf)? (PINCH)
Protection, Intracranial pressure regulation, Nutrition, Cushion, Homeostasis
128
What is the choroid plexus?
Main producer of the CBF
129
What is the biggest ventricle?
Lateral ventricles
130
What is the interventricular foramen?
foramen monroe
131
State the CSF Flow
Choroid plexus, lateral ventricles, intraventricular foramen (foramen monroe), third ventricle, cerebral aqueduact of sylivus, 4th ventticle, openings (foramen magendie, foramen luschka), central canal, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi
132
Main absorber of the CSF
Arachnoid villi
133
What are the main arteries?
* Internal carotid artery (OAMPoC) * Basilar artery (A Pon Las Po) * Vertebral artery (Men PAMP)subarachnoid space (10) arachnoice villi
134
What are the branches of ICA?
Opthalmic, Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA), Medial Cerebral Artery, Posterior Communicating Artery (PCA)
135
What happens if there is lesion in the ACA?
Problems with LE > UE
136
What does the ACA supply?
Supplies corpus callosum and Basal Ganglia
137
This is the largest branch or terminal branch of ICA, and supplies mostly the lateral portion of the cerebral cortex. This is also the most common stroke.
MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)
138
When a person has MCA, which is the most affected?
CVA affectations: UE x Face > LE; aphasia, dysphagia
139
This connects anterior and posterior circulation and junction between 2 ICA and terminal branches of basilar artery.
Posterior communication artery
140
This is the 1st branch of the basilar artery. This supplies pons and cerebellum.
Anterior Inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
141
Supplies the pons and is found in basilar artery
Pontine Artery
142
This supplies internal ear
Labrynthine artery
143
Supplies the midbrain
Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)
144
This is the terminal branch of the basilar artery. It supplies the thalamus and subthalamus. CVA affectation would be vision.
Posterior cerebral artery
145
What are the branches of Vertebral artery?
Men PAMP (Meningeal artery, posterior spinal artery, anterior spinal artery, medullary artery, pica (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)
146
This branch supplies the meninges
Meningal artery
147
This supplies posterior 1/3 of spinal cord
Posterior spinal artery
148
This supplies anterior 2/3 of spinal cord
Anterior spinal artery
149
Supplies medulla oblongata
Medullary Artery
150
Considered as the brainstem stroke
PICA (Posterior inferior cerebellar artery)
151
This kind of stroke has greater affectations in the upper extremeties and face. Contralateral hemiplegia.
MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)
152
What are the symptoms of people with MCA?
Aphasia, dysphagia, contralateral hemiplegie (UE and face > LE) contralateral hemianesthesia UE x Face > LE, Frontal gaze palsy, contralateral hemianopsia, aphasia/aprosodia, apraxia,
153
State what kind of stroke. Inability to stand and walk and has no to little reaction.
Anterior Cerebral Artery
154
May exhibit primitive reflexes and may have disconnection apraxia. The person may also exhibit uninhibited neurogenic bladder.
Anterior Cerebral Artery
155
Kind of stroke that has frontal gaze palsy. Apraxia and dysphagia.
MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)
156
Has gegenhalten and pseudobulbar affect
Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
157
Visual impairment and ballint's syndrome
Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
158
Hemisensory deficit or thalamic pain
Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
159
What is the Ballint's syndrome? What kind of stroke will the patient have?
PCA. Symptoms include the following: * Optic apraxia * Oculomotor apraxia * Simultagnosia -> inability to know the general picture
160
This is filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It only extends inferiorly as far as the second sacral vertebral and contains cerebral arteries, veins, and cranial nerves.
subarchnoid space
161
How many cranial nerves are there?
12 pairs
162
What cranial nerves are sensory?
CN I, CN II, CN VIII (3)
163
What cranial nerves are motor?
CN 3, 4, 6, 11, 12
164
What cranial nerves are mixed?
CN V, CN VII, CN IX, CN X
165
Where is the exit point of CN I? State the name of this CN.
Olfactory Nerve. Cribriform Plate
166
Where is the exit point of CN II? State the name of this CN.
Optic Nerve. Exit point: Optic Canal
167
Where are the exit points of CN III, IV, CN V - V1 (Opthalmic division), CN VI?
