Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Which medications may worsen myasthenia gravis

A

Beta blockers
Several antibiotics
Lithium and anti malarials
anticholiergics- oxybutynin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disease may present with worsening neuro symptoms after exercise

A

multiple sclerosis (uhtoff’s phenomenon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe optic neuritis

A

inflammation of the optic nerve - leads to pain and changes in vision such as reduced visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First line treatment of focal seizures

A

lamotrigine or levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

first line treatment of absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where would a lesion causing disinhibition be expected to be located in the brain?

A

the prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If presenting within 4.5 hours and having confirmed occlusion on imaging, what should be the treatment?

A

thrombolysis and thrombectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When can antiepileptic medication be stopped?

A

after being seizure free for >2 years.
Drugs are stopped over 2-3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of muscle spasticity in ms

A

baclofen or gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do retinal artery strokes present q

A

amaurosis fugax- transient darkening of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common organism associated with Guillain - Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long do cluster headaches typically last

A

15 minutes to 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are acoustic neuromas?

A

Slow growing tumours of the Schwann cells that surround the auditory nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve)
Also called vestibular schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are acoustic neuromas located?

A

At the cerebellopontine angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At what age do acoustic neuromas typically present?

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If someone has bilateral acoustic neuromas what is suggested?

A

Neurofibromatosis type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presentation of acoustic neuromas

A

Unilateral hearing loss
Intermittent dizziness and vertigo
Sensation of fullness in the ear
Facial numbness- due to tumour compressing the facial nerve
Unilateral tinnitus
Swallowing difficulty
Cerebellar symptoms if compression of brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Two complications of acoustic neuromas

A

Facial nerve palsy
Obstructive hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are acoustic neuromas diagnosed

A

Audio gram
MRI
CT head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment of acoustic neuromas

A

1st line- focussed radiation or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is neurofibromatosis

A

A genetic condition causing nerve cell tumours (neuromas) to develop throughout the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Genetics of neurofibromatosis type I

A

Mutation in a gene on chromosome 17 which codes for a protein called neurofibromin (a tumour suppressor protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the inheritance of neurofibromatosis type I

