Neuro Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

3 most common classifications AMS?

A
  1. Delerium
  2. Dementia
  3. Psychosis
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2
Q

In which class are vital signs irregular?

A

Delirium

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3
Q

In which class are visual and audial hallucinations seen?

A

Visual: delirium
Audial: Psychosis

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4
Q

What part of brain manages arousal? Cognition?

A

Arousal: Brainstem nuclei (RAS)
Cognition: Cortical functioning

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5
Q

Most common causes delirium?

A

Almost always caused by underlying medical problem that has toxic or metabolic effects on the brain

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6
Q

How to test pronator drift?

A
  1. Hold arms outstretched with palms facing upward
  2. Eyes closed: w/o vision, patient relies on proprioception alone to maintain position
  3. UMN lesion, supinator muscles in upper limb are weaker than pronator muscles, and arm drifts downward and palm turns toward floor
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7
Q

Definition stroke?

A

Acute onset of neurologic deficit caused by disruption of cerebral blood flow to a localized region of the brain

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8
Q

Majority of strokes ischemic or hemorrhagic?

A

87% ischemic

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9
Q

Risk factors stroke?

A
  1. Hypertension / diabetes / hyperlipidemia
  2. Smoking
  3. Advanced age
  4. A fib / prosthetic heart valve
  5. Prior stroke
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10
Q

Timeframe for giving TPA?

A

Door to decision to give: 45 minutes

Door to drug administration: 60 minutes (and less than 3 hours from onset)

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11
Q

Imaging in suspected stroke?

A

Head CT w/o contrast on all patients to exclude hemorrhage

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12
Q

Contradiction to tPA in head imaging?

A

Frank hypodensity on CT is indicative of completed stroke and may be a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy

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13
Q

Inclusion criteria for tPA?

A
  1. Diagnosis of ischemic stroke causing measurable neurological deficit
  2. Onset of symptoms less than 3 hours
  3. Aged ≥18 years
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14
Q

Blood pressure goal after tPA?

A

Below 180/105 in first 24 hours

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15
Q

Use of aspirin in stroke?

A

Aspirin within 24 – 48 hours of stroke onset is recommended

- Aspirin should not be administered for at least 24 hours after administration of rtPA

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16
Q

Classic meningitis presentation?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Neck Stiffness
  3. AMS
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17
Q

What is papilledema?

A

Condition in which increased pressure in or around the brain causes optic nerve inside eye to swell. Symptoms may be fleeting disturbances in vision, headache, vomiting, or a combination

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18
Q

Glucose in bacterial meningitis?

A

Less than 40 or ratio of CSF/blood glucose less than 0.40

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19
Q

Rx HSV encephalitis?

A

Acyclovir

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20
Q

Class presentation SAH?

A
  1. Acute onset “thunderclap” HA
  2. LOC
  3. Vomiting
  4. Neck stiffness
  5. Seizure
21
Q

RFs intracerebral bleeds?

A
  • ***FH 3 - 5x risk
    1. Recent exertion
    2. Hypertension
    3. Excessive alcohol consumption
    4. Sympathomimetic use
    5. Smoking
22
Q

What is an epidural hematoma?

A

Accumulations of blood between the skull and dura

- Typically occur after significant blunt head trauma

23
Q

Presentation EDH?

A

Brief LOC after blow to head, followed by a lucid period. - Soon after, level of consciousness deteriorates again

24
Q

What is a subdural hemorrhage?

A

Extra axial blood collections between the dura and the arachnoid mater

25
What is cushings Triad?
Physiologic response to rapidly increasing ICP and imminent brain herniation. Its features are: 1. Hypertension 2. Bradycardia 3. Abnormal respiratory patterns
26
How does bleeding appear on head CT?
Hyperdense (whiter) relative to the surrounding tissues
27
How to control rising ICP?
1. Monitoring/lowering BP 2. Elevating head of bed to 30 degrees 3. Providing adequate sedation and analgesia 4. Mannitol 5. Mild hyperventilation
28
Two categories seizure?
1. Generalized: involving both hemispheres of brain with loss of consciousness 2. Focal (partial): only one hemisphere is involved
29
Two types focal seizures?
1. Simple partial: cognition is not impaired | 2. Complex partial: when cognition is impaired
30
Evidence of seizure if not witnessed?
1. Tongue trauma from biting | 2. Urinary or bowel incontinence
31
What is Todd's Paralysis?
Focal neurologic deficit mimicking a stroke which can be seen with seizure
32
Secondary causes of seizure?
1. Alcohol withdrawal 2. Drug use 3. HYPOglycemia 4. HYPOnatremia
33
Definition status epilepticus?
Seizure of greater than 5 minutes duration, or 2 or more seizures in a row without a return to baseline
34
When are patients with primary seizures prone to seize?
1. Medical noncompliance: #1 2. Sleep deprivation 3. Emotional or physical stress
35
Labs for first seizure?
1. CMP | 2. Pregnancy test
36
Additional test in status?
LP, CT must be done first
37
When to CT seizure?
1. First time 2. New type of seizure 3. Trauma 4. Fever 5. Prolonged post ictal 6. Status
38
When to MRI seizure?
First time but as outpatient
39
When is EEG need?
1. First seizure as o/p | 2. Status to make sure seizure has stopped
40
Vitals in etoh withdrawal?
tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia and tachypnea
41
Meds known to cause seizure?
1. Tricyclics | 2. Isoniazid
42
Signs of PNES?
Rhythmic, controlled shaking activity, ability to talk or follow commands during the seizure, recall of a seizure that involves both sides of the body, or lack of a postictal period
43
Can you place something in mouth in seizure?
Bite block or oropharyngeal airway to protect the tongue.
44
Lines of therapy in status?
First line: benzodiazepines (usually lorazepam) Second line: fosphenytoin/phenobarbital/valproic acid Third line: versed/pentobarbital/propofol infusions
45
Seizure meds that can be given IM?
Lorazepam, midazolam, and diazepam can all be given intramuscularly
46
Rx secondary seizures?
Eclampsia – Magnesium sulfate Hyponatremia – Hypertonic saline Isoniazid – Pyroxidine Hypoglycemia – Dextrose
47
When not to use NIPPV?
``` Respiratory arrest/absent respiratory drive Hemodynamic instability Aspiration Risk Airway obstruction Unable to tolerate mask Mask does not fit Altered mental status ```
48
When to use NIPPV?
``` Moderate to severe dyspnea Accessory muscle use Paradoxical abdominal movement Fatigue RR > 25 bpm pH < 7.35, pCO2 >45 ```
49
DDx for slow and rapid onset respiratory distress?
``` Rapid: 1. PE 2. Spontaneous pneumothorax Gradual: 1. COPD 2. Pneumonia 3. CHF ```