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Flashcards in Neuro Deck (156):
1

Anterior white commissures (what crosses here?)

Pain and temperature tracts (Commonly compressed in a syringomyelia --- loss of pain and temp in upper extremities due to syrinx at C8-T1)

2

What do the lateral hypothalamic tracts contain?

Sympathetics to the face (lesion= Horner's syndrome)

3

Signs of a LMN lesion?

Muscle weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, decrs tone & hyporeflexia

4

Signs of an UMN lesion?

Increased tone, hyperreflexia (spasticity),clonus, Babinski sign, posturing

5

Autosomal recessive, triplet repeats in the Frataxin gene Progressive damage to the nervous system Spinal nervous tissue degenerates over time causing ataxia, speech problems, muscle weakness, vision, hearing impairment Also assoc with development of diabetes and heart disease

Friedrich's Ataxia

6

Secondary structures of proteins (alpha helices and beta sheets) are held in tact by what type of bond?

Hydrogen bonds

7

Melanocytes are derived from what?

Neural crest cells

8

a monocular scotoma is caused by a lesion ______

at the retina, optic disk or optic nerve (possible causes include Macular degeneration or optic neuritis)

9

Right anopia is caused by a lesion at the _____

right optic nerve (retinal artery or central vein occlusion)

10

Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by a lesion at the ______

Optic chiasm (pituitary tumor, craniopharyngioma or aneurysm of anterior communicating artery)

11

Right nasal hemianopia is caused by a lesion at the ________

right peri-chiasm (caused by a calcification or aneurysm of the internal carotid artery pressing on uncrossed lateral retinal fibers)

12

Left homonymous hemianopia (with a Marcu Gunn pupil) is caused by a lesion __________

Right optic tract or optic radiation (occlusion of anterior choroidal artery or MCA branch)

13

Left homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by __________

a lesion in the right temporal lobe (Meyer's loop) -- caused by a lesion / stroke in temporal lobe

14

Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is caused by __________

right parietal lobe lesion or stroke

15

left homonymous hemianopia w/ macular sparing caused by _________

right primary visual cortex (occipital lobe) -- caused by a PCA occlusion, macula is spared b/c of collateral blood flow

16

What are the afferent & efferent nerves for the corneal reflex?

CN V (sensation of eye) , CN VII (reflex blink)

17

pt with hearing loss, tinnitus, asymmetric smile and loss of corneal reflex on same side---> a mass is most likely located ___________

at the cerebellopontine angle (the location of CN VIII...... CN V and VII are also nearby & could be affected)

18

Demyelination decreases the _________ constant

space (aka 'length') constant ---> the distance along the axon the AP can propogate

19

Which muscle close the jaw?

masseter, medial pterygoid & temporalis muscles (supplied by the 3rd division of the Trigeminal n.--V3)

20

Which muscle opens the jaw?

Lateral pterygoid muscle (CN V3)

21

Which nerve roots produce 'saddle anesthesia' if pinched?

S3,4,5

22

low back pain radiating to legs, saddle anesthesia, loss of anocutaneous reflex, bowel & bladder dysfunction, loss of ankle jerk reflex and weak plantarflexion of the foot

Cauda equina syndrome (damage to the lumbar plexus nerve roots)

A image thumb
23

Man with short term memory loss, nystagmus, ophthalamoplegia & ataxia who's breath smells like alcohol..... which of the structures is most likely damaged in this man's brain?

Q image thumb

B- the mammillary bodies --> he is experiencing Wernicke Encephalopathy and could progress to Korsakoff psychosis 

24

CSF flows from the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle via __________________ and then to the 4th ventricle via the _______________ and then out of the 4th and into the subarachnoid space through the __________ & __________

interventricular foramina of Monroe , cerebral aquaduct , lateral foramina of Luschka (2) or the medial foramin of Magendie

25

a condition that occurs in overweight young females and is related to decreased CSF outflow at the arachnoid villi & increased ICP causing headache/ vision changes 

Psuedotumor cerebri 

26

Increased CSF volume occuring when there is brain atrophy 

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo 

27

What is the structure with the black arrow? And what disease usually affects it?