CN III Oculomotor, CN IV Trochlear, CN V Trigeminal (V1 - Opthalmic Division), CN VI Abducens; Exit: Superior Orbital Fissure
168
This CN has three branches. What CN is this? What is V1, V2, V3 of this CN?
CN V Trigeminal Nerve V1 - Opthalmic V2 - Maxillary V3 - Mandibular
169
Where is the exit point of V2 of Trigeminal Nerve?
Foramen rotundum
170
Where is the exit point of V3 of Trigeminal Nerve?
Foramen ovale
171
Where is the exit point of CN VII and VIII?
Internal Acoustic Meatus
172
Where are the exit points of CN IX, CN X, CN XI?
Jugular Foramen
173
Where is the exit point of CN XII?
Hypoglossal Canal
174
State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin in the diencephalon?
CN II
175
State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin in the telencephalon?
CN I
176
State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at midbrain?
CN III, CN IV
177
State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at pons?
CN V, VI, VII, VIII
178
State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at the medulla oblongata
CN IX - CN XII
179
What is the general function of the CN I? Lesion in this area will lead to what?
Smell. Anosmia
180
What is the function of CN II?
Sight
181
What is the function of CN III?
Constrict pupils, accomodates, moves eyes
182
What is the function of CN IV and VI?
Eye movement
183
What is the function of CN V?
Chewing, sensation of the front of the face
184
What is the function of CN VII?
Movement of facial features, taste, salivation, crying
185
What is the function of CN VIII?
Hearing and balance
186
What is the function of CN IX?
Taste, salivation, swallowing, monitors carotid body and sinus
187
What is the function of CN X?
Taste, swallowing, lifts palate, supplies at the thorax and abdomen
188
What is the function of CN XI?
Turns head and lifts shoulder
189
What is the function of CN XII?
Tongue movement
190
How many pairs does spinal nerves have?
31 pairs
191
What are the plexuses?
cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
192
State the lesion given the following:
193
Hypertonia
UMNL
194
Hypotonio
LMNL
195
Flaccidity
LMNL
196
Hyperreflexia or Increased deep tendon reflex
UMNL
197
Atrophy (disused) - what you do not use, you will loose
UMNL
198
Atrophy (denervated); severe muscle wasting
LMNL
199
Pathologic reflexes
UMNL
200
Spontaneous muscle activity: fasciculation, fibrillation, and muscle cramps
LMNL
201
Hyporeflexia or decreased deep tendon reflex
LMNL
202
Affected structures are corticospinal tract and corticobulbar tracts
UMNL
203
Cranial nerve lesion and spinal nerve lesion
LMNL
204
Contralateral lower quadrant palsy of face
UMNL
205
Ipsilateral half palsy of face
LMNL
206
Pseudobulbar palsy, pseudobulbar affect and emotional incontinence
UMNL
207
Bulbar palsy
LMNL
208
A 55-year-old male presents with progressive weakness, stiffness, and spasticity in his legs. He has difficulty walking and complains of muscle cramps. Where is the potential lesion? UMN or LMN?
UMNL
209
A 25-year-old female experienced a sudden onset of facial droop, difficulty speaking, and weakness in her right arm.Symptoms have worsened over the past hour.
UMNL
210
A newborn infant is noted to have difficulty feeding, weak cry, and decreased muscle tone. On examination, there is tongue fasciculation and absent reflexes.
LMNL
211
It is the smalled functional element controlled by the motor control system
Motor unit
212
It supplies the entire lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere except for the narrow strip, occipital pole, and inferolateral surface of the hemisphere.
MCA (Middle cerebral artery)
213
The space that is entered during a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid sample is the:
Subarachnoid space
214
The arcuate fasciculus connects regions in the temporal lobes with regions in the frontal lobes and is one type of fiber tract.
Association
215
Brodmann area 44, or the _____ area, is an important area in spoken language.
Broca's
216
A short tube joining the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain:
217
State the correct cerebrospinal fluid flow from formation, circulation to absorption.
