Neuro Flashcards
(223 cards)
1
Q
What is the corpus callosum?
A
a bundle of nerve fibers responsible for communication between the hemispheres
2
Q
What are the four lobes of the brain?
A
frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
3
Q
The lobes are composed of a substance known as?
A
gray matter
4
Q
What does gray matter do?
A
Mediates higher level functions such as memory, perception, communication, and initiation of voluntary movements
5
Q
Where is the Diencephalon and what organs are involved?
A
The diencephalon lies beneath the cerebral hemispheres and consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus.
6
Q
Most sensory impulses travel through what type of matter? that matter belongs to what organ? what is the function of the matter once it received these impulses?
A
Most sensory impulses travel through the gray matter of the thalamus, which is responsible for screening and directing the impulses to specific areas in the cerebral cortex.
7
Q
Which nervous system is the hypothalamus part of? The SNS or PNS
A
The hypothalamus is part of the autonomic nervous system, which is a part of the peripheral nervous system
8
Q
Responsibilities of the hypothalamus
A
The hypothalamus regulates water balance, appetite, sleep cycles, pain perception, emotional status, temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate.
9
Q
Function of the frontal lobe
A
Directs voluntary, skeletal actions. Influences communication (talking and writing), emotions, intellect, reasoning ability, judgment, and behavior. Contains Broca area.
10
Q
In the frontal lobe, what side of the lobe controls the right side of the body?
A
Left side of lobe controls right side of body
11
Q
Broca area
A
Responsible for speech
12
Q
In the frontal lobe, what side of the lobe controls the left side of the body?
A
Right side of lobe controls left side of body
13
Q
Function of the parietal lobe
A
Interprets tactile sensations, including touch, pain, temperature, shapes, and two-point discrimination.
14
Q
Function of the occipital lobe
A
Ability to read with understanding and is the primary visual receptor center.
15
Q
Function of the temporal lobe
A
Receives and interprets impulses from the ear. Contains Wernicke area, which is responsible for interpreting auditory stimuli.
16
Q
What is the primary visual receptor of the brain?
A
Occipital lobe
17
Q
Where is the brainstem located?
in relation to the cerebral cortex and spinal cord
A
Located between the cerebral cortex and the spinal cord
18
Q
What are the 3 parts of the brainstem?
A
The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
19
Q
The brainstem is mostly made of…
A
Nerve fibers
20
Q
What is the function of the midbrain
A
A relay center for ear and eye reflexes, and relays impulses between the higher cerebral centers and the lower pons, medulla, cerebellum, and spinal cord
21
Q
What part of the brain is responsible for various reflex actions
A
The pons
22
Q
What links the cerebellum to the cerebrum and the midbrain to the medulla?
A
The pons
23
Q
What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
A
The medulla oblongata contains the nuclei for cranial nerves, and has centers that control and regulate respiratory function, heart rate and force, and blood pressure.
24
Q
Where is the cerebellum located?
A
The cerebellum, located behind the brain stem and under the cerebrum
25
How many parts does the cerebellum have?
two hemispheres
26
What are the functions of the cerebellum?
Coordination and smoothing of voluntary movements, maintenance of equilibrium, and maintenance of muscle tone.
27
The inner part of the spine is made of what kind of matter?
Gray matter
28
The outer part of the spine is made of what kind of matter?
White matter
29
Spinal cord function
Conducts sensory impulses up, conducts motor impulses down to neurons that stimulate glands and muscles throughout the body, and is responsible for simple reflex activity
30
Motor impulses are conducted to the muscles by what two neural pathways?
Descending pathways; the pyramidal (corticospinal) tract and extrapyramidal tract
31
What are the two types of fibers of the PNS?
somatic and autonomic
32
These fibers carry CNS impulses to voluntary skeletal muscles
| Somatic or Autonomic
Somatic fibers
33
These fibers carry CNS impulses to smooth, involuntary muscles
| Somatic or Autonomic
Autonomic fibers
| (in the heart and glands)
34
What nervous system mediates conscious, or voluntary, activities?
Somatic nervous system
35
What nervous system mediates unconscious, or involuntary, activities?
Autonomic nervous system
36
The sensory root of each spinal nerve innervates an area of the skin called a
Dermatome
37
This is activated during stress and elicits responses such as decreased gastric secretions, bronchiole dilatation, increased pulse rate, and pupil dilatation
Sympathetic nervous system
"Fight or Flight"
37
The sympathetic fibers arise from which part(s) of the spinal cord?