Q image thumb

the Putamen --> Wilson's dz causes cystic degeneration of the putamen as well as other basal ganglia structures

28

Name structures A-E

Q image thumb

A= Globus pallidus

B = Putamen 

C= Internal Capsule

D = part of the Caudate 

E= Amygdala

29

What supplies sensory innervation to the tongue?

Anterior 2/3 = mandibular div of trigeminal (V3)

Posterior 1/3 = CN IX

Tongue root = CN X

30

What supplies TASTE to the anterior 2/3 pf the tongue?

Corda tympani (from CN VII - facial nerve) 

31

65 y.o. man with vision problems, exam shows small yellow lesions clustered around the macula and scotomas 

Macular degeneration 

32

Occlusion of the ACA (anterior cerebral artery)  would lead to problems with what parts of the body?

legs

33

What arteries make up the circle of willis? 

A image thumb
34

What feature of the capillaries in the brain prevents drugs from freely crossing the BBB?

Tight junctions btw the capillary endothelial cells 

35

the CNS originates from _______________ & the PNS originates from _________________

CNS --> from neuroectoderm 

PNS --> from Neural crest cells 

36

What is the Nissl substance?

the RER in neurons 

37

when an axon is injured and degenerates distally

Wallerian degeneration 

38

Hypothalamus structures and functions 

Supraoptic nucleus --> makes ADH 

Paraventricular nucleus --> makes Oxytocin 

Lateral hypothalamus --> hunger  (Leptin inhibits)

Ventromedial hypothalamus -->  satiety (Leptin increases) 

Anterior hypothalamus --> cooling, parAsympathetic 

Posterior hypothalamus --> heating, sympathetic 

Suprechiasmiatic nucleus --> circadian rhythm (sleep) 

39

Occlusion of which artery would cause Broca's or Wernicke's aphasia?

MCA (probably the LEFT MCA since most people are Left dominant) 

40

Speech that is fluent and words that are well articulated but it is meaningless "word salad", patient cannot understand you 

Wernike's aphasia 

41

neuromuscular disease (ataxia, myopathy, decrs sensation)  & hemolytic anemia indicate a deficiency of ___________

VITAMIN E 

 

can happen in pts with Cystic Fibrosis due to malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins 

42

a common feature of temporal arteritis (in > 50% of people with the dz) 

Polymyalgia rheumatica (fever, neck, torso, pelvic & shoulder girdle pain and weight loss) 

43

an old ischemic infarct of the brain will appear like a cystic space and will be lined by what kind of cells?

Q image thumb

Astrocytes --> ischemic neurons undergo irreversible damage (become "red neurons") and die, then macrophages move in and eventually the necrotic material is resorbed and a cystic cavity forms --> around the cavity Astrocytes proliferate (GLIOSIS) 

44

What is usually the 1st symptom of alcohol withdrawal?

Tremulousness  ("the shakes") 

45

a boy with significant kyphoscoliosis and high plantar arches, his brother had a neurologic disorder and dies of heart failure at a young age, what does the boy have?

Friedreich Ataxia 

 

-autosomal recessive, Frataxin gene mutation, trinucleotide repeat expansion

- gait ataxia

- dorsal column degeneration 

- kyphoscoliosis & foot abnormalities 

- Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy 

- Diabetes (in 10%) 

 

46

Most common complication of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (happens in > 50%)

secondary vasospasm around the ruptured aneurysm (leads to ischemia )

- can prevent with Nimodipine 

47

triad of tinnitus, vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear 

Meniere's disease 

- increased volume of endolymph in the inner ear 

 

48

What is the most common site of a Subarachnoid hemorrhage (saccular berry aneurysm rupture)?