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Genetics of neurofibromatosis type II
A mutation in a gene on chromosome 22 which encodes for the tumour suppressor protein Merlin
26
What is anterior cord syndrome?
incomplete spinal injury that affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord
27
Causes of anterior cord syndrome
- Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery and ischaemia to the are that the ASA supplies - direct injury or trauma - spinal canal mass - radiation myelopathy
28
Causes of occlusion to to the anterior spinal artery
iatrogenic - cross clamping of the aorta during thoracic or abdominal aortic aneurysm repair severe hypotension atherothrombotic disease vasculitis cocaine
29
What spinal cord tracts are damaged in anterior cord syndrome?
corticospinal tract spinothalamic tract descending autonomic tract
30
presentation of anterior cord syndrome
bilateral motor deficit below the level of the lesion bilateral loss of pain and temperature autonomic dysfunction- urinary incontinence, abnormal blood pressure preserved posterior columns - position, vibration and light touch
31
How is anterior cord syndrome diagnosed?
MRI- shows pencil like intensities
32
Treatment of anterior cord syndreom
IV methylprednisolone shown to improve outcome if used in first 23 hours Thrombolysis if embolic cause immunosuppression if vasulitis Surgery - laminectomy for spinal decompression
33
Prognosis of anterior cord syndrome ?
poor
34
Complications of anterior cord syndrome
respiratory failure autonomic dysreflexia spasticity urinary incontinence complications of immobility- DVT, pressure ulcers.
35
What is bells palsy
sudden onset unilateral facial nerve paralysis
36
Who is at increased risk of bells palsy
pregnant women
37
Aetiology of bells palsy
unknown- though to be linked with viral illnesses in particular herpes simplex virus type 1
38
Is the forehead involved in the paralysis of bells palsy?
yes the forehead is paralysed This is because it is a lower motor neurone lesion- upper motor innervation is bilateral so if upper lesion it will be spared
39
presentation of bells palsy
unilateral facial paralysis including the forehead postauricular pain (ear pain) altered taste dry eyes hyperacusis
40
Why may there be a change of taste in bells palsy
the facial nerve supplies the anterior two thirds of the tongue- the chorda tympani branch
41
How does bells palsy present on examination
asymmetrical smile loss of the nasolabial folds drooping eyebrow drooping corner of the mouth
42
what is bell's sign
upward movement of the eye maintained on attempt to close the eye
43
Treatment of bells palsy
if presenting within 72 hours of onset prednisolone may be given (50mg for 10 days) lubricating eye drops eye tape for at night
44
Why might you get hyperacusis in bells palsy?
a branch of the facial nerve branches off in the facial canal to supply the stapedius muscle of the inner ear
45
why is eye care important in bells palsy
to prevent exposure keratopathy
46
What are brain abscesses?
localised focal necrosis of brain tissue with inflammation- usually due to bacterial infection
47
RF of brain abscesses
right to left shunt cardiac defects, bronchiectasis, immnosupression
48
causes of brain abscesses
direct implantation- head trauma leading to fracture and contamination iatrogenic procedures local extension of infection from adjacent areas - ear infection, dental abscess, paranasal sinusitis haematogenous spread - organ infection
49
why do right to left shunt cardiac defects increase the likelihood of brain abscesses
means that the blood bypasses the filtration in the lungs so pathogens are more likely to spread
50
How do brain abscesses present
fever progressively worsening focal neurology headache increased ICP - can lead to early morning headache, nausea and vomiting, papilloedema mental status changes seizures
51
How are brain abscesses diagnosed?
MRI or CT scan- initially will not be able to distinguish with space occupying lesions and infarcts but after 4-5 days a capsule will form LP if no signs of raised ICP
52
how are brain abscesses treated?
antibiotic therapy: IV 3rd generation cephalosporin and metronidazole Surgery: craniotomy and debridement of the abscess dexamethasone for raised ICP
53
What are the most common cancers that metastasise to the brain
lung, breast, colorectal and prostate
54
what is the most common primary brain tumour in adults
glioblastomas
55
How do glioblastomas present on imaging?
solid tumours with central necrosis and a rim
56
prognosis of glioblastomas
1 year
57
What is the second most common brain tumour in adutls
meningioma
58
pathophysiology of meningiomas
most commonly benign arise from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges Cause symptoms due to compression rather than invasion
59
Explain the relation ship between the location of cerebellar lesions and the signs produced
unilateral cerebellar lesion will cause ipsilateral signs
60
causes of cerebellar disease
Genetic inherited disorders- Freidreich's ataxia Neoplasms- cerebellar haemangioma Stroke alcohol- thiamine deficiency MS hypothyroidism drugs- phenytoin, lead poisoning
61
Signs of cerebellar disease
dysdiadochokinesia ataxia- limb and truncal nystagmus intention tremor slurred speech hypotonia DANISH
62
Describe a benign essential tremor
a fine tremor affecting all voluntary muscles most notable usually in the hands but can also affect other areas- head, jaw, vocal
63
Describe the features of a benign essential tremor that make it differ from parkinsons
- fine tremor (6-12Hz) - usually absent at rest and worse with intentional movements - worse when tired, stressed or after caffeine - can be suppressed with drugs such as alcohol and benzodiazepines
64
Diagnosis of benign essential tremor- what tests might you do to rule out other causes
CT or MRI serum ceruloplasmin and 25 hour urinary copper- wilsons thyroid function tests
65
1st line treatment of benign essential tremro
propranolol or primidone
66
2nd line treatment of benign essential tremor
gabapentin, alprazolam or topiramate
67
what procedures may be done to treat benign essential tremor if medications are unsuccessful
deep brain stimulation focused US thalamotomy gamma knife thalamotomy
68
Where is an extradural haemorrhage located?
between the dura mater and the inner surface of the skull
69
what is the most common cause of extradural haematoma
skull fracture due to skull trauma in the temporoparietal region (over the pterion) leading to rupture of the middle meningeal artery
70
What % of extra dural haematomas are caused by rupture of the middle meningeal artery?
75%
71
Presentation of a extradural haematoma
previous head trauma lucid period - lasting minutes to hours- followed by progressively decreasing consciousness headache nausea and vomiting confusion neurological signs - cranial, motor or sensory nerve deficits
72
What is cushings triad
a physiological response to raised ICP which aims to improve perfusion
73
presentation of cushings triad
hypertension bradycardia irregular breathing pattern
74
diagnosis of an extradural haematoma
CT scan- shows a biconvex lemon shaped lesion that cannot extend past the suture lines may have midline shift and brain herniation
75
cause sof extradural haematomas other than middle meningeal artery trauma
AV malformations bleeding disorders
76
treatment of extradural haematomas
correct anticoagulation (reversal agents) reduce ICP = mannitol IF small bleed then conservative if acute- burr hole craniotomy
77
definitive treatment for extradural haematome
BURR HOLE CRANIOTOMY
78
COMPLICATIONS OF EXTRADURAL HAEMATOMAS
INFECTION- WOUND OR SURGERY CEREBRAL ISCHAEMIA SEIZURES COGNITIVE IMPAIRMENT HEMIPARESIS HYDROCEPHALUS BRAINSTEM INJURY
79
what is giant cell arteritis
a chronic vasculitis characterised by granulomatous inflammation in the walls of the medium and large arteries- most commonly the branches of the carotid artery (temporal, ophthalmic and occipital)
80
What condition is giant cell arteritis associated with
polymyalgia rheumatica
81
age of patients affected by giant cell arteritis
mainly those over 50 (peak in 70s)
82
Presentation of giant cell arteritis
rapid onset of: unilateral headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, blurred vision, systemic illness (fever, anorexia) a tender palpable temporal artery
83
What visual disturbances may occur in giant cell arteritis
vision loss, diplopia, amaurosis fugax
84
what is the pathophysiology of visual disturbances in giant cell arteritis
anterior ischaemia optic neuropathy resulting from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery (causes ischaemia of the optic nerve head)
85
what is seen on fundoscopy in giant cell arteritis
a swollen pale disc and blurred margins
86
Investigations for giant cell arteritis
Raised inflammatory markers - ESR >50 Temporal artery biopsy - shows multinucleated giant cells, may not be present if skip lesions Duplex Ultrasonography - hypoechoic halo sign and stenosis of the temporal artery