Choroid plexus, lateral ventricles, foramen monro, third ventricle, sylvian aquedact, fourth ventricle, openings, foramen of magendie, foramen of luschka, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi, superior sagittal sinus
218
This _____ is the basic unit of the nervous system
neuron
219
What is the deepest brain covering?
Pia mater
220
Main site of absorption of the CSF flow
arachnoid villi
221
CBF is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called
choroid plexus
222
Executive functions such as reasoning, planning, and problem solving are associated with the operation of the _____ lobe
Left
223
Carries impulses to the brain
afferent fibers
224
In the cranial cavity, this structures act as the outermost covering for the brain, but also as the lining membrane on the inner surfaces of the bones. It also gives valuable support to the brain, the partitions preventing shifting thereby safeguarding the brain against injury.
Dura mater
225
The CBF serves as the following functions
PINCH (Protection, Intracranial pressure regulation, Nutrition, Buoyancy for the brain serving as a mechanical cushion, Preserves homeostasis in the nervous system)
226
Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:
Posterior communicating arteries
227
Which of the following statements concern the subarachnoid space? a. It is filled with cerebrospinal fluid b. It extends inferiorly as far as the fourth sacral vertebra c. The cerebral arteries and veins are not located in subarachnoid space d. The cranial nerves lie outside the subarachnoid space in sheaths derived from the dura mater
a. It is filled with CBF Explanation: The subarachnoid space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It only extends inferiorly as far as the second sacral vertebral and contains cerebral arteries, veins, and cranial nerves.
228
Ataxic dysarthria is related to a lesion of ________
Cerebellum The cerebellum serves a comparator function during motor control and helps coordinate all movements underlying an action. Focal lesions to the cerebellar cortex result in articulatory overshoot or undershoot, dyscoordination, and degraded.
229
Gertsmann syndrome is characterized by agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation. This occurs as a result of injury to which lobe of the brain?
Parietal
230
Discrete muscle movements relating to swallowing, chewing and facial movement are elicited more readily from stimulation of which part of the Primary motor area?
Lateral
231
Cranial nerve responsible for salivation via parotid gland
CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve
232
Cranial nerve affected supplies the stylopharyngeus
CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve
233
Cranial nerve responsible for taste sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve
234
All of the following are characteristics of the accessory nerve except? a.) Divided into cranial accessory and spinal accessory nerves b.) in charge of movement of tongue c.) elevates shoulders, rotates and flexes the neck d.) only has motor function
b.) in charge of movement of the tongue
235
Cranial nerve responsible for the sensation of the face
Trigeminal Nerve CN V
236
The human peripheral nervous system is composed of _______. I. 10 pairs of cranial nerves II. 12 pairs of cranial nerves III. 31 pairs of spinal nerves IV. 33 pairs of spinal nerves
12 pairs of cranial nerves
237
How many facial bones do we have?
14
238
Cranial bones consist of how many bones?
8
239
Only unpaired bones in the facial bones
Vomer Mandible
240
Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a.) Parietal b.) Nasal c.) Maxillae d.) Zygomatic e/) Palatine
A.) Parietal It is a cranial bone
241
Aponeurosis is more superficial than loose connective tissue? True or False
True
242
The following are muscles of forced expiration except: a.) Innermost intercostals b.) Transversus thoracis c.) Pectoralis major d.) Transeversus abdominis
Pectoralis major is an accessory muscle of inspiration
243
It is the volume of air exchanged in one respiratory cycle
Vital capacity
244
The facial muscle constricts oral opening
Orbicularis oris
245
The terminal branch of the internal carotid artery
Middle cerebral artery
246
An important structure adjacent to the brainstem that contains the hypothalamus (which controls emotions) and the thalamus (which relays sensory impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex) is called the
Diencephalon
247
Cavities within the brain and are filled with CBF
Ventricles
248
Occlusion of the main trunk of the MCA produces the following except: a.) Aphasia if occlusion in the dominant hemisphere b.) Decreased sensation in the same regions c.) Paralysis of the opposite side of the body d.) Paralysis of the same side of the body
d.) Paralysis of the same side of the body
249
The corpus striatum is composed of three nuclear masses, which are the
Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus
250
The structure that regulates body posture, equilibrium, and coordinated fine motor movements is the
Cerebrum