Circle of Willis -- Anterior Communicating Artery 

- associted with ADPKD and Ehlers Danlos 

- artery doesn't develop a media layer --> is weakend 

49

man with lung cancer develops weakness getting up from a chair and fixing his hair--> he most likley has antibodies to __________________ __________

presynaptic calcium channels 

- ha has Lambert Eaton syndrome (like Myastenia gravis but assoc with cancer and gets better with activity)

50

 what patients have a increased chance of developing Alzheimer's by age 40?

Down Syndrome patients 

- gene for APP is on chromosome 21 

51

Histologic & Gross findings in Alzheimer's dz

- extracellular senile plaques of AB Amyloid 

- intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of phosphorylated tau protein

- grossly -->  widespread cortical atrophy , narrow gyri & wide sulci, dilation of the ventricles (hydorcephalus ex vacuo) 

- decreased Ach levels in the hippocampus & nucleua basalis (b/c choline acetyltransferase decreased) 

52

-slow- onset dementia

-no focal neurologic deficits 

-APOE 4 allele is assoc with incrs risk 

- AB amyloid plaques and tau tangles 

Alzheimers dz

53

2nd most common cause of dementia 

Vascular dementia 

- due to HTN, atherosclerosis, vasculitis 

 

54

-degeneration of the frontal and temporal cortex

- round aggregates of TAU protein (Pick bodies) in the neurons

- behavior and language changes early on 

Pick disease (frontotemporal dementia) 

55

- loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta 

- loss of dopamine --> can't initiate movement --> shuffling gait, frozen face, tremor, bradykinesia 

Parkinson's disease 

 

-Tremor at rest

-Rigidity 

-Akinesia/ bradykinesia 

-Postural instability / shuffling gait 

 

--the dementia should set in LATE in the dz ((if early on --> it's Lewy Body dementia) 

56

Histologic findings of Parkinson's

- round, eosinophilis inclusions ("Lewy bodies") in the affected neurons

- made of alpha- synuclein 

57

- loss of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus

- autosomal dominant , trinucleotide repeats of _______?

- further expansion of repeats during _______leads to Anticipation 

-Huntington's dz

- CAG repeats 

- further expansion during spermatogenesis causes anticipation 

58

-urinary incontinence, gait instability, dementia 

-increased CSF causes dilated ventricles and streches the corona radiata causing the symptoms 

"wet, wobbly, & wacky"

-Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus 

-LP can relieve symptoms 

59

-PrPc (alpha helix) is converted to PrPsc (Beta sheet) 

- becomes resistant to proteases

- rapidly progressive dementia , ataxia, startle myoclonus 

Spongiform encephalopathy (ie: Creutzfeldt Jakob) 

- prion disease 

 

60

what are the 3 most common sources of brain metastases?

1- Lung

2- Breast 

3- Kidney 

 

--mets are usually multiple and at the gray/white junction ** 

61

primary brain tumors are usually  SUPRAtentorial in __________ and INFRAtentorial in _________

Adults , kids 

62

most common malig brain tumor in adults 

Glioblastoma Multiforme 

- crosses the corpus callosum ('butterfly pattern") 

- GFAP + 

- poor prognosis 

63

most common BENIGN CNS tumor of adults 

Meningioma 

- more in females

- tumor of the arachnoid cells 

- psammona bodies may be present 

64

benign tumor at the cerebellopontine angle that presents w/ hearing loss, tinnitus, tumor cells will be S-100 + 

 

Schwannoma

 

((if bilateral --> think NF-2)) 

65

-malignant tumor , presents w/ seizures

- calcified tumor in white matter of frontal lobe

- fried egg appearace 

Oligodendroglioma 

66

most common BENIGN CNS tumor in kids 

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

- usually in cerebellum 

-cystic lesion w/ nodular mass

- Rosenthal fibers

- GFAP +  

67

-malignant CNS tumor in children 

- derived from neuroectoderm 

- small, round blue cells & Homer-Wright rosetts 

- always in cerebellum 

Medulloblastoma 

68

incomplete closure of the neural tube at week ______ will result in neural tube defects 

week 4 

69

increased ________________ in maternal bld and amniotic fluid indicates a neural tube defect 

AFP (alpha fetoprotein) 

70

most common cause of hydorcephalus in newborns 

Congenital aqueduct stenosis 

71

What is shown in the photo?