From the thoracolumbar level (T1 to L2) of the spinal cord
38
What nervous system restores and maintains normal body functions, for example, by decreasing heart rate.
Parasympathetic nervous system
39
The parasympathetic fibers arise from which part(s) of the spinal cord?
From the craniosacral regions (S1 to S4 and cranial nerves III, VI, IX, and X).
40
What cranial nerve carries smell impulses from nasal mucous membrane to brain?
Cranial nerve 1, Olfactory
41
What nerve carries visual impulses from eye to brain?
Cranial nerve 2, Optic
42
What cranial nerve contracts eye muscles to control eye movements, constricts pupils, and elevates eyelids
Cranial nerve 3, Oculomotor
43
What nerve carries sensory impulses of pain, touch, and temperature from the face to the brain
Cranial nerve 5, Trigeminal
44
What nerve influences clenching and lateral jaw movements (biting, chewing)
Cranial nerve 5, Trigeminal
45
What nerve controls lateral eye movements
Cranial nerve 5, Abducens
46
Which cranial nerve's sensory fibers detect taste on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and stimulate secretion from the submaxillary, sublingual, and lacrimal glands?
Cranial nerve 6, Facial
47
What is the mnemonic for cranial nerve names?
Oh
Oh
Oh
To
Touch
And
Feel
Very
Good
Velvet
Ah
Ha
48
What is the mnemonic for cranial nerve impulses?
Some
Say
Money
Matters
But
My
Brother
Says
Big
Boobs
Matter
More
49
What cranial nerve supplies the facial muscles and affects facial expressions (smiling, frowning, closing eyes)
Cranial nerve 7, Facial
50
What cranial nerve contains sensory fibers for hearing and balance?
Cranial nerve 8, Vestibulocochlear
51
What cranial nerve detects taste on posterior third of tongue and result in the gag reflex when stimulated.
Cranial nerve 9, Glossopharyngeal
52
What cranial nerve provides secretory fibers to the parotid salivary glands; promotes swallowing movement
Cranial nerve 9, Glossopharyngeal
53
What cranial nerve carries sensations from the throat, larynx, heart, lungs, bronchi, gastrointestinal tract, and abdominal organs; aids in swallowing, speaking, and digestive juice production.
Cranial nerve 10, Vagus
54
What cranial nerve innervates the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoid and trapezius), promoting movement of the shoulders, head rotation, and larynx?
Cranial nerve 11, (Spinal) Accessory
55
What cranial nerve innervates tongue muscles that promote the movement of food and talking
Cranial nerve 12, Hypoglossal
56
You patient comes into the ER experiencing an aura, should you be alarmed?
An aura is an auditory, visual, or motor sensation that forewarns the client that a seizure is about to occur. As the nurse, you need to take safety measures to protect the patient.
57
In a neuro assessment, what does dizziness or lightheadedness indicate?
Dizziness or lightheadedness may be related to carotid artery disease, cerebellar abscess, Ménière disease, or inner ear infection.
58
In a neuro assessment, what do issues with balance and coordination indicate?
May indicate neurologic diseases involving the cerebellum, basal ganglia, extrapyramidal tracts, or the vestibular part of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic)
59
What factors may increase the risk of falls related to cerebral blood flow and vestibular function?
Diminished cerebral blood flow and vestibular response
60
In a neuro assessment, what can numbness and/or tingling indicate?
Loss of sensation, tingling, or burning (paresthesia) may occur with damage to the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves.
61
You are performing a neuro assessment on a new admission, they communicate that they sometimes experiences numbness and tingling. What is the next step of the nurse?
use COLDSPA to further assess
62
You patient is complaining that her 70-year-old aunt has a picky palate. She complains that this may be a loss of taste and scent sensation. What is the next step of the nurse?
Loss of taste and scent is common in older adults
63
In a neuro assessment, what does a decrease in the ability to smell mean?
Might be related to a dysfunction of olfactory nerve or a brain tumor
64
In a neuro assessment, what does a decrease in the ability to taste mean?
A decrease in the ability to taste may be related to dysfunction of cranial nerves VII (facial) or IX (glossopharyngeal).
65
What can ringing in the ears (tinnitus) or hearing loss indicate?
Ringing in the ears and decreased ability to hear may occur with dysfunction of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic)
66
Injury to this part of the brain can impair the ability to speak or understand verbal language.
Cerebral cortex
67
A patient is experiencing difficulty swallowing, what may this be an indicator of?