87
Diagnostic criteria of giant cell arteritis
Three of the following: - aged >/= 50 - new headache - temporal artery abnormality - elevated ESR (>50) - abnormal temporal artery biopsy
88
How is giant cell arteritis treated ?
high dose corticosteroids: - if no visual disturbances then high dose prednisolone - if visual disturbances IV methylprednisolone prior to starting oral pred Bone protection due to steroids- bisphosphonates
89
What is guillain-barre syndrome
an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that affects the peripheral nervous system- an acute symmetrical ascending weakness and potentially sensory symptoms
90
pathophysiology of guillain barre
- immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nerves - usually triggered by an infection (campylobacter jejuni) - The antibodies to the infectious organism also attack the nerves due to molecular mimicry
91
Presentation of guillain barre syndrome
progressive symmetrical weakness of all limbs- ascending (legs before arms) reflexes are usually reduced or absent Sensory symptoms tend to be mild - may have some paraesthesia May have cranial nerve involvement - diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy May have autonomic involvement- urinary retention, diarrhoea
92
How soon after an infection does guillain barre usually present?
3 weeks after a gastroenteritis like illness- usually campylobacter
93
How is guillain barre diagnosed?
lumbar puncture- rise in protein by normal white cell count Nerve conduction studies- decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, increased F wave latency
94
How is guillain barre treated?
IV immunoglobulins - first line plasmapheresis DVT prophylaxis - TEDS and LMWH
95
What needs to be monitored in patients with guillain barre
FVC- can cause respiratory failure
96
What is Miller-Fisher syndrome
A variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome Associated with ophthalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia Usually associated with anti-GQ1b antibodies
97
What is Horner's syndrome?
A condition that affects one half of the face causing ptosis, miosis and facial anhidrosis Occurs due to a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply
98
Causes of Horner's syndrome
can be central lesions, pre-ganglionic lesions and post- ganglionic lesions Central lesions: strokes (lateral medullary syndrome), MS, pituitary or basal ganglia tumours, basal meningitis, syringomyelia, spinal cord tumours Pre-ganglionic lesions: apical lung tumours (pancoast), lymphadenopathy, trauma, thyroidectomy post-ganglionic lesions: carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, cluster headache
99
If a central lesions has caused horners syndrome, how will it present?
anhidrosis will occur on the face, arm and trunk
100
if a pre-ganglionic lesion has causes horners syndrome, how will it present?
anhidrosis will only affect the face
101
if a post ganglionic lesion has causes horner's syndrome, how will it present?
no anhidrosis
102
How can you remember the different causes of horners
Central- The 4 S's (stroke, multiple Sclerosis, Syringomyelia, Spinal cord tumours) Pre-ganglionic- the 4 T's (pancoast Tumour, Thyroidectomy, Trauma, Top of cervical rip) Post-ganglionic- the 4 C's (carotid artery aneurysm, carotid artery dissection, cavernous sinus thrombosis, cluster headache)
103
What additional feature will congenital horner's syndrome have?
heterochromia
104
How is horners syndrome diagnosed?
usually a clinical diagnosis however can be confirmed with cocaine or apraclonidine drops
105
How can cocaine drops confirm the diagnosis of horners syndrome?
cocaine blocks the reuptake of noradrenaline at the nerve synapse. In a normal eye will lead to pupillary dilation however in horners where there is impaired sympathetic innervation it will have no affect
106
How can apraclonidine drops confirm the diagnosis of horners syndrome?
apraclonidine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist- it usually causes pupillary constriction however in horners it causes dilation as there is alpha 1 supersensitivity
107
What drops can be used to localise the lesion in horners syndrome
hydroxyamphetamine- in 1st and 2nd order lesions it will lead to dilation, in 3rd it will have no effect
108
Does horners syndrome present on the contralateral or ipsilateral side of the face to the lesion?
ipsilateral
109
What is lateral medullary syndrome?
a type of stroke caused by infarction of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
110
how does lateral medullary syndrome present?
cerebellar features: ataxia and nystagmus Brainstem features: - ipsilateral dysphagia, facial numbness, Horners - contralateral limb sensory loss
111
what is encephalitis?
inflammation of the brain parenchyma caused by an infection- mainly viral
112
What are the most common causes of viral encephalitis
HSV 1 or 2, varicella zoster virus, arbovirus, enteroviruses
113
most common cause of encephalitis in adults
HSV type 1
114
what part of the brain is most commonly effected in encephalitis
the temporal and inferior frontal lobes
115
How does encephalitis present
fever headache seizures vomiting focal features- aphasia peripheral unrelated features- cold sores
116
How is encephalitis diagnosed?
LP- lymphocytosis, elevated proteins, PCR of CSF = test for HSV, VZV etc Neuroimaging- MRI shows hyperintense lesions EEG
117
How is encephalitis treated?
IV aciclovir in all cases
118
complications of encephalitis
memory loss, muscle weakness, personality change, vision loss, hydrocephalus
119
inheritance of huntingtons
autosomal dominant
120
genetics of huntingtons
trinucleotide repeat of the CAG triplet in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4 >40 repeats leads to HD, reduced penetrance may be seen in those with 36 to 39 repeats
121
what is anticipation
a phenomenon where the disease presents earlier in successive generations due to increases repeats
122
pathophysiology of huntingtons
degeneration of the cholinergic and GABAergic neurones in the striatum of the basal ganglia
123
how does huntingtons present?
- chorea - personality change- irritability, apathy, depression - intellectual impairment - dystonia - incoordination
124
at what age does huntingtons typically present ?
35
125
How can huntingtons disease be treated?
no cure - symptomatic treatment of chorea- tetrabenazine, antipsychotics - antidepressants - consider dopamine agonist for bradykinesia and rigidity
126
what is menieres disease?
a disorder of the inner ear of unknown cause characterised by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system
127
how does menieres disease present?
a triad of hearing loss, tinnitus and vertigo Aural fullness May have drop attacks and nystagmus symptoms are typically unilateral initially and the progress to bilateral
128
How is menieres disease diagnosed?
clinical evaluation May use audiometry- bone and air conduction MRI to rule out other causes
129
How is menieres disease treated?
diuretics may help reduce endolymph fluid Low salt diets- reduce endolymph Prophylactic betahistine in acute attacks- prochlorperazine
130
How are attacks prevented in menieres
lifestyle changes and betahistine
131
how are acute attacks treated in menieres
prochlorperazine
132
describe episodes of vertigo associated with menieres
sudden onset unprovoked attacks lasting 20 mins to several hours May be associated with nausea and vomiting.
133
describe how hearing loss presents in menieres disease
initially fluctuates and occurs with vertigo attacks Gradually becomes more permanent Sensorineural hearing loss affects lower frequencies first
134
What is motor neurone disease?
A neurodegenerative condition of unknown cause which can affect the lower and upper motor neurones
135
What is the most common type of motor neurone disease?
amylotrophic lateral sclerosis (up to 80% of cases)
136
Describe ALS
loss of motor neurones in the motor neurones of the motor cortex and the anterior horn of the spinal cord Typically has lower motor neurone signs in the arms and UMN signs in the legs
137
Types of MND
amylotrophic lateral sclerosis primary lateral sclerosis progressive muscular atrophy progressive bulbar palsy
138
Desribe primary lateral sclerosis
loss of Betz cells in the motor cortex- will only have upper motor neurone signs
139
Describe progressive muscular atrophy
loss of the anterior horn cells- lower motor neurone signs only Affects distal muscles before proximal
140
Describe progressive bulbar pasly
affects cranial nerves IX to XII - leads to palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing and facial muscles
141
which MND has the worse prognosis
progressive bulbar palsy
142
How does MND present
- asymmetrical limb weakness - mix of lower and upper motor neurone signs - foot drop - loss of dexterity - slurred speech - muscle wasting- small hand muscles - No sensory signs
143
what symptoms will not be present in motor neurone disease>