Q image thumb

Dandy-Walker Malformation 

- failure of cerebellar vermis to develop

- huge, dilated 4th ventricle and no cerebellum 

72

cystic degeneration at C8-T1

- loss of P&T in upper extremeties , spares dorsal columns 

- due to involvement of ant white commisures & spinothalamic tract 

Syringomyelia 

73

congental herniation of the cerebellar tonsils thru the formamen magnum 

Arnold- Chiari Malformation Type 2

74

- viral destruction of the anterior motor horns

- fecal-oral spread 

- LMN signs 

POLIO

75

autosomal recessive degeneration of the anterior motor horns

- "floppy baby" at birth 

Werdnig -Hoffman 

76

atrophy and weakness of the hands is an early sign of __________

ALS

- will get both UMN & LMN signs eventually 

77

-tract that carries Pain & Temp from the body 

- cell body in DRG --> immed crosses in Ant white commisure --> ascends to thalamus 

Spinothalamic tract 

A image thumb
78

tract that carries fine touch, vibration, pressure, & proprioception 

- cell body in DRG --> crosses in medulla , ascends via medial lemniscus to thalamus 

Dorsal Columns 

A image thumb
79

tract that carries voluntary movement from cortex to body 

 - pryamidal neurons in cortex descend, cross over in medullary pyramids --> synapse on anterior motor horn cells  (UMN) --> then travels to LMN on muscle cells 

Lateral Corticospinal tract (Pryamidal)

A image thumb
80

inflammation of the leptomeninges (pia & arachnoid) , can be due to bacterial, viral or fungal infection 

Meningitis 

 

- most common causes in neonates: Listeria, E.coli & GBS ("LEG") 

 

81

do diagnose Meningitis, do an LP by placing  the needle between ____ & ____ 

L4 & L5 (level of the Iliac crests) 

-spinal cord ends at L2 in adults 

82

viral meningitis in children 

coxsackievirus

- fecal-oral

- CSF will have lymphocytes with normal glucose  

83

CSF findings inbacterial meningitis 

neutrophils w/ decreased glucose 

84

CSF findings in Fungal meningitis 

lymphocytes and decreased glucose 

85

most strokes are ____________________

ischemic  (85%) --> ischemia that lasts longer than 24 hours is a stroke 

can be caused by:

-Thrombus --- pale infarct

-Emboli -- hemorrhagic infarct 

- Lacunar strokes  -- 2nd to hyaline arteriolosclerosis 

86

ischemic stroke results in ___________ necrosis 

liquefactive necrosis 

87

the earliest change after an ischemic stroke is the presence of ______________

RED NEURONS (12 hrs after infarct) 

88

rupture of a Charcot- Bouchard microaneurysm will cause a ____________________ hemorrhage 

Intracerebral hemorrhage --> bleeding into the parenchyma 

- these are a result of HTN

-lenticulostriate arteries in the basal ganglia are the most common sites

89

LP shows xanthochromia 

Subararchnoid hemorrhage 

- yellow due to the breakdown of bilirubin 

90

blood btw dura and skull, lens shaped clot, lucid interval then LOC 

EPIDURAL HEMATOMA 

-due to rupture of the Middle meningeal artery 

91

blood btw dura & arachnoid , due to tearing of bridging veins, crescent shaped lesion on CT

SUBDURAL HEMATOMA 

92

uncal herniation (displacemnet of the temporal lobe uncus under the tentorium cerebelli) causes compression of CN ______ 

CN III 

- eye moves down & out

- dilated pupil 

93

Name the types of herniations 

Q image thumb

1= Uncal herniation

2= Central (transtentorial)

3= Cingulate (subfalcine)

4= Transcalvarial 

5= Upward (upward cerebellar or upward transtentorial)

6= Tonsillar (downward cerebellar)

94

galactocerebroside accumulates in macrophages in this autosomal recessive dz 

Krabbe's dz 

- deficicency of galactocerebroside beta-galactosidase 

95

impaired addition of Coenzyme A to long chain FA's

Adrenoleukodystrophy 

96

Diagnosis of MS is made by: 

-LP and a T2 weighted MRI 

- LP will show lymphocytes, immunoglobulins w/ oligoclonal IgG bands 

97

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is due to persistant _________ infection 

MEASLES 

98

Central pontine myelinolysis is due to 

rapid IV correction of hyponatremia 

-clinically presents as "locked in syndrome" 

-focal demyelination of the pons 

99

an ACA infarct will affect what part of the body? and an MCA occlusion will affect what parts?

ACA --- legs 

MCA -- upper extremeties, face (including Broca's and Wernicke's areas) 

A image thumb
100

spatial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the entire left side) 

lesion of the right parietal lobe 

101

affects 1 area of brain, preceded by aura, can be simple or complex 

Partial seizures

- Simple Partial = no LOC

-Complex Partial = impaired consciousness 

102

nucleus of the thalamus that gets sensory from the body 

VPL

103

nucleus of the thalamus that gets sensory from the face 

VPM

104

Lateral geniculate nucleus gets input from CN _____ to relay ______

CN II to relay vision input 

105

Medial geniculate nucleus gathers input from olives & inferior colliculus to relay _______ info 

hearing 

106

lesion at the cerebellar vermis causes ______

truncal ataxia & dysarthria 

107

damage to PPRF causes________

damage to frontal eye fields causes __________

PPRF ---- eyes look away from lesion side 

FEF --- eyes to toward lesion side 

108

PICA infarct causes .....

Lateral Medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome 

- vertigo, nystagmus, voimiting

-decrs P&T to limbs and face

-dysphagia, hoarseness

- IPSI Horner's syndrome

-Ataxia

109

PCA infarct at the occipital lobe causes _______

contralateral hemianopsia w/ macular sparing 

110

Hemisection of the spinal cord (ie: after getting stabbed in the back) will cause __________

Brown -Sequard Syndrome 

-IPSI UMN signs below the lesion 

-IPSI loss of fine touch, vib, prop.. below lesion 

- CONTRA P&T loss below lesion 

-IPSI loss of ALL sensation at the level of the lesion 

-LMN signs at the level of lesion 

** and if above T1 -- will also have Horner's syndrome 

A image thumb
111

CN V exits the skul via what foramen??

V1 -Superior Orbital Fissure

V2- Rotundum 

V3- Ovale 

 

"Standing Room Only" 

112

abnormal Rinne (BC >AC) and Weber localizes to affected ear 

Conductive hearing loss 

113

Sensorineural hearing loss

normal Rinne test and Weber localizes to the normal ear 

114

feared side effect of Buproprion (antidepressant and smoking cessation drug) 

Seizures! (esp in pt's with bulimia) 

115

woman with bipolar and new onset seizures, what drug can help both of her conditions?

Valproic acid 

- anticonvulsant and a mood stabilizer 

- increases GABA in the CNS 

 

- Carbamazepine is also both a mood stabilizer and an anticonvulsant **

116

mechanism of Dantrolene 

blocks Ryanodine receptors and prevents Ca+ release into the cyoplasm of skeletal muscle 

117

man working in his yard suddenly develops flushed skin, dry mouth, dilated pupils--> what did he get in to and what can reverse it? 

Jimson weed poisoning ("gardener's mydriasis") --belladonna alkaloid that produces strong anticholinergic symptoms

- similar to Atropine overdose (hot as a hare, dry as a bone, mad as a hatter...) 

- antagonize by increasing Ach in the synaptic cleft (ex: Physostigmine) 

118

man with long standing diabetes who has recent diplopia, right eye is fixed down and out but PERRLA---> what happened to the nerve?

Diabetic neuropathy causes ISCHEMIC CN III Neuropathy...

- the somatic motor function is lost but the parasympathetics are fine b/c they have different blood supply 

-**if the nerve was being compressed, however, the eye would be 'down & out' and the pupils would not be reacting to light 

119

Pramipexole, Ropinerole, Bromocriptine & Pergolide are all ___________

Dopamine agonists 

-treat Parkinson's

((Bromocriptine also treats Prolactinomas ))

- Pramipexole & Ropinerole are non-ergot cmpds

-  Bromocriptine & Pergolide are ergot cmpds 

120

Which part of Wernicke-Korsakoff is permanent?

memory loss and confabulation (Korsakoff's psychosis) 

121

What are the treatment options for Alzheimer's?

1- Cholinesterase inhibitors

2- Antioxidants (vit E) 

3- NMDA receptor antagonists (memantine) 

122

endoneural inflammatory infiltrate after a viral illness 

Guillain - Barre 

- ascending weakness / paraysis 

- after vaccination, allergic rxn or illness (campylobacter infection) 

123

What is 1st line treatment for Glaucoma? 

Prostaglandins (ie: Latanoprost) 

- incrs the outflow of aq. humor 

-cause iris to become brown

 

(Other treatments include Epinephrine, TImolol, Acetazolamide -- to decrs the production of aq humor -- and cholinomimetics like pilocarpine to incrs the outflow) 

124

Morphine, Fentanyl, Heroin, Codeine are all ________

Opioids -- most act at the opiod mu receptor (G-protein receptor) 

- decrease synaptic transmission (open K+, close Ca+ channels) 

-Toxicity = pinpoint pupils, resp depression*, constipation -- treat overdose with NALOXONE!!

 

*note: Tramadol is also an opioid agonist (weakly) and also incrs NE & serotonin -- treats Pain 

125

1st line for Tonic Clonic seizures (grand mal) 

Phenytoin, Carbamazepine or Valproic acid 

- all increase Na+ channel INACTIVAION 

-Valproic acid also increases GABA 

126

1st line therapy for a Simple Partial seizure 

carbamazepine 

- incrs Na+ channel INACTIVATION 

- also 1st line for Trigeminal neuralgia 

127

1st line therapy for a Partial Complex seizure

Carbamazepine 

128

What is the mechanism of the drug used to treat Absence seizures?

Ethosuxamide -- blocks thalamic Ca+ channels 

129

What drug is used to PREVENT status epilepticus and what drug is used in the acute setting??

Prophylaxis --> Phenytoin (Na+ channel INactivation) 

Acute treatment --> Diazepam or Lorazepam (incrs GABA)

130

1st line therapy for pregnant women & children with seizures 

Phenobarbital (incrs GABA) 

131

Most serious side effects of anti-epileptic drugs  

-Fulminant hepatitis

- Bone marrow suppression 

 

some others:

Carbamazepine --> agranulocytosis, anemia, SJS, teratogen...

Phenytoin --> gingival hyperplasia, Lupus like syndrome, teratogen

Valproic acid --> liver toxicity , teratogen 

132

Treat overdoses of ________ with Flumazenil 

Benzodiazepines (generally end in "-lam , -pam"..) 

-benzo's increase GABA by increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening 

(as opposed to Barbs which incrs GABA by increasing the duration of Cl- channel opening)

133

which cause LESS respiratory depression, barbiturates or benzodiazepines?

Benzodiazepines

134

a General anesthetic is faster acting if it is _________

- low solubility in blood (gets 'pushed' into tissues)  = fast induction 

- low Minimun alveolar concentration (MAC)

- high lipid solubility (high potency) 

135

barbiturates (like Thiopental) have short acting times as IV anesthetics b/c they rapidly shift from the brain to ___________

skeletal muscle & fat 

136

Why do you need to use more local anesthetic in infected tissue compared to healthy tissue??

infected tissue is acidic --> alkaline anesthetics are charged and cannot penetrate easily 

137

What is the order that the local anesthetics (lidocaine, procaine, cocaine...) affect nerve fibers (from 1st to last)?