CVA; Parkinson disease; myasthenia gravis; Guillain-Barré syndrome; or dysfunction of cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), or XII (hypoglossal).
68
Loss of bowel control or urinary retention and bladder distention are seen under what circumstance(s)?
With spinal cord injury or tumors
69
What are Fasciculations and what circumstances can they be observed?
They are continuous, rapid twitching of resting muscles. May be seen in lower motor neuron disease
70
What type of muscle contractions are common in Parkinson's disease, cerebellar disease, and multiple sclerosis?
Tremors: involuntary muscle contractions, with Parkinson’s showing 3–6 per second "pin rolling" at rest, and cerebellar disease/MS showing variable rates with intentional movement.
71
In which conditions may tics (involuntary repetitive twitching )movements) be observed?
Tics may be seen in Tourette syndrome, habit psychogenic tics, or tardive dyskinesias.
72
What is myoclonus and in which conditions can it occur?
Myoclonus (sudden jerks of arms or legs) can occur normally when falling asleep or during grand mal seizures.
73
What is chorea and which conditions it is commonly seen?
Chorea (sudden rapid, jerky movements). Chorea is seen in Huntington disease and Sydenham chorea
74
What is Athetosis and which conditions it is commonly seen?
Athetosis (twisting, writhing, slow, continuous movements) is seen in cerebral palsy
75
Recent memory loss can be indicative of which conditions?
Recent memory (24-hour memory) is often impaired in amnesic disorders, Korsakoff syndrome, delirium, and dementia.
76
Remote memory loss can be indicative of which conditions?
Remote memory (past dates and historic accounts) may be impaired in cerebral cortex disorders.
77
How can meningitis, encephalitis, spinal cord injury, or stroke affect a client’s long-term physical and mental status?
These disorders can cause lasting physical and mental changes, requiring treatment for recovery or management.
78
How does nicotine from cigarettes affect blood flow?
Nicotine constricts blood vessels, decreasing brain blood flow
79
T/F Smoking increases the risk of CVA
True!
80
Peripheral neuropathy can result from a deficiency in what vitamins?
niacin, folic acid, or vitamin B12
81
Prolonged exposure to these substances can alter neurologic status
Lead, insecticides, pollutants, or other chemicals
82
What kind of physical injury can your patient get if they lift heavy objects improperly?
Intervertebral disc injuries
83
What kind of neural injury can your patient get if they perform repetitive motions?
Peripheral nerve injuries can occur from repetitive movements.
84
T/F Stress does not increase existing neurologic symptoms.
False, Stress can increase existing neurologic symptoms.
85
T/F The heart is where strokes occur.
False. Strokes occur when blood supply to an area of the brain is diminished or interrupted; brain cells deprived of nutrients and oxygen begin to die.
86
You are assessing a 45-year-old patient who has a history of migraines and recent difficulty with balance. When testing their patellar reflex, you observe very brisk, rhythmic oscillations. How should you grade the reflexes?
The reflexes should be graded as 4+, indicating hyperactive reflexes with clonus, which is abnormal and may suggest a neurological disorder.
87
Mydriasis
Dilated pupils
88
Miosis
Small pinpoint pupils
89
-esthesia
Feeling or sensation
90
Ptosis
Drooping of the eyelid
91
Anosmia
Partial or full loss of smell
92
What conditions can cause pinpoint pupils
Opioid overdose
93
Dysarthria
Difficulty speaking (muscular problems)
94
Dysphagia
Difficulty swallowing
95
Dysphasia
Difficulty understanding words or putting them together in a sentence
96
Apraxia
Loss of ability to execute or carry out skilled movements despite having ability and desire to perform them
97
Tremores
Rapid twitching of resting muscles
98
AMS
Altered Mental Status
99
Encephalitis
Inflammation of active brain tissues
100
Meningitis
Inflammation of the tissues surrounding the brain and spinal cord
101
What are the causes of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
Blockage of a blood vessel in the brain (ischemic stroke).
Rupture of a blood vessel in the brain (Hemorrhagic stroke).
102
Risk factors for stroke
High bp, High cholesterol, Cigarette smoking, diabetes, poor diet, physical injury, oral contraceptive use in women over 35 who smoke
103
Teaching topics for stroke
Control cholesterol, BP, and diabetes through diet, exercise, and medicines (if needed)
104
What does cocaine do to the blood vessels?
Vasoconstriction
105
Cerebellar ataxia
Wide-base, staggering, unsteady gait
106
Parkinsonian gait
Shuffling gait
107
Scissors gait
Stuff, short gait
108
How does spastic hemiparesis manifest in appearance
Flexed arm held close to body while client drags leg or circles it stiffly outward and forward such as occurs in stroke
109
What is decorticate posturing
Flexion and extension of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities
110
What is decerebrate posturing
Extension of all 4 extremities
111
Neurologic changes in the older adult
Changes in cognitive function
Sensory decline
Motor function
111
Older adults are an increased neurologic risk of
Dementia (alzheimers, vascular, lewy body), Parkinson's, Stroke
112
Vascular dementia
Decreased vasculation leading to dementia
113
Modifiable risk factors for older adults (neuro)
Smoking, HTN, Diabetes
114
What organizes the left and right cerebral hemisphere that sends/receives impulses from opposite side of the body?
Cerebrum
115
The brain stem controls and regulates...
Respiratory function, heart rate, and blood pressure
116
What part of the brain is responsible for various reflex actions?
Pons
117
what type of sensory impulses travel to the brain by the Spinothalamic tract?
Sensations of pain, temperature, and crude/light touch
118
what type of sensory impulses travel to the brain by the Posterior column?
Sensations of position, vibration, and fine touch
119
what type of motor impulses travel to the brain by the pyramidal (corticospinal) tract
Impulses carried to muscles and produce voluntary movements that involve skill and purpose.
120
what type of motor impulses travel to the brain by the extrapyramidal tract
Conduct impulses to muscles related to maintenance of muscle tone and body control
121
The Snellen chart is used to assess what kind of nerve?
Optic nerve
122
Name of the test where you cover one eye and look straight ahead while the examiner holds up fingers in your peripheral vision, asking you to identify how many fingers you see.
Check retina and optic disk for round red reflex and pink retina.
Visual fields
123
What nerve is assessed when you touch the patient’s forehead, cheek, and chin with the sharp/dull side of a paperclip and see if they can feel it in.
Trigeminal
124
Ringing in the ears and decreased ability to hear may occur with dysfunction of which cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
125
What is a seizure
Sudden, uncontrolled burst of electrical activity in the brain that causes temporary changes in behavior, movement, or consciousness
126
Dizziness can be related to what vascular and neural conditions
Related to carotid artery disease, cerebellar abscess, or Meniere disease, or inner ear infection.
127
Imbalance and difficulty coordinating/controlling movements can be seen in neurological conditions involving _______.
Seen in neurologic diseases involving the cerebellum, basal ganglia, extrapyramidal tracts, vestibular part of CN VIII
128
What is Paresthesia
Loss of sensation, tingling, prickling, or burning
129
Damage to what structures can cause paresthesia?
Damage to the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves
130
Ringing in the ears is known as...
Tinnitis
131
Difficulty forming words is known as...
Dysarthria
132
Difficulty comprehending and expressing thoughts is known as...
Dysphasia
133
Difficulty producing or understanding language
Aphasia
134
Injury to what structure causes aphasia
Motor lesions in the dominant cerebral hemisphere
135
Injury to what structure causes dysarthria
Injury to cerebral cortex
136
Injury to what structure causes Dysphasia
Injury to cerebral cortex
137
Injury to what structures cause Dysphagia
Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) or cranial X (vagus)
138
What are fasciculations
Continuous, rapid twitching of resting muscles
139
Injury to what structure causes fasciculations?
Lower motor neuron disease
140
Involuntary contraction of opposing groups of muscles is known as...
Tremors
141
What can cause tremors?
Degenerative neurologic disorders (Parkinson disease)
142
Involuntary repetitive twitching movements
Tics
143
Term for sudden jerks of arms or legs
Myoclonus
144
What causes myoclonus
Grand mal seizures
145
Loss of bowel control or urinary retention and bladder distention can be caused by...
Spinal cord injury or tumors
145
Acute state of mental confusion and disorientation, inability to think or remember clearly
Delirium
146
What conditions lead to unilateral weakness or paralysis
CVA, compression of spinal cord, or nerve injury
147
What is remote memory?
Recalling past events
(When is your birthday? When is your first job?)
148
A patient is unable to perform remote memory, what disorder can cause this?
Cerebral cortex disorder
149
Inability to recall recent memory may be a sign off?
Amnesic disorders, Korsakoff syndrome, delirium, and dementia
150
What is stroke?
Occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted, causing brain cells to die
151
How does cigarette smoking relate to CVA (cerebrovascular accident or stroke)?
Cigarette smoking causes damage to the blood vessels, leading to damaged blood vessels. Leads to the development of plaque (aka atherosclerosis) → plaque build-up causes narrowing of bv → increases likelihood of blood clot → blocked bv leads to no blood flow to the brain → stroke.
152
Explain how nicotine affects the brain
Nicotine = constricts the blood vessels, which decrease blood flow to the brain
153
What do reflexes do?
Provides clues to the integrity of deep and superficial reflexes
154
5 assessment points of a “neuro check”
1) LOC
2) Pupillary checks
3) Movement and strength of extremities
4) Sensation in extremities
5) Vital Signs
155
Mental status
A broader term that encompasses a person's overall cognitive, affective, and behavioral functioning
156
How do you evaluate someone's LOC?
Assessed by evaluating a person's responsiveness to stimuli (verbal, tactile, painful) and their ability to maintain wakefulness
157
How do you document no reflex response?
Grade 0
158
How do you document a reflex response that is decreased, less active than normal response?
Grade 1+
159
How do you document normal, usual reflex response?
Grade 2+
160
How do you document a reflex response that is more brisk or active than normal but not indicative of a disorder
Grade 3+
161
How do you document a reflex response that is hyperactive, very brisk, rhythmic oscillations (clonus); abnormal and indicative of disorder
Grade 4+
162
What is near visual acuity test?
Jaeger test
163
What is a normal Jaegar finding?
Client reads print at 14 inches w/o difficulty
164
Papilledema
(swelling of the optic nerve) present, resulting in blurred optic disc margins and dilated, pulsating veins → occurs w/ increased intracranial pressure from hemorrhage or a brain tumor → optic atrophy occurs w/ brain tumors
165
Nystagmus
rhythmic oscillation of the eyes; present, determine the direction of the fast and slow phases of movement → cerebellar disorders
166
Paralysis of the oculomotor, trochlear, or abducens nerves is known as
Paralytic Strabusmus
167
Argyll Robertson pupils can result from
CNS syphilis, meningitis, brain tumor, alcoholism
168
What can abnormally constricted, fixed pupils indicate?
Narcotics abuse or damage to the pons
169
Unilaterally dilated pupil unresponsive to light or accommodation
Damage to cranial nerve III (oculomotor)
170
How do you assess motor function of the trigeminal nerve?
Ask the client to clench teeth while you palpate the temporal and masseter muscles for contraction *may be hard to perform and evaluate in clients w/o teeth
171
How do you assess sensory function of the trigeminal nerve?
Tell client to close eyes and that you are going to touch their forehead, cheeks, and chin w/ a sharp or dull object and to tell you if there’s a sharp or dull sensation
172
How do you test for Corneal Reflex?
Eyelids blink bilaterally
173
The inability to close eyes, wrinkle forehead, or raise eyebrows along with paralysis of the lower part of the face can be seen with ____.
Bells palsy
174
What is the FAST mnemonic for stroke?
Face drooping
Arms weakness
Speech (slurred or strange)
Time (call 911 if any of these signs are present)
175
Tandem Walking test
A test of balance and coordination that involves walking heel-to-toe in a straight line
176
The sense of your body's position and movement in space is known as
Proprioception
177
Spastic Hemiparesis
A condition characterized by weakness and stiffness (spasticity) on one side of the body
178
A condition where the foot is unable to lift or dorsiflex, resulting in a dragging or slapping gait
Foot drop
179
Absence of touch sensation
Anesthesia
180
Decreased sensitivity to touch
Hypesthesia
181
Increased sensitivity to touch
Hyperesthesia
182
Graphesthesia
Use a blunt instrument to write a number on the client’s palm
183
Two-point discrimination
Can be determined on the fingertips, forearm, dorsal hands, back, or thighs → ask the client to identify the number of points felt when touched with the EKG calibers; measure the distance between the 2 points when the client cannot distinguish the 2 points
184
Describe a positive Babinski Reflex/Sign
Toes will fan out for abnormal response (normal in infants)
185
Describe a negative Babinski Reflex/Sign
Flexion of the toes for a normal/negative response
186
What is Hemorrhagic
Lack of blood flow to the brain due to bleeding
187
Lack of blood flow to the brain due to a blood clot is known as
Ischemic
188
Aka mini-stroke; temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain that produces stroke-like symptoms
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
189
The Glasgow Coma Scale measures the level of consciousness in clients who are at high risk for rapid deterioration of the nervous system. A score of 13 indicates _____ impairment.
| (none, some, significant, total)
Some impairment.
190
A client who was injured by a fall at a construction site has been admitted to the hospital. They have suffered nerve damage such that their gag reflex is no longer intact, requiring them to receive intravenous total parenteral nutrition. Which nerve should the nurse suspect to be involved in this client's injury?
Glosspharyngeal
191
A nurse observes a client's gait and notes it to be wide based and staggering. The Romberg test results were positive. The nurse recognizes this as what type of abnormal gait?
Cerebellar ataxia
192
The spinothalamic tracts transmit which of the following sensory impulses from the contralateral side of the body?
Crude touch, pain, temperature
193
T/F Intentional tremors and decreased hearing, vision, smell, and taste are normal age-related changes
True
194
Osteomyelitis
An infection of the bone that causes inflammation and pain due to diabetes mellitus
195
Sensations of temperature, pain, and crude and light touch are carried by way of the
| spinothalamic or corticospinal tracts
Spinothalamic tract
196
A nurse assesses a client for the pupillary response of the eyes and finds a unilateral dilated pupil that is unresponsive to light or accommodation. The nurse recognizes that which cranial nerve is responsible for the damage of pupillary response.
III
197
A client presents to the emergency department after being hit in the face with a baseball. The health care provider orders vision testing to be performed to assess the whether the cranial nerves are intact. The nurse should prepare to test which cranial nerves?
Oculomotor
Abducens
Trochlear
198
The client will close the eyes and identify what number the nurse writes in the palm of the client's hand with a blunt-ended object. This test is known as...
Graphesthesia: the ability to identify what is being drawn on the client's body when the client's eyes are closed.
199
When examining the eye, the nurse notices difficulty with downward motion. The nurse understands that which cranial nerve is involved?
Cranial nerve IV: Trochlear
200
What nerve controls eye muscles, eye movements, and elevates eyelids?
Cranial nerve III: Oculomotor
201
What nerve contracts one eye muscle to control inferomedial eye movement?
Cranial nerve IV: Trochlear
202
What nerve controls lateral eye movements?
Cranial nerve VI: Abducens
203
Asking the patient to identify taste sensations (sweet, salt, sour) on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue assesses which nerve?
Cranial nerve VII: Facial
204
What cranial nerve results in gag reflex?
Cranial nerve IX: Glossopharyngeal
205
What cranial nerve promotes swallowing, talking, and production of digestive juices?
Cranial nerve X: Vagus
206
What cranial nerve innervates tongue muscles that promote movement of food and talking?
Cranial nerve XII: Hypoglossal
207
Olfactory tract lesion or tumor/lesion of frontal lobe damages cranial nerve I, what would ability does this inhibit?
Inability to smell or identity correct scent
208
Papilledema (swelling of the optic nerve) can result in...
Blurred optic disc margin and dilated, pulsating veins
209
This occurs with increased intracranial pressure from intracranial hemorrhage or brain tumor.
Papilledema (swelling of the optic nerve)
210
How does CN III paralysis manifest in the pupils?
Dilated pupil (6-7 mm)
211
Unilaterally dilated pupil unresponsive to light or accommodation can be caused by...
Damage to CN III
212
Explain Bell’s Palsy in relation to the cranial nerves.
Bell's Palsy is the peripheral injury to CN VII: Facial
213
During the Weber's test of a patient who endorses sensorineural hearing loss, how do they experience the vibratory sounds?
Nerve damage in the bad ear makes the sound seem louder in the unaffected ear. (Lateralization to the good ear)
214
During the Weber's test of a patient who endorses conductive hearing loss, how do they experience the vibratory sounds?
The good ear is distracted by background noise and conducted air, which the poor ear has trouble hearing.
215
During the Rinne's test of a patient who endorses conductive hearing loss, how do they experience the vibratory sounds?
Bone conduction sound is heard longer than or equally as long as air conduction sound
216
During the Rinne's test of a patient who endorses sensorineural hearing loss, how do they experience the vibratory sounds?
Sensorineural hearing loss occurs with damage to the inner ear (cochlea), or to the nerve pathways between the inner ear and brain.
217
What would an absent gag reflex indicate?
Lesion of CN IX and X
218
A nurse is testing a client's deep tendon reflex. The nurse taps the tendon above the olecranon process. The nurse is assessing which reflex?
Triceps
219
When preparing to test a client for meningeal irritation, what would the nurse to do first?
Ensure there is no injury to the cervical spine.
220
When assessing cranial nerves IX and X, what would the nurse consider as a normal finding?
Uvula and soft palate rising bilaterally