no sensory disturbance no ocular muscle disturbance No sphincter dysfunction no cerebellar sigms
144
how is MND diagnosed?
clinical May use nerve conduction studies- normal motor conduction EMG- reduced action potentials and increased amplitude MRI to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy
145
Which drug can be used to prolong life in MND
riluzole- prolongs life by about 3 months Respiratory support- non invasive ventilation at night symptomatic baclofen for spasticity Nutrition support- may need PEG tube
146
What is the median survival of MND from symptom onset
3-5 years
147
what is normal pressure hydrocephalus?
a condition characterised by the symptoms of hydrocephalus without significantly elevated CSF pressure
148
triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus
- urinary incontinence - dementia - gait abnormality
149
theory of the pathophysiology of normal pressure hydrocephalus
thought to be due to reduced CSF absorption at the arachnoid villi or reduced blood perfusion to the basal ganglia
150
Aetiology of normal pressure hydrocephalus
can be idiopathic or secondary to conditions such as SAH, meningitis, head trauma
151
how is normal pressure hydrocephalus diagnosed?
imaging- will show ventriculomegaly in the absence of, or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement LP- shows normal pressure
152
how is normal pressure hydrocephalus treated ?
ventriculoperitoneal shunting carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - acetazolamide serial lumbar punctures
153
management of a TIA if within 24 hours of onset
300mg of aspirin immediately urgent assessment within 24 hours by a stroke specialist
154
management of a TIA if more than 7 days after symptoms
should be seen by a stroke specialist within 7 dyas
155
treatment options for spasticity in MS
baclofen and gabapentin are first line
156
what key causes of status epilepticus should be ruled out first
hypoxia and hypoglycaemia
157
what is autonomic dysreflexia
a clinical syndrome in patients who has a spinal cord injury at or above T6 spinal level Most commonly triggered by faecal impaction or urinary retention Presents as an unbalanced sympathetic response with unbalanced parasympathetic response
158
how does autonomic dysreflexia present?
extreme hypertension flushing and sweating above the lesion agitation
159
What is paroxysmal hemicrania?
severe attacks of severe unilateral headache in the orbital, supraorbital or temporal region These are often associated with autonomic features and usually last less than 30 minutes and can occur multiple times a day
160
Treatment of paroxysmal hemicrania
indomethacin
161
When should patients with bells palsy be referred to ENT
if no improvement after 3 weeks refer urgently to ENT
162
why can a subdural haematoma cause a third nerve pasly?
increased ICP can lead to herniation which can compress the third cranial nerve
163
how does a third nerve palsy present?
down and out eye position (abducted and depressed) ptosis dilated pupil- cannot constrict in response to light
164
first line radiological investigation for suspected stroke
non contrast CT
165
first line treatment for focal seizures
lamotrigine or levetiracetam
166
What is wernicke's aphasia
receptive aphasia- impaired comprehension, fluent speech, inability to repeat back phrases think W- what?
167
What is broca's aphasia
expressive aphasia- speech is non-fluent however will be able to comprehend
168
where in the brain is Wernicke's area
superior temporal gyrus
169
where in the brain is brocas area
inferior frontal gyrys
170
what migraine phophylactic is associated with cleft lip and palate
topiramate
171
if a parietal lesion where will visual defects be?
inferior
172
If a temporal lesion where will visual defects be?
superior
173
If there is evidence of infarction on imaging can a TIA be diagnosed?
no - TIA can only be diagnosed if there is no evidence of acute infarction on imagn
174
How are acute relapses of MS treated?
high dose steroids (methylprednisolone)
175
first line treatment of absence seizures
ethosuximide
176
What is Weber's syndrome
a form of midline stroke characterised by ipsilateral cranial nerve III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis
177
what screening tool is used to assess stroke symptoms in an acute setting
ROSIER
178
how does juvenile myoclonic epilespy present?
seizures in the morning/ following sleep deprivation
179
what blood test can be used to determine if a seizure has been a true seizure or a pseudoseizure
prolactin
180
what radiculopathy causes loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the thumb and index finger
c6
181
Causes of cauda equina
lumbar disc herniation- most common cause lumbar stenosis trauma abscesses malignancy spondylolisthesis congential cause (spinal bifida) epidural haematoma
182
presentation of cauda equine
lower back pain radicular pain leg weakness difficulty walking saddle anaesthesia bowel or bladder dysfunction erectile dysfunction
183
diagnosis of cauda equina
urgent whole spine MRI CT myelography if cant have MRI
184
treatment of cauda equine
emergency surgery for cord decompression
185
complications of cauda equina
premanent paralysis sensory loss bladder and bowel dysfunction sexual dysfunction
186
RF for SAH
hypertension polycystic kidney disease smoking excessive alcohol intake aged 45-70 cocaine use connective tissue disorders- Marfans, Ehlers danlos
187
pathophysiology of SAH
rupture of a berry aneurysm - 85% occur in the circle of willis Rarer causes- AV malformations, vasculitis, arterial dissection, venous thrombosis
188
complication of SAH
vasospasm causing ischaemic injury
189
presentation of SAH
thunderclap headache- occipital, worse headache ever may have preceding sentinel headache neck stiffness photophobia nausea and vomiting new symptom of altered brain function - reduced consciousness, seizure coma
190
examination findings of SAH
isolated pupil dilation with loss of light reflex ophthalmoscopy may show intraocular haemorrhage oculomotor nerve impairment
191
Investigations for a SAH
urgent CT - hyperattentuated- hyperdense bright blood distributes in the basal cisterns, sulci and potentially the ventricular system LP- xanthochromia, used if >12 hours since onset if CT was normal after 6 (CT less reliable after 6 hours) CT angiography - to show the cause of SAH
192
Treatment of SAH
initial- nimodipine to reduce vasospasm definitive- endovascular coiling r neurosurgical clipping
193
complications of SAH
hydrocephalus, electrolyte disturbance, seizures, hyponatraemia
194
what is brudzinski's sign
flexing of the neck causes hip and knee flexion
195
what is kernig's sign
extending leg from 90 degrees elicits pain
196
how does optic neuritis present
graying or blurring of vision in one eye may have pain on moving eye and loss of colour discrimination (particularly red)
197
acute management of myasthenia gravis
pyridostigmine
198
management of myasthenic crisis
plasma exchange, IV Ig
199
where are most adult brain tumours located
supratentorial
200
where are most paediatric brain tumours located
infratentorial
201
What condition is associated with myasthenia gravis
thymomas
202
pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis
antibodies against the nicotinic Ach receptors on the post-synaptic membrane which block the binding of Ach preventing the end plate potential becoming large enough to trigger muscle contracti
203
How does myasthenia gravis present
muscle fatiguability ocular symptoms- diplopia, ptosis (may be worse with prolonged upwards gaze) fatiguable chewing expressionless face (myasthenic sneer)
204
how is myasthenia gravis diagnosed?
tensilon test - infusion of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor will briefly improve symptoms (edrophonium) measure AChR and MuSK antibodies EMG
205
What antibodies are associated with myasthenia gravis
AChR and MuSK
206
Long term treatment of myasthenia gravis
corticosteroids (prednisolone) Immunosuppressives (azathioprine) thymectomy
207
What is a side effect of phenytoin
megaloplastic anaemia due t altered folate metabolism Others: peripheral neuropathy, gingival hyperplasia
208
How does subacute degeneration of the spinal cord present?
hyperreflexia loss of proprioception loss of vibration sense
209
what is the first line treatment of stroke and TIA in those who have gastric ulcers and are high risk of bleeding
clopidogrel
210
first line treatment of trigeminal neuralgia
carbamazepine
211
what type of MRI should be used for MS
MRI brain with contrast
212
if clopidogrel is not tolerated what treatment can be given from secondary prevention following a stroke
aspirin 75mg
213
1st like medications for alzheimer's
donezepil
214
medications that can be used for alzheimer's disease?
donezepil rivastigmine Memantine
215
if someone with dementia suffers hallucinations what medication is good ?
rivastigmine
216
What is trigeminal neuralgia
severe episodic facial pain in the distribution of one of the branches of the 5th trigeminal cranial nerve
217
epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia
increased in women, increases with age (rare those younger than 40)
218
pathophysiology of trigeminal neuralgia
90% thought to be caused by vascular compression of the trigeminal nerve Causes demyelination and abnormal electrical activity in response to stimuli
219
How does trigeminal neuralgia present?
paroxysmal attacks of pain that may be triggered by precipitating factors such as touching the face, cold wind, vibration and cleaning teeth
220
What is the pain like in trigeminal neuralgia
electric shock like severe pain, usually unilateral, short-lived, recurrent and episodic.
221
Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia
1st line- carbamazepine 2nd line- gabapentin, lamotrigine
222
pathophysiology of wernicke's encephalopathy
thiamine deficiency leadsing to decreased activity of thiamine dependent enzymes Causes neuronal death in parts of the brain including- medial dorsal thalamic nucleus, mamillary bodies, periaqueductal grey matter, floor of the first ventricle and cerebellar vermis
223
How does wernicke's encephalopathy present?
triad of confusion, ataxia and ophthalmoplegia / nystagmus
224
triad of korsakoff's
retrograde amnesia, anterograde amnesia, confabulation
225
How is wernicke's encephalitis treated
thiamine magnesium sulphate pabrinex
226
if a patient on levodopa presents with postural instability what is the most likely cause?
the parkinsons disease not the medication
227
what is ramsey hunt syndrome?
shingles affecting the facial nerve
228
how does ramsey hunt syndrome present?
ear pain, vesicles in the external auditory canal, vertigo, tinnitus
229
triggers for migraines
chocolate hangovers oral contraceptive pill cheese orgasms lie ins alcohol tumult exercsie
230
How does a migraine present
unilateral throbbing headache lasting 4-72 hours, moderate to severe associated with nausea and vomiting photophobia and phonophobia may have an associated aura- zig zag lines, pins and needles
231
what features may occur in the prodrome of a migraine?
yawning fatigue mood changes craving
232
what classifies chronic migraines
occur on at least 15 days a month
233
What is the criteria for migraines
1. at least 5 attacks. 2. headache lasting 4-72 hours 3. headache has at least 2 of the following qualitites: - unilateral - pulsating - moderate to severe - aggravated by physical activity 4. there is at least one of the following: - nausea +/- vomiting - photophobia +/- phonophobia 5. headache cannot be attributed to another disorder
234
what aura symptoms of migraine are atypical and require further investigation
motor weakness double vision visual symptoms in one eye poor balance decreased level of consciousness
235
1st line acute treatment of a migraine
combination therapy of oral triptan and either paracetamol or NSAID may add anti-emetic if not effective (e.g metoclopramide)
236
prophylactic drugs for migraines
propranolol topiramate amitriptyline
237
which migraine prophylactic should not be used in pregnant women
topiramate- teratogenic and can reduce effectiveness of prophylaxis
238
what treatment can be given to women with menstrual cycle related migraines
frovatriptan or zolmitriptan when needed
239
how does an atonic seizure present
sudden weakness in all muscles of the body with retained awareness
240
what sign of multiple sclerosis is characterised by tingling in hands when flexing neck
Lhermitte's phenomenon
241
which type of seizure may be associated with plucking of clothes?
temporal lobe
242
what is the initial management of a suspected TIA in someone on anticoagulants
immediate referral to emergency department for imaging
243
what is the management of a brain abscess
IV cephalosporin + metronidazole
244
how does a brain abscess present?
headache fever focal neurology conditions of raised ICP- nausea, papilloedema, seizures
245
how does a brain abscess present on CT scan
ring enhancing lesion
246
most common complication following meningitis
sensorineural hearing loss
247
when would you offer thrombectomy alongside thrombolysis
when there is confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation
248
what motor pattern will be seen in an anterior cerebral artery stroke
leg weakness but not face or speech impairment
249
what should be done on all stroke patients to reduce aspiration pneumonia
swallow assessment to evaluate swallow function before any oral intake
250
how do chronic subdural haematomas present on CT
hypodense (dark)
251
how does third nerve palsy present?
ptosis, dilated pupil and down and out appearance of the eye
252
how does an ulnar nerve palsy present?
wasting of the hypothenar muscles, loss of thumb adduction, wasting of the first web space and ulnar claw hand
253
what are the components of a GCS score
motor response verbal response eye opening
254
6 types of motor response scores for GCS
6- obeys commands 5- localises to pain 4- withdraws from pain 3- abnormal flexion to pain 2- extending to pain 1- none
255
5 types of verbal response scores for GCS
5- orientated 4- confused 3- words 2- sounds 1- none
256
4 types of eye opening response
4- spontaneous 3- to speech 2- to pain 1- none
257
258
If a 'seizure' is associated with a period of feeling light headed and sweaty before what is the likely cause
Vasovagal syncope
259
what is myasthenic gravis
a chronic autoimmune condition caused by insufficiency acetyl choline receptors in the neuromuscular junction
260
pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis
antibodies to the acetyl choline receptor on the post synaptic membrane (prevents Ach binding and causing muscle contraction) a type II hypersensitivity reaction
261
associated diseases to MG
thymomas in 15% autoimmune diseases- thyroid disease, rheumatoid, SLE, pernicious anaemia
262
how does MG present?
muscle fatiguability - muscle weakness that improves on rest and is worse towards the end of the day - proximal muscles first - arms more than legs Weakness of the extraocular muscles - diplopia, ptosis (may be worse on prolonged upward gaze) dysphagia Facial weakness- myasthenic sneer respiratory muscle weakness
263
how is MG diagnosed?
antibody testing= acetylcholinesterase receptor antibody (85-90%) and anti-muscle specific- tyrosine kinase antibody (MuSK) Gold- single fibre EMG May also CT for thymoma
264
what test can be done for MG
tensilon test- give patient IV edrophonium and there should be temporary improvement in symptoms (as it is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
265
what is the first line treatment of MG
pyridostigmine- long acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
266
overview of MG treatment
- pyridostigmine - can add immunosuppressant (prednisolone, azathioprine) - thymoma
267
what is myasthenic crisis
a life threatening worsening of myasthenia causing respiratory failure
268
treatment of myasthenic crisis
plasmapheresis IV immunoglobulins
269
what can trigger myasthenic crisis
warm weather, infection, surgery, stress, pregnancy, illness medications- penacillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta blockers, lithium, phenytoin, antibiotics (gentamycin, tetracyclines, macrolides)
270
what additional tests should be done in young patients (under 55) who present with stroke with no obvious cause
thombophilia and autoimmune screening
271
How can you distinguish between foot drop caused by common peroneal nerve pasly and that caused by L5 radiculopathy
in common peroneal nerve pasly there will be weakness in eversion of the feet whereas in L5 there will be weakness in inversion
272
How is meningitis treated in those with penicillin allergy
IV chloramphenicol- cannot use IV ceftriaxone as there is cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins
273
treatment of ramsey hunt
oral aciclovir
274
How might a typical migraine aura be described?
transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (jagged crescent)
275
RF for ischaemic stroke
age htn smoking, hyperlipidaemia dm AF
276
RF for haemorrhagic stroke
HTN , anticoagulants age AV malformations
277
What vessels are effected in weber syndrome
the branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain
278
How does Weber's syndrome present?
ipsilateral cranial nerve III palsy contralateral weakness in the upper and lower limbs
279
What vessels are effected in Wallenberg syndrome (lateral medullarly syndrome)
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
280
How does lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg's) present?
ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature in the face contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the limbs and torso ataxia nystagmus
281
What artery is effected in lateral pontine syndrome
anterior inferior cerebellar artery
282
how does lateral pontine syndrome present?
similar to wallenbergs but with ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness
283
How does a stroke affecting the retinal/ ophthalmic artery present?
amaurosis fugax
284