Small myelinated fibers (beta) > small (a delta) unmyelinated > large myelinated > large unmyelinated 

138

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker -- can cause hypercalcemia & -kalemia and malignant hyperthermia 

SUCCINYLCHOLINE 

 

(the curare derivatives are non-depolarizing and can be reversed with AchE inhibitors) 

139

fairly new anticonvulsants that are used for treating refractory partial seizures (not responding to other meds) 

-Lamotrigine

-Tiagabine

-Topiramate 

-Vigabatrin 

-Gabapentin 

 

**BEWARE OF SKIN RASH 

140

1st line treatment for symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

Benzodiazepines 

-Long acting Diazepam or Chlordiazepoxide are the first line 

141

Medications used to abort a migraine headache have what effect at receptors?

stimulate the post-synaptic Serotonin receptor 

-Triptans are serotoin 5HT 1B /1D agonists that inhbit the release of vasoactive peptides (like substance P), promote vasoconstriction, & block pain pathways 

142

antidepressant that does NOT have sexual side effects 

Bupropion 

-good antidepressant, no sexual effects

-also helps treat nicotine dependence 

143

Common drugs that can cause Serotonin Syndrome (clonus, rigidity, hyperthermia, tachycardia, tremor, sweating, agitation, mydriasis, diarrhea...)

-SSRI's, SNRI's, MAOIs, TCA's

-Tramadol

-Ondansetron

-Linezolid (an ABX) 

-Triptans 

144

TCA overdose cause of death 

-arrythmias, refractory hypotension 

- inhibition of the fast Na+ channels in the heart is to blame 

145

What is the antidote / treatment for Serotinin Syndrome?

Cyproheptadine 

- antihistamine w/ anti-serotonin properties 

146

Main side effects of Scopolamine (antimuscarinic drug for motion sickness) 

Antimuscarinic -- so you will have signs of decrs Ach/ parasympathetic activity 

- blurry vision

-dry mouth 

- palpitations

-urinary retention & constipation 

147

P450 INDUCERS 

-Barbiturates

- St John's Wart

- Phenytoin 

-Rifampin 

-Griseofulvin 

-Carbamazepine

-Chronic alcohol use 

 

"Barb Steals Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy CArbs CHronically" 

148

Almost all volitile (inhaled)  anesthetics increase blood flow to the __________

brain

- this is NOT a good thing though b/c it increases ICP 

- inhalation anesthetics also decrs resp rate and cardiac rate  & decrs GFR 

149

Side effects of PHENYTOIN 

-gingival hyperplasia 

- generalized lymphadenopathy  ("pseudolymphoma") 

- hisutism & coarsening of the facial features, acne

 

150

Which antidepressants are most likley to cause urinary retention and other antimuscarinic SE's?

TCA's

- they act at several different receptors and have many side effects 

151

Preferred treatment for people with combined Absence and Tonic-Clonic seizures 

 

Valproic acid (Valproate) 

152

Pt on an antidepressant, ate at an Italian restaurant and developed severe HTN, tachycardia... 

Hypertensive crisis 

-man was on MAOI and ate tyramine containing foods (wine, cheese...) 

153

Thiopental (and other barbiturates) has a short period of action b/c it ___

rapidly redistributes from the brain to muscle and fat 

154

Male with ADPKD has severe headache --> admitted to hospital --> several days later he complains of right sided weakness.... what drug could have been used to prevent the sequalae that occurred?

This pt had a Subarachnoid bleed (predisposed to berry aneurysm's due to ADPKD)

- he then had a secondary VASOSPASM which could have been prevented with a Calcium channel blocker (Nimodipiine**) 

155

Used as chemoprophylaxis for all contacts of a person sick with bacterial meningitis

RIFAMPIN 

- must be given to all close contacts within 2 weeks 

156