neuro Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

treatment of a brain abscess

A

Brain abscess: IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) + metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

presentation of a brain abscess

A

Fever, headache and features of raised intracranial pressure (vomiting, blurring of vision)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

suspected vestibular shwannoma- diagnosis

A

audiogram and MRI head scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

presentation of vestibular schwannoma/ acoustic neuroma

A

The classical history of vestibular schwannoma includes a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what condition can bilateral vestibular schwannoma/ acoustic neuroma commonly occur within?

A

NF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is autonomic dysreflexia?

A

clinical syndrome occurs in patients who have had a spinal cord injury at, or above T6 spinal level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

presentation of autonomic dysreflexia

A

extreme hypertension, flushing and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, agitation, and in untreated cases severe consequences of extreme hypertension have been reported, e.g. haemorrhagic stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MS- CSF findings

A

oligoclonal bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

presentation of dyskinesia

A

dystonia, chorea, athetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

examples and noteable side effect of dopamine agonists

A

bromocrimptine, cabergoline, pergolide

side effect= pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe a 6th cranial nerve palsy

A

internuclear ophthalmoplegia and conjugate lateral gaze disorder

so problems moving the eye (muscles) with a lateral gaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

presentation of optic neuritis

A

Optic neuritis presents with unilateral reduced vision developing over hours to days. Key features are:

Central scotoma. This is an enlarged blind spot.
Pain on eye movement
Impaired colour vision
Relative afferent pupillary defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

management of MS relapses

A

methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

oculomotor palsy presentation

A

‘down-and-out’ eye position, hence the patient’s difficulty with eye adduction

ptosis and inability to adduct eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

presentation of syringomyelia

A

a ‘cape-like’ (neck, shoulders and arms)
loss of sensation to temperature but the preservation of light touch, proprioception and vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

presentation of encephalitis

A

fever, headache, psych symptoms, seizures, vomit

focal symptoms (aphasia etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what cranial nerves does a vestibular schwannoma affect

A

Cranial nerves V, VII and VIII are affected in vestibular schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

trochlear nerve palsy

A

Palsy results in defective downward gaze → vertical diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

trigeminal nerve palsy

A

Lesions may cause:
trigeminal neuralgia
loss of corneal reflex (afferent)
loss of facial sensation
paralysis of mastication muscles
deviation of jaw to weak side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

abducens nerve palsy

A

Palsy results in defective abduction → horizontal diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

facial nerve palsy

A

Lesions may result in:
flaccid paralysis of upper + lower face
loss of corneal reflex (efferent)
loss of taste
hyperacusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

vestibulocochlear nerve palsy

A

Hearing loss
Vertigo, nystagmus
Acoustic neuromas are Schwann cell tumours of the cochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve palsy

A

Lesions may result in;
hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex
loss of gag reflex (afferent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

vagus nerve palsy

A

Lesions may result in;
uvula deviates away from site of lesion
loss of gag reflex (efferent)

25
accessory nerve palsy
Lesions may result in; weakness turning head to contralateral side
26
hypoglossal nerve palsy
Tongue deviates towards side of lesion
27
side effects of levodopa
dry mouth anorexia palpitations postural hypotension psychosis
28
epilepsy- localising features of focal seizures- temporal lobe
Hallucinations (auditory/gustatory/olfactory), Epigastric rising/Emotional, Automatisms (lip smacking/grabbing/plucking), Deja vu/Dysphasia post-ictal)
29
epilepsy- localising features of focal seizures- frontal lobe
Head/leg movements, posturing, post-ictal weakness, Jacksonian march
30
epilepsy- localising features of focal seizures- parietal lobe
paraesthesia
31
epilepsy- localising features of focal seizures- occipital lobe
flutters/ flashes
32
MS- first line management of spasticity
baclofen and gabapentin
33
normal pressure hydrocephalus presentation
Urinary incontinence + gait abnormality + dementia wet, wobbly, wacky
34
encephalitis- CSF findings
lymphocytosis, elevated protein
35
what is encephalitis commonly associated with?
measles
36
criteria for a total anterior circulation infarct
involves middle and anterior cerebral arteries all 3 of 1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg 2. homonymous hemianopia 3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia
37
criteria for a partial anterior circulation infarct
2 of: 1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg 2. homonymous hemianopia 3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia
38
criteria for a Lacunar infarct
involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia presents with 1 of the following: 1. unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three. 2. pure sensory stroke. 3. ataxic hemiparesis
39
criteria for a posterior circulation infarct
involves vertebrobasilar arteries presents with 1 of the following: 1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes 2. loss of consciousness 3. isolated homonymous hemianopia
40
criteria for lateral medullary syndrome
ipsilateral: ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy e.g. Horner's contralateral: limb sensory loss
41
criteria for Webers syndrome
ipsilateral III palsy contralateral weakness
42
what medications should be avoided in myasthenia gravis?
penicillamine quinidine, procainamide beta-blockers lithium phenytoin antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines
43
myasthenia gravis- investigations
Acetylcholine receptor (ACh-R) antibodies (85% of patients) Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies (10% of patients) LRP4 (low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4) antibodies (less than 5%) A CT or MRI of the thymus gland is used to look for a thymoma. The edrophonium test can be helpful where there is doubt about the diagnosis.
44
treatment of myasthenia gravis
Reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (usually pyridostigmine or neostigmine) Immunosuppression (e.g. prednisolone or azathioprine) suppresses the production of antibodies Thymectomy can improve symptoms even in patients without a thymoma Monoclonal antibodies- Rituximab, Eculizumab
45
which anti-emetic is safe to use in Parkinsons and why?
domperidone- does not cross the blood-brain barrier
46
clinical signs of idiopathic intracranial hypertension
headache blurred vision papilloedema (usually present) enlarged blind spot sixth nerve palsy may be present (inability to abduct eye)
47
medication overuse headache- how should analegesia (simple and opioids) be discontinued?
simple analgesia + triptans: stop abruptly opioid analgesia: withdraw gradually
48
parkinsons- describe the tremor
unilateral tremor that improves with voluntary movement
49
diagnosis of an acoustic neuroma
MRI of the cerebellopontine angle
50
characteristic features of CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterised by rapid onset dementia and myoclonus
51
migraine prophylaxis
topiramate/ propanolol
52
what medication used in the management of epilepsy must you be cautious with if the patient is on warfarin?
sodium valporate
53
what cranial nerves does a vestibular shwannoma effect?
Cranial nerves V, VII and VIII
54
what is neurofibromatosis type 2 assosciated with?
Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas
55
nerve supplying the innervation to the finger extensors (motor)
radial
56
nerve supplying the interossei muscles (adduction of the fingers)
ulnar
57
nerve supplying sensation to the lateral shoulder
axillary nerve
58
what drugs can cause exacerbations of myasthenia gravis?
The following drugs may exacerbate myasthenia: penicillamine quinidine, procainamide beta-blockers lithium phenytoin antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines