Neuro Flashcards

(326 cards)

1
Q

Two principal cell types in nervous system?

A

Neurons

Supporting cell

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2
Q

Excitable cells that transmit electrical signals

A

Neurons

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3
Q

Cells that surround and wrap neurons

A

Supporting cells

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4
Q

Function of supporting cells (neuralgia or glial cell) (4 things)

A
  1. Provide a supportive scaffolding for neurons
  2. Segregate and insulate neurons
  3. guide young neurons to the proper connections
  4. Promote health and growth of neurons
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5
Q

Supporting cells include?

A

Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes

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6
Q

Most abundant, versatile, and highly branched shaped like a star, glial cell

A

Astrocytes

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7
Q

They cling to neurons and their synaptic endings and cover capillaries (BBB)

A

Astrocytes

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8
Q

Most common brain tumor

A

Astrocytoma

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9
Q

Astrocyte functions (4)

A

Support and brace neurons
Anchor neurons to their nutrient supplies
Guide migration young neurons
Control the chemical environment

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10
Q

Two types of mircoglia

A

Macrophage (pacman) of vns

Phagocytes thar monitor health of neurons

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11
Q

Small, ovoid cells with spiny processes

A

Microglia

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12
Q

Range in shape from squamous to columar

A

Ependymal cells

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13
Q

Ependymal cells range in shape from _______ to ______?

A

Squamous to Columnar

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14
Q

Line the central cavities of the brain and spinal column

A

Ependymal cells

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15
Q

Secrete csf (along with choroid plexus)

A

Ependymal cells

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16
Q

Have cilia which help circulation of CSF

A

Ependymal cells

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17
Q

Branched cells that wrap cns nerve fibers

A

Oligodendrocytes

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18
Q

Forms myelin sheath in CNS which wrap around a on and provide insulaton

A

Oligodendrocytes

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19
Q

Forms myelin sheath in peripheral nervous system

A

Schwan’s cells

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20
Q

Surround neuron cell bodies with ganglia

A

Satellite cells

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21
Q

3 structures of blood brain barrier

A

1 exceptionally tight junctions between brain capillary endothelial cells
2 basement membrane
3 astrocyte processes

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22
Q

Barrier between cerebral capillaries blood and csf

A

Blood brain 🧠 barrier

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23
Q

Csf fills

A

Ventricles and subarachnoid space

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24
Q

Consists of the endothelial cells of the cerebral capillaries and the choroid plexus epithelium

A

Blood brain barrier

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25
_____________ in cerebral blood vessels are joined together by exceptionally "tight" junctions and are nearly fused.
Endothelial cells
26
Lack of pores makes
Blood brain barrier
27
_________ and _________ can cross over (bbb) by carrier-mediates transport mechanism.
Glucose and amino acid
28
Can cross bbb
Co2, o2, anesthetics | Non polar lipid soluble cam cross more readily
29
Cannot cross bbb
Most ions, proteins, large substances (like mannitol) | Watee moves freely across bbb as a consequence of bulk flow
30
Bbb can be disrupted by
``` Htn Tumors Trauma Stroke Infection Hypercapnia Hypoxia Seizures ```
31
Ares that don't have bbb
Vomiting center | Osmotic center in hypothalamus
32
Infarction destroys bbb leading to
Vasotec edema
33
Bile crosses under developed bbb in Newborn
Kernicterus
34
The brain is protected by _______, ________, and ________?
Bone, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid
35
Three connective tissue membranes lie external to the cns
Dura mater Arachnoid mater Pia mater
36
Functions of the meninges? (4)
Cover and protect the cns Protect blood vessels and enclose venous sinuses Contain cerebrospinal fluid Form partitions within the skull
37
Leathery, strong meninx composed of 2 fibrous connective tissue layers
Dura mater
38
Dura mater 2 layers separate in certain areas and form _______?
Dural sinuses
39
3 dural septa extend inward and limit excessive movement of the brain
Falx cerebri Falx cerebelli Tentorium cerebelli
40
Fold that dips into longitudinal fissure
Falx cerebri
41
Runs along the vermis of the cerebellum
Falx cerebelli
42
Horizontal dural fold extends into the transverse fissure
Tentorium
43
The middle meninx which forms loose brain coverings
Arachnoid mater
44
Separated from dura mater by subdural space
Arachnoid mater
45
Beneath the Arachnoid is a wide subarachnoid space filled with _______ and _______?
Csf and large blood vessels
46
______________ protrude superiorly and permit csf to be absorbed into venous blood.
Arachnoid villi
47
Deep meninx composed of delicate connective tissue that clings tightly to the brain
Pia mater
48
Cranial nerve I
Olfactory
49
Cranial nerve II
Optic
50
Cranial nerve III
Oculomotor
51
Cranial nerve IV
Trochlear
52
Cranial nerve V
Trigeminal
53
Cranial nerve VI
Abducens
54
Cranial nerve VII
Facial
55
Cranial nerve VIII
Vestibulocochlear
56
Cranial nerve IX
Glossopharyngeal
57
Cranial nerve X
Vagus
58
Cranial nerve XI
Assessory
59
Cranial nerve XII
Hypoglossal
60
Damage to the optic nerve
blindness
61
injury to the oculomotor nerve
strabismus, ptosis, loss of light reflex
62
trigeminal neuralgia " tic douloureux"
most severe face pain "suicide pain"
63
Nerves involved with trigeminal neuralgia
V and IX
64
Herpes simplex virus type 1 possible cause of which cranial nerve injury?
Bell's Palsy
65
Paralysis of VII facial nerve
Bell's Palsy
66
Damage of VIII nerve
Deafness
67
Damage to vagus nerve
hoarseness, loss of voice, impaired gut motility
68
Damage to XII
Tongue deviate to affected side
69
How may vertebra
33
70
How many cervical vertebrae
7
71
How many thoracic vertebrae
12
72
How many lumbar vertebrae
5
73
How many sacral (fused)
5
74
How many coccygeal
4
75
Join together by fibrocartilaginous intervertebral (IV) discs
Vertebral column
76
Typical vertebral consists of
body, vertebral, arch, seven processes, vertebral foreman, vertebral notches/ processes (7)
77
spinous (1), transverse (2), articular processes (4), connect adjacent vertebrae
vertebral notches/ processes
78
vertebral canal that houses the spinal cord
Vertebral foramen
79
for muscle attachment in the vertebra
seven processes
80
formed by pedicles and laminae
vertebral arch
81
Gray ramus has
post ganglionic neuron
82
White ramus has
pre-ganglionic neuron and sensory neuron
83
3 fates of preganglionic fibers
1. synapse in the paravertebral ganglia with the sympathetic postsynaptic neurons. Pass through gray rami (type C fibers) 2. ascend or decent in the paravertebral ganglia before synapsing with postganglionic neurons. 3. pass through the paravertebral ganglia without synapsing; these fibers synapse with postganglionic neurons in peripheral ganglia.
84
All sympathetic preganglionic fibers pass-through ________.
White rami
85
Some, but not all sympathetic postganglionic fibers pass-through _______
Gray rami
86
Gray rami are distributed to ______ spinal nerves
All
87
White rami are distributed to _____ spinal nerves
T1-L2
88
_________ allow coordinated, mass discharge of sympathetic nervous system.
Gray rami
89
Horner's syndrome lesion above ____
T1
90
Horner s/s (6)
``` Ptosis (slight drooping of eyelids) anhidrosis (absence of sweating) miosis (pupil constriction) enophthalmos flushing (increased temp) nasal congestion ```
91
due to the destruction of the stellate (inferior cervical) ganglion. Loss of sympathetic tone and predominant parasympathetic tone
Horner's syndrome
92
Can occur after an Interscalene block
Horner's syndrome.
93
extends from foreman magnum ___ in adult and ___ in newborn.
L1 and L3
94
the spinal cord is ____ cm long
41-48
95
Cord terminates at ______________
CONUS medullaris (L2)
96
____ pairs of spin
31
97
nerve group in the lower dural sac ( L1-S5)
Cauda equina (horse tail)
98
Strong fibrous cord, sacrum to c7, thickest and broadest in the lumbar region
Supraspinous ligament
99
thin membranous ligament, thickest and broadest in lumbar region; the full length of the column
Interspinous ligament
100
Short segment between spinous processes
Ligamentum Flavum (yellow ligament)
101
outermost, tough, fibrous tube of fibers; runs longitudinally, extends from the foramen magnum to s2 vertebrae
Dura Mater
102
the middle layer, delicate, nonvascular, extends to s2
Arachnoid mater
103
innermost, delicate, microscopic, highly vascular. Directly covers the roots of the spinal nerves
Pia mater
104
widest at ___
L2
105
narrowest at ___
C5
106
___________ space lies between arachnoid mater and pia mater. CSF id found in this space.
Subarachnoid space
107
Blood supply to spinal and nerve roots comes from (2)
1. single anterior spinal artery | 2. paired posterior spinal arteries
108
CSF obtained from ______ between ___ and ___
lumber subarachnoid space, L4, L5
109
structures pierced as follows
skin---subcutaneous---supraspinous ligament---interspinous ligament---ligamentum flavum---epidural space---dura mater--subdural space---arachnoid mater---subarachnoid space---(CSF)
110
All ventral rami except ____-___ form interlacing nerve networks called plexuses
T2-T12
111
All ventral rami except T2- T12 form interlacing nerve networks called ________.
plexuses
112
Formed by C5-C8 and T1 (C4 and T2 may also contribute to this plexus)
Brachial Plexus
113
4 major branches of brachial plexus
Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords--Branches
114
2nd most common postop peripheral neuropathy
Brachial plexus
115
injured when arm abduction >90 degrees or improperly placed shoulder brace
Brachial plexus
116
innervates the deltoid and teres minor. injury inability abduct arm
Axillary
117
Sends fibers to the biceps brachii and brachialis; the most superior nerve of brachial plexus. inability to flex the forearm
Musculocutaneous
118
branches to most of the flexor muscles of wrist and fingers (opponents policies)
Median
119
pronation of foreman, flexion of the wrist, opposition of thumb, flexion of lateral three finger, injury ape hand "unable to oppose thumb."
Median
120
supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris and part of the flexor digitorum profundus
Ulnar
121
most common post up peripheral neuropathy. flexion of wrist, adduction of fingers, flexion of 2 fingers (4, 5) claw hand injury
Ulnar
122
innervates essentially ALL extensor muscles of arm and forearm
Radial
123
extension at elbow
radial
124
supination of forearm
Radial
125
extension of wrist and fingers
Radial
126
wrist drop injury
Radial
127
can be blocked to reduce pain from tourniquet inflation during IV regional anesthesia
intercostobrachial nerve
128
injury to superior trunk c5. c6
"klumpke paralysis"
129
injury to superior trunk c5. c6 in newborns
Erb-Duchenne palsy
130
injury to inferior trunk C8, T1
ulnar nerve damage, claw hand, grasp something during fall
131
Saturday night palsy "wrist drop"
radial nerve damage
132
paralysis of serratus anterior "winging scapula"
injury to long thoracic nerve
133
due to excessive probing in cubital fossa during venipuncture. "ape hand"
Median nerve damage
134
______ nerve (L4-L5 and S1-S3) originates from the lumbosacral trunk
Sciatic nerve
135
nerve damage caused by improper lithotomy position
Sciatic nerve
136
2 branches of the sciatic nerve
peroneal and tibial
137
branches of sciatic nerve, most frequent lower limb injury
Common peroneal nerve
138
2 nerve injuries that result in footdrop
Common peroneal nerve and tibial nerve
139
injured in a self-retaining refractor | absent knee reflex
Femoral nerve
140
Elevation, adduction, medial rotation of the eyeball
Superior rectus
141
Superior rectus innervation
Oculomotor III
142
Depression, adduction, medial rotation of the eyeball
Inferior rectus
143
Inferior rectus innervation
Oculomotor III
144
Adduction of the eyeball
Medial rectus
145
Abduction of eyeball
Lateral rectus
146
depression, abduction, medial rotation of eyeball
Superior oblique
147
Elevation, abduction, lateral rotation of eyeball
Inferior Oblique
148
Elevation of the upper eyelid
Levator palpebrae superioris
149
Levator palpebrae superioris innervation
Oculomotor III
150
Inferior Oblique innervation
Oculomotor III
151
Superior oblique innervation
Trochlear IV
152
Lateral rectus innervation
Abducent VI
153
Medial rectus innervation
Oculomotor III
154
Begins in the bifurcation of common carotid artery
Right and left internal carotid arteries
155
Right and left internal carotid arteries divides into (2)
Anterior cerebral artery and middle cerebral artery
156
lateral striate arteries; branches of middle cerebral arteries; supply internal capsule and motor tracts- arteries od stroke
middle cerebral artery
157
A single segmental branch of aorta. Major source of blood to the lower 2/3 of spinal cord. Can lead to paraplegia if clapped.
Artery of Adamkiewicz
158
Blood from cerebral and cerebellar cortex flows through ______________.
Dural Sinuses
159
Blood from basal portion of brain empties into ______________.
internal jugular vein
160
Circle of Willis. Blood enters through _______ and _______; main feeders of brain.
internal carotid and vertebral arteries.
161
is a posterior half of skull ‘cap’ (Dermatomes)
C2
162
(Dermatomes) ___is a high turtle neck shirt
C3
163
(Dermatomes) ___ is a low collar shirt – clavicle
C4
164
(Dermatomes)___is at nipple
T4
165
(Dermatomes)___is at the xiphoid process
T7
166
(Dermatomes)___is at the umbilicus
T10
167
(Dermatomes)___is at the inguinal region
L1
168
(Dermatomes)___include the tibia
L4, L5
169
(Dermatomes)___erection and sensation of penile and anal area
S2, S3, S4
170
Is associated with the detection and perception of noxious stimuli
nociception
171
The receptor for pain are ________ in the skin, muscle and viscera
free nerve endings
172
Neurotransmitters for nociceptors include ________Inhibition of the release of________ is the basis of pain relief by opioids
substance P.
173
Fast sharp pain is carried by________. It has a rapid onset and offset and is well localized
A-delta fibers
174
Slow chronic pain is carried by _______. It is characterized as aching, burning or throbbing that is poorly localized
C fibers
175
(Referred pain) Pain of visceral origin is referred to sites on the skin and follows the __________. These sites are innervated by nerve that arise from the same segment of spinal cord
dermatome rule
176
If the right lateral spinothalamic trace is severed at C3 what sensations are lost where?
Pain and temperature
177
What sensations are blocked in the lateral column by epidural or spinal anesthesia?
Pain and temperature
178
Pain sensations from genital organs are carried by _____________
autonomic nervous system
179
``` Free (naked) nerve endings Myelinated Diameter = 1-4  m Transmit fast/sharp pain (stinging, pricking) ; 6-30 m/sec Well localize , can point to pain ```
A- fibers
180
``` Free (naked) nerve endings Unmyelinated Diameter = 0.4-1.2  m Transmit slow/chronic pain ; 0.5-2 m/sec Diffuse , burning ,aching , throbbing sensation ```
C fibers
181
Cell bodies of A- and C fibers lies in _________.
dorsal root ganglia (DRG)
182
Fibers ascend or descend 1-3 segments in __________.
track of Lissauer
183
Pathway for fast sharp pain: After leaving tract of Lissauer, A- fibers terminated____________ of dorsal horn and cross to the contralateral ____________and ascend to the brain.
Lamina I and V, lateral spinothalamic tract
184
Pathway for slow chronic pain: C fibers terminates in __________. Interneuron transmit C fibers impulses to Lamina V from Lamina II and III. Neurons leaving Lamina V cross immediately to the ___________ and ascend to brain.
Lamina II and Lamina III (Substantia Gelatinosa ), contralateral lateral spinothalamic tract
185
A-  fiber; the neurotransmitter is ________which binds to ______ and _______receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
glutamate, AMPA, NMDA
186
C fibers; the neurotransmitter is ______ which binds to __________receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.
substance P, NK-1(neurokinin-1)
187
_________ increase the synthesis of prostaglandins, kinins, thromboxane etc.
NK-1 receptors
188
Pain and temperature from the genitalia are mediated by _________.
autonomic nervous system
189
The _________ : Site where pains are attenuated (weaken)
Substantia Gelatinosa
190
C fibers terminates in _______, synapse with interneuron and secrete _______  PAIN
the substantia gelatinosa( Lamina II & III), substance P
191
Interneurons release _________.
Enkephalin
192
Enkephalin acts on opioid receptors (mu, keppa, delta) causing
Decrease Ca++ entry | Increase K+ out flux =hyperpolarization
193
Brain Control of Substantia gelatinosa | Descending neurons form ________ and ___________ terminates on enkephalin-releasing interneuron in substantia gelatinosa
periventricular, | periaqueductal gray matter
194
The interneuron release ________
enkephalin
195
Enkephalin inhibits release of _________
Enkephalin inhibits release of substance P
196
decreased number of pain impulses in the _______ -- spinal analgesia*
ascending lateral spinothalamic tract
197
Dorsolateral tract modulates pain by hyperpolarizing __________.
second order neurons
198
Acupuncture releases _________
endorphins
199
Neurotransmitters in descending pain modulation pathway-
Enkephalin GABA Nor epi Serotonin (5-HT) stimulates interneurons to release of enkephalin
200
The capsaicin receptor is a heat ________, which normally opens between 37 ° and 45 °C; hence, when capsaicin binds to its receptor, a sensation of heat is felt.
activated calcium channel
201
__________(relief of pain without loss of consciousness ) - Mainly -2 receptor
Spinal analgesia
202
(Neuraxial) Morphine, a hydrophilic opioid, crosses lipid membrane _______.
slowly
203
Intrathecal (Spinal) morphine | Slow onset and _____duration of analgesia
long
204
Intrathecal (Spinal) morphine. | No ________ depression of ventilation because uptake by systemic circulation is minimal
early
205
Intrathecal (Spinal) morphine. | _________ depression of ventilation occur due to rostral (towards head) spread of morphine in CSF
Late (6-12 hrs)
206
(Epidural morphine) Slow onset and ______duration of analgesia
long
207
(Epidural morphine) | ________depression of ventilation (within __ hrs) due to  uptake by systemic circulation (rapid transportation)
Early, 2 ,
208
(Epidural morphine) | ______ depression of ventilation occur due to rostral spread in CSF
Late
209
fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil –readily diffuse through____________.
lipid membrane
210
(lipid soluble spinal)______ diffusion out of CSF
Rapid
211
(lipid soluble spinal/ epidural)Rapid onset and _____duration of analgesia
short
212
(lipid soluble spinal/ epidural) _______depression (within _ hrs) of ventilation due to significant uptake by systemic circulation
Early, 2
213
(lipid soluble spinal/ epidural) Due to rapid diffusion out of CSF, little left in CSF for rostral spread, therefore, ______ depression of ventilation does NOT occur
late
214
(Spinal Analgesia) Occurs when transmission of pain through _______is suppressed after epidural or spinal administration
SG (L II)
215
(Spinal Analgesia) Mediated by Mu-1, Mu-2, kappa and delta. _____is the dominant receptor.
Mu-2
216
(Spinal Analgesia) After IV administration, opioid acts on _______and ________, _____, _______− spinal analgesia (don’t call this supraspinal analgesia)
periventricular, eriaquaductal gray, locus ceruleus, raphe magnus
217
(Supraspinal Analgesia) | Opioids act on_________ , and _______ and _______.
limbic system, hypothalamus, thalamus
218
(Supraspinal Analgesia) Mediated by Mu-1, kappa and delta. _____ is the dominant receptor.
Mu-1
219
Mu 1 (8)
Supraspinal and spinal analgesia Euphoria Low abuse potential Meiosis (PPP) Bradycardia Hypothermia Urinary retention-C/I in BPH Pruritus
220
Mu-2 (5)
Spinal analgesia Respiratory depression(decrease sensitivity of resp. center to CO2) Addiction Constipation (marked) decreased motility and tone of GI muscles increased CSF pressure (cerebral edema) C/I in head injury
221
Kappa (4)
Supraspinal and spinal analgesia Dysphoria, sedation Low abuse Potential Diuresis
222
Delta (4)
Supraspinal and spinal analgesia Respiratory depression Physical dependence Constipation (minimal)
223
(Posterior Fossa surgery) Paradoxical________ through existing ‘hole’ in heart (PFO)
air embolism
224
Monitor air bubbles with __________ (most sensitive), droppler, end-tidal CO2)
Esophageal Echocardiography
225
Treatment Notify the surgeon , so that surgical field can be flooded with N/S. Packing and bone wax, JV compression Discontinue nitrous oxide, give 100% O2 Aspiration with multi- orificed catheter placing tip ________ Aspiration with single- orificed catheter _________ Left lateral position, 15 head down IV fluid to increase CVP Vasopressor
2 cm below the SVC – atrial (cavoatrial) junction. | placing tip 3 cm above the SVC – atrial junction
226
(venous air embolism) Due to negative pressure in open _____ and _______.
veins, dural sinuses (-10 mmHg)
227
``` Monitoring VAE ________ – most sensitive non-invasive PA catheter ETCO2 ETN2 _______ – most sensitive ```
Doppler, Transesphageal echo (TEE)
228
Prevention of VAE Proper positioning Use of _______ Avoid ____
bone wax, N2O
229
Total volume of CSF = ___. Brain floats in ____.
150 ml, CSF
230
Specific gravity 1.002 – 1.009 ; pH ___
7.32
231
Pressure ____ mmHg
5-15
232
Formation of CSF by the _______ epithelium and ependymal cells = ______
choroid plexus, 500 ml/day @ 30 ml/hr
233
CSF Absorb through ________ (Brain and spinal cord have no lymphatic system)
Arachinoidal villi
234
CSF can be sampled with a ____________.
Lumber Puncture (L3-L4).
235
CSF pressure INCREASE in brain tumor, hemorrhage or infection-
________Papilledema
236
Local anesthetic e.g. Lidocaine , Bupivacaine are injected in subarachnoid space , mix with CSF results spinal anesthesia or ____________
subarachnoid block
237
CSF > Blood
Mg++ | Creatinine
238
CSF< Blood
``` K+ Ca++ Glucose Cholesterol* Protein* ```
239
CSF=Blood
Na+ Cl- HCO3- Osmolarity
240
(Hydrocephalus) dysfunction of CSF absorption
Communicating
241
(Hydrocephalus) | obstruction of ventricular system
Non-communicating
242
(Hydrocephalus) presentation
``` Irritability Increased head circumference Lethargy Vomiting Sun downing (can’t look up) ```
243
It is the cerebral oxygen consumption-CMRO2
CEREBRAL METABOLIC RATE (CMR)
244
Brain consumes ____ of total body O2
20%
245
Due to consumption ________and _______ reserves, interruption of cerebral perfusion results unconsciousness within 10 sec.
increased ,decreased
246
_____ is primary source of energy. During starvation, ______ are alternative source
Glucose, ketones
247
Glucose supply to brain is not_____ dependent
insulin
248
Cerebral Blood flow Average : _____g/min (~ 750-900 ml/min)
50 ml/100
249
Factors affecting CBF
PCO2 -major regulator H+ PO2 Sympathetic or parasympathetic play little or no role
250
H+ ions causes ___________ of cerebral blood vessels
VASODILATATION
251
Hypoxia causes __________  increased CBF
VASODILATATION
252
PO2 <20mmHg causes diminished neuronal activity or _____.
COMA
253
REGULATION OF CBF | 3
``` Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) Autoregulation Extrinsic Mechanism Respiratory gas tension Temperature Viscosity Autonomic influence ```
254
Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP), Regulated by two forces
Mean arterial pressure | Intracranial pressure
255
pushing the blood into the brain
Mean arterial pressure
256
keeps the blood out
Intracranial pressure
257
CPP =
MAP- ICP (or CVP, whichever is greater)
258
Normally CPP
100 mmHg
259
CPP< 25 mmHg =
irreversible brain damage, flat EEG
260
DECREASED in CPP
VASODILATION
261
INCREASED IN CPP
VASOCONSTRICTION
262
Tissue metabolites (Nitric oxide (NO), adenosine,PGs) are responsible for _________.
vasodilation
263
>160 mmHg (MAP)
disrupt BBB, cerebral edema and hemorrhage occur
264
< 60 mmHg (MAP)
cerebral ischemia
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CBF is directly proportional to _____between 20-80 mmHg
PCO2
266
1. Agents which increase CBF
Volatile anesthetics- halothane, isoflurane, enflurane
267
_________is the only I/V anesthetic that dilates the cerebral vessels and increase CBF (and ICP)
Ketamine
268
Agents which decrease CBF
I/ V anesthetics (thiopental) propofol, benzodiazepines and etomidate .
269
Cushing’s Triad
Irregular respiration, bradycardia, hypertension (increase systolic)
270
indications for icp montioring
``` Indications Trauma Subarachnoid hemorrhage Glasgow coma score < 7 Hydocephalus