How does a stroke affecting the basilar artery present?
locked in syndrome
285
How does a lacunar stroke present?
either: - unilateral weakness (+/- sensory loss) of face, arm or leg, or all three - purely sensory loss - ataxic hemiparesis
286
How does a stroke affecting the anterior cerebral artery present?
contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss (legs more than arms)
287
how does a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery present?
contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss (arms more than legs) contralateral homonymous hemianopia haphasia
288
how does a stroke affecting the posterior cerebral artery present ?
contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing visual agnosia
289
What three presentations are considered in the oxford stroke classification
unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm , leg homonymous hemianopia higher cognitive dysfunction (e.g. dyphasia)
290
what may be shown on CT of ischaemic stroke
low density white and grey matter, hyperdence artery
291
what may be shown on CT of haemorrhagic stroke?
hyperdence material with surrounding low dense oedema
292
what should blood pressure be bought down to before thrombolysis
185/110
293
what are some contraindications to thombolysis
previous intracranial haemorrhage seizure on stroke onset intracranial neoplasm suspected SAH stroke or injury in preceding 3 months LP in previous 7 days GI haemorrhage in preceding 3 weeks, oesophageal varices uncontrolled HTN
294
what is the inheritance of neurofibromatosis ?
autosomal dominant
295
what is the mutation associated with neurofibromatosis type 1?
a mutation on chromosome 17- encodes for the tumour suppressor protein neurofibrin
296
what is the mutation associated with neurofibromatosis type 2?
a mutation on chromosome 22- encodes for merlin, a tumour suppressor protein which is important in schwann cells
297
how does neurofibromatosis type 1 present?
Cafe-au-lait spots Axillarly and inguinal freckling Peripheral neurofibromas Iris haematomas (Lisch nodules) Scoliosis phaeochromocytosis
298
how does neurofibromatosis type 2 present?
bilateral vestibular schwannomas mutliple intracranial schwannomas, meningiomas and ependymomas
299
how may neurofibromas are indicative of neurofibromatosis ?
two or more or one plexiform neurofibroma
300
what are two key complications of neurofibromatosis
GI stromal tumours malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours
301
What is a brain abscess?
a localised area of necrosis in the brain tissue with associated inflammation
302
Causes of brain abscesses?
direct implantation- from trauma or iatrogenic local spread of infection from adjacent structures (e.g. sinusitis, otitis media) haematogenous spread from other organ infections
303
RF for brain abcesses
right to left shut (allows blood to bypass the lungs where infection could be filtered out) bronchiectasis immunsupression
304
how does a brain abscess present?
fever headache progressive focal neurology May have nausea, early morning headache, seizures, papilloedema
305
How is a brain abscess diagnosed?
CT or MRI- shows bright ring of capsule around necrotic core
306
How are brain abscesses treated?
surgery- craniotomy and abscess debridement antibiotics- IV cephalosporins and metronidazole dexamethasone
307
What areas of the brain are affected in wernicke's
mamillary bodies, ventricle walls, periaqueductal grey matter, floor of the 4th ventricle
308
triad of wernicke's encephalopathy
cognitive decline gait ataxie oculomotor dysfunction- nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia
309
what ophthalmoplegia can occur in wernicke's encephalopathy?
lateral rectus palsy conjugate gaze palsy
310
what investigations may be done for wernicke's
thiamine levels CT/MRI to rule out other causes decreases red cell transketolase
311
triad of korsakoff's
retrograde amnesia anterograde amnesia confabulation
312
What is spinal stenosis?
a condition where the central canal of the spine is narrowed which causes compression of the nerves and pain
313
Most common cause of spinal stenosis
age related degenerative change
314
what is the pathophysiology of how age- related degeneration causes spinal stenosis
- biochemical changes in the intervertebral disc (cell death, loss of proteoglycan and water content) lead to progressive disc bulging and collapse - hypertrophy and osteophyte formation on the facet joints - thickening of the ligamentum flavum These three features (bulging disc, facet hypertrophy and ligamentum flavum thickening) lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of nerves
315
How does spinal stenosis present ?
similar to PAD- claudication like pain of the proximal thigh and buttock - differs from PAD as it is relieved when walking up hill and worse on stretching of the canal (e.g. walking downstairs) - may also have neurological symptoms- burning and tingling
316
How is spinal stenosis diagnosed?
MRI
317
How is spinal stenosis treated?
1st line- analgesia, physio, weight loss definitive- laminectomy
318
what are myopathies?
diseases of the skeletal muscle (not caused by nerve disorders) that cause the muscle to become weak and wasted
319
what are the three broad types of myopathies
hereditary inflammatory endocrine
320
What are some examples of hereditary myopathies
duchenne muscular dystrophy becker muscular dystrophy mitochondrial myopathies metabolic myopathies
321
Give some examples of inflammatory myopathies
polymyositis and dermatomyositis
322
what drugs can cause temporary myopathies?
statins, steroids
323
How does polymyositis present?
proximal muscle weakness Reynauds Resp muscle weakness dysphagia dysphonia interstitial lung disease
324
what skin signs may be present in dermatomyositis ?
helitrope rash- macular periorbital rash shawl sign- macular rash over back and shoulders Gottron's papules- roughened red papules over the extensor surfaces of the fingers) Holter's sign- erythema of the buttocks, hips and lateral thighs photosensitive rashes
325
what investigations may be done to diagnose polymyositis and dermatomyositis
raised creatinine kinase raised muscle enzymes (LDH) Anti-jo-1 and anti-mi-2 EMG muscle biopsy
326
how are dermatomyositis and polymyositis treated?
in the acute stage- high dose corticosteroids then wean down DMARDs longterm
327
328
What is the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage
Traumatic head injury
329
What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage that happens in the absence of trauma called?
A spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage
330
What are some causes of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhages?
Rupture of a berry aneurysm (85%) AV malformations Pituitary apoplexy Mycotoxins aneurysms
331
What are some conditions associated with berry aneurysms ?
Hypertension Adult polycystic kidney disease Ehlers danlos syndrome Coarctation of the aorta
332
Where do most Berry aneurysms occur?
In the anterior circulation
333
What are some risk factors for subarachnoid haemorrhages?
Hypertension Smoking Age 45-70 Women Black ethnic origin Family history Cocaine use Connective tissue disorders Sickle cell anaemia Neurofibromatosis Polycystic kidney disease
334
How does a subarachnoid haemorrhage present?
Sudden acute headache- thunderclap, worst headache ever had, usually occipital May have a sentinel headache weeks prior Neck stiffness Photophobia Nausea and vomiting Focal neurological deficit Decreased consciousness Seizures Cranial nerve palsy’s (loss of light reflex) Coma
335
How is a subarachnoid diagnosed
CT scan no contrast- should be performed within 6 hours as can become less reliable Lumbar puncture may be done if after 6 hours and CT negative - shows xanthochromia
336
What investigation may be done to work out the location of pathology after a subarachnoid haemorrhage
CT angiography
337
Management of a subarachnoid haemorrhage
Oral nifedipine (reduces vasospasm) Definitive- endovascular coiling and surgical clipping
338
What are some complications of subarachnoid haemorrhages (5)
Re-bleeding Hydrocephalus Vasospasm (delayed cerebral ischaemia) Hyponatraemia Seizures
339
Why can hyponatraemia occur after a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretics hormone may occur
340
Where does an extradural haemorrhage occur ?
Between the dura mater and the skull
341
How does an extradural haematoma present?
Often post trauma Patient may have an initial loss of consciousness followed by a period of lucidness Consciousness will then deteriorate Other symptoms: - headache - nausea and vomiting - confusion - cranial nerve defects (down and out, fixed pupil) - motor or sensory signs - Cushing’s triad (bradycardia, hypertension, irregular breathing)
342
How is an extradural haematoma diagnosed?
CT scan - shows a biconvex (lentiform/ lemon) shaped lesion - lesion will be limited by the suture lines - lesion will be hyperdense - may cause midline shift and brain stem herniation
343
Treatment of an extradural haematoma
Initial management may include ABCDE, mannitol to reduce ICP, anticonvulsants Definitive surgery can include burr hole craniotomy, trauma craniotomy and hemicraniectomy
344
What is the most common causes of a subdural haematoma?
Tearing of a bridging vein in acceleration deceleration injuries Infant shaking baby syndrome
345
What are the three types of subdural haematomas and how are they classified
Acute- symptoms develop within 48 hours of injury Subacute - symptoms develop days to weeks post injury Chronic - symptoms develop weeks to months, patients may not recall as specific injury
346
Who is at high risk of subdural haematomas and why?
Elderly - cerebral atrophy puts tension of the bridging veins, also more susceptible to injury Alcoholics- thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding times and head trauma Baby’s- shaken baby syndrome
347
How do subdural haematomas present?
- altered mental status- often fluctuations in conscious occur - focal neurological deficit - headaches- may be one sided and worsen over time. - seizures - signs of raised ICP- pappilloedema, nausea and vomiting, Cushing’s triad - gait abnormalities - ataxia - hemiparesis or hemiplegia - third cranial nerve palsy Chronic SDH can present with progressive decline over a period of weeks/months
348
How are subdural haematomas diagnosed and what is seen
CT scan- shows a crescent shaped haematoma that is not limited by suture lines. Acute with present as hyperdense Chronic will present as hypodense
349
Treatment of subdural haematomas
Mannitol for ICP Treatment depends on size but may include burr hole craniotomy, clot evacuation
350
What is trigemminal neuralgia
A pain syndrome classified by severe unilateral facial pain in one or more of the branches of the trigemminal nerve
351
What causes trigemminal neuralgia
Most are idiopathic May be due to vascular compression of the nerve May be secondary to tumours (acoustic neuromas) pressing on the nerve
352
Explain the theory of how vascular compression can cause trigemminal neuralgia
Paroxysmal attacks of pain- described as electric shock like pain May be triggered by precipitating factors- brushing teeth, shaving, smoking, light touch
353
Where are some trigger areas associated with trigemminal neuralgia
Nasolabial folds or chin
354
First line treatment of trigemminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine
355
Second line management of trigemminal neuralgia
Gabapentin Lamotrigine
356
What are some red flag features that may suggest trigemminal neuralgia has a serious underlying cause
Onset before 40 years old Sensory changes Deafness or ear problems History of skin or oral lesions that could have spread Pain in only the ophthalmic division Optic neuritis Family history of MS
357
what features of a seizure suggest it is a non -epileptic attack (9)
pelvic thrusting crying after the seizure seizures dont occur when alone gradual onset duration of over 2 minutes fluctuating course eyes closed violent thrashing movements side to side head movements
358
what features might suggest that a seizure is epileptic and non due to non-epileptic attack disorder (4)
tongue biting automatisms incontinence raised serum prolactin
359
How does internuclear ophthalmoplegia present?
when looking to the side there will be impaired adduction of one eye and nystagmus in the abducting eye.
360
where would a lesion causing internuclear ophthalmoplegia be?
in the medial longitudinal fasciculus- will be on the side that fails to adduct
361
what is the key diagnostic investigation for idiopathic intracranial hypertension
lumbar puncture
362
what drug treatment may benefit idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors such as acetazolamide
363
how does idiopathic intracranial hypertension present?
non-pulsatile bilateral headaches- worse in morning, worse on bending forward visual disturbances (e.g. transient darkening) due to optic nerve ischaemia bilateral papilloedema 6th nerve palsy - horizontal diplopia
364
who is the typical patient who experiences idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
young obese women
365
how does lateral medullary syndrome present?
cerebellar symptoms - falling over (to the side of the lesion), vertigo, multidirectional nystagmus, diplopia autonomic dysfunction- ipsilateral horners, hiccups sensory symptoms- loss of pain and temperature on ipsilateral face, loss of pain and temp on contralateral body ipsilateral bulbar weakness- hoarse voice
366
what arteries are involved in lacunar strokes?
perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia
367
what does Romberg's test look for?
to determine if ataxia is sensory or cerebellar if sensory it will be positive as the patient will loose balance when they shut their eyes
368
how does parietal lobe damage present?
visual inattention in the contralateral visual field, constructional apraxia, dressing apraxia
369
define dementia
a clinical syndrome characterised by a significant deterioration in mental function leading to an impairment of normal function
370
What genetics are associated with dementia and what is their inheritance?
5% of cases are associated with a genetic mutation in one of the following: - amyloid precursor protein (chromosome 21) - presenilin 1 (chromosome 14) - presenilin 2 (chromosome 1) these are autosomal dominant.
371
What gene has been found to be a risk factor of alzheimer's (not a causative gene)
apoprotein E (APOE gene)
372
What are the macroscopic changes to the brain seen in alzheimer's
widespread cerebral atrophy particularly of the cortex and hippocampus
373
what are the microscopic changes causing alzheimer's
- beta amyloid plaques that form outside neurones - neurofibrilliary tangles - that form inside neurones, caused by hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein
374
Give some examples of screening tests that may be used in dementia diagnosis?
10 point cognitive screener 6 item cognitive impairment test mini mental state examination addenbrookes cognitive examination III
375
What additional tests should be done in the diagnosis of dementia?
bloods neuroimaging
376
What non-pharmalogical recommendations does NICE recommend for alzheimer's
- offering a range of activities to promote wellbeing - offering group stimulation therapy to patients with mild to moderate dementa - offering group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation
377
what is the first line drug treatment for alzheimer's
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donezepil, rivastigmine or galantamine
378
what is the second line treatement of dementia
memantine (a N-methyl-D-aspartic acid receptor antagonist)
379
How does alzheimer's disease present?
memory loss- initially short time memory and an inability to learn new information agitation disorientation language problems sleep wake cycle disturbances
380
what is a rare inherited form of vascular dementia
CADASIL
381
what criteria does NICE recommend to diagnose vascular dementia?
NIMDS-AIREN criteria- made up of having cognitive decline, cerebrovascular disease (Defined by neuro signs or imaging) and a relationship between the two
381
RF for vascular dementia
history of stroke or TIA AF hypertension diabetes hyperlipidaemia smoking obesity coronary heart disease
382
what subtypes of vascular dementia are there?
stroke-related VD- multi-infarct or single infarct dementia subcortical VD- caused by small vessel disease mixed VD - mix of vascular and alzheimer's
383
should acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine be used in vascular dementia ?
only if there is cormorbid alzheimers, parkinsons dementia or lewy body dementia
384
Pathophysiology of Lewy Body dementia
alpha-synuclein cystoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas
385
How does Lewy body dementia present
progressive cognitive decline- more likely to fluctuate than other dementia early impairment of attention and executive functioning parkinsonisms visual hallucinations
386
what type of drug should be avoided in lewy body dementia and why
neuroleptics (antipsychotics) - can cause irreversible parkinsonisms
387
how can lewy body dementia be treated?
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (rivastigmine) and memantine
388
how is lewy body dementia diagnosed?
usually clincial, may do a SPECT scan
389
what are the key features of frontotemporal lobe dementia
- onset is before 65 - insidious onset - relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills - personality change and social conduct problems
390
What is the characteristic appearance of pick's disease in the brain ?
frontal gyral atrophy with a knife blade appearance
391
microscopic changes seen in picks disease (4)
pick bodies (spherical aggregations of silver staining tau proteins) gliosis neurofibrillary tangles senile plaques
392
what allele is related to narcolepsy
HLA-DR2
393
what genetic mutation is common in narcolepsy type 1
DQB1 0602
394
pathophysiology of narcolepsy
loss of hypocretin secretin neurone in the lateral hypothalamus
395
how is narcolepsy diagnosis
multiple sleep latency EEG polysomnography
396
How is narcolpesy treated
nighttime sodium oxalate daytime stimulants
397
how does optic neuritis present?
unilateral decrease in visual acuity poor colour discrimination- red desaturation pain that is worse with eye movement relative afferent pupillary defect central scotoma
398
how would optic neuritis be investigated?
MRI of the brain and orbit with gadolinium staining
399
how is optic neuritis treated
high dose steroids
400
what are some conditions that can cause optic neuritis?
multiple sclerosis diabetes syphilis
401
what is a relative afferent pupillary defect and where in the brain is pathology that causes it?
it is where shining light in the affected eye will cause dilation of both the affected and normal eye. Caused by a lesion anterior to the optic chiasm (e.g. in the optic nerve or the retina)
402
How does third nerve palsy present? (3)
Eye is down and out pupil is dilated ptosis
403
causes of third nerve palsy
Weber's syndrome raised ICP causing brain herniation diabetes vasculitis posterior communicating artery aneurysm cavernous sinus thrombosis
404
How does fourth nerve palsy present?
eye will be upwards and outwards there will be vertical diplopia when looking down patient may develop a head tilt
405
what key sign is seen in vestibular neuromas?
absent corneal reflex (due to damage to the trigemminal nerve)
406
How can you differentiate viral labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis?
labyrinthitis will have hearing loss whereas in neuronitis there will be no hearing loss
407
what patholophysiological process is a risk factor in haemorrhagic stroke and is associated with dementia?
cerebral amyloid angiopathy
408
What is Creutzfeldt- Jacob disease?
a rapidly progressive and universally fatal neurodegenerative condition caused by prion proteins. Leads to rapidly progressive dementia, psychiatric disturbance and myoclonus
409
what can cause trochlear nerve palsy?
ocular trauma and diabetes mellitus
410
what patients with MS are liscenced to use interferon beta?
those with relapsing and remitting MS who are able to walk unaided
411
If parkinsonism is associated with spontaneous activity of the effected limb, what is the likely cause?
cortico-basal degeneration
412
How does progressive supranuclear palsy present?
parkinsonism with supranuclear gaze palsy.
413
what drug prevents cluster headaches?
verapamil
414
How would damage to the brachial plexus present?
small hand muscle paralysis, dermatomal sensory disturbance and ptosis Also called Klumpke's palsy
415
What are two types of brachial plesus injuries
Erb's palsy and Klumpke's pasly
416
What are the nerve roots of the brachial plexus
C5 to T1
417
what drug can be given to reverse dabigatran in a haemorrhagic stroke?
idarucizumab
418
what is used to acutely manage MS
IV methylprednisolone
419
What drugs might be used in the long term treatment of MS to prevent relapses
biologics: - natalizumab - ocrelizumab - fingolimod - beta interferon
420
what are the parkinsons plus syndromes?
progressive supranuclear palsy corticobasal degeneration Dementia with Lewy bodies Multiple system atrophy
421
How does multiple system atrophy present?
parkinsonisms autonomic dysfunction - erectile dysfunction, postural hypotension, atonic bladder cerebellar signs
422
How does progressive supranuclear palsy present?
parkinsonism- mainly bradykinesia impairment of the vertical gaze (mainly on looking down)- patient may describe difficulty going down the stairs) postural instability and falls - may have a broad based gait cognitive decline- mainly frontal lobe dysfunction
423
What is lambert eaton syndrome
It is an autoimmune condition associated with small cell lung cancer where antibodies target the pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channels
424
How does lambert eaton syndrome present?
repeated muscle contraction improves muscle strength (in comparison with MG where it decreases strength) limb girdle wakness hyporeflexia autonomic symptoms - dry mouth, impotence
425
how is lambert eaton diagnosed and what will it show
EMG- incremental response to repetitive electrical activation
426
What patients cannot take triptans for cluster headaches
those with coronary artery disease as it can cause vasospasm
427
what two symptoms make up Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease
rapid onset dementia and myoclonus
428
What subtypes of diabetic peripheral neuropathy are there?
distal symmetrical sensory neuropathy small fibre predominant neuropathy diabetic amyotrophy mononeuritis multiplex autonomic neuropathy
429
what is the most common form of diabetic neuropathy
distal symmetrical sensory neuropathy
430
What is damaged in distal symmetrical sensory neuropathy and how does it present?
Loss of the small sensory fibres. Sensory loss is in the glove and stocking distribution- mainly loss of touch vibration and proprioception
431
What is damaged in small fibre predominant neuropathy and how does it present?
loss of the small sensory fibres. Manifests as deficits in pain and temperature in the glove and stocking distribution, alongside episodes of burning pain
432
What is damaged in diabetic amyotrophy and how does it present?
inflammation of the lumbosacral plexus or the cervical plexus characterised by severe pain around the thighs and hips, along with proximal weakness
433
How does autonomic neuropathy present?
postural hypotension gastroparesis constipation urinary retention arrhythmias erectile dysfunction
434
Differentials for diabetic neuropathy?
vitamin B12 deficiency alcohol induced peripheral neuropathy chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
435
How is diabetic peripheral neuropathy treated?
- manage blood glucose levels - symptomatic management including gabapentin or pregabalin
436
what is charcot arthopathy
a chronic progressive condition characterised by destructive changes in the bones and joint of patients with neuropathy, most commonly from diabetes
437
how does charcot arthopathy present?
the 6 D's Destruction Deformity Degeneration Dense bones Debris Dislocation
438
How is charcot arthropathy diagnosed?
x rays
439
what PPI should be prescribed in people taking clopidogrel and why?
lansoprazole - omeprazole reduces the antiplatelet function of clopidogrel
440
What is charcot marie tooth syndrome?
a hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy
441
what two types of charcot marie tooth are there?
type 1 - demyelinating form, most common type 2- axonal
442
what is the most common mutation associated with charcot marie tooth?
an autosomal dominant mutation in the peripheral myelin protein 22 gene.
443
How is the pattern of nerve involvement in charcot marie tooth described?
length dependent- the longest nerves are affected first Means patients often present with symptoms affecting the feet, and later the hands
444
How charcot marie tooth present?
often begins in puberty - enlargement and thickening of the nerves - symmetrical distal muscular atrophy, appears as champagne bottle legs and claw hands - pes cavus
445
How is charcot marie tooth diagnosed?
genetics EMG- CMT 1 will have slow conduction whereas CMT 2 will have normal
446
what drugs can cause idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
oral contraceptive steroids tetracycline vitamin A lithium
447
what are two types of hydrocephalus ?
obstructive and communicating hydrocephalus
448
explain obstructive hydrocephalus
occurs when there is narrowing of the flow of CSF in one or more of the passages connecting the ventricles. This may include the foramen of monro, cerebral aqueduct or fourth ventricle
449
explain communicating hydrocephalus
occurs when CSF can exit the ventricular system but absorption into the blood stream is impaired. This is common after SAH and infective meningitis where they might have been damage to the arachnoid granulations
450
what is the first line drug in the management of chronic relapsing and remitting multiple sclerosis ?
glatiramer acetate
451
How soon after alteplase should aspirin be given?
24 hours
452
What causes subacute degeneration of the spinal cord?
vitamin B12 deficiency- may be precipitated by recreational nitric oxide use or by replacing folate before B12 in deficiency
453
Pathophysiology of subacute degeneration of the spinal cord
damage to the: - dorsal columns (vibration and proprioception) - lateral corticospinal tract - spinocerebellar tract
454
how does subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord present?
impaired vibration and proprioception sense Muscle weakness, hyperreflexia and spasticity sensory ataxia (romberg positive)
455
How is vitamin B12 replaced?
IM hydroxocobalamin
456
How does Brown-Sequard present?
ipsilateral weakness ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration contralateral loss of pain and temperature 1-2 levels below.
457
Management of benign essential tremor if asthmatic
topiramate or primidone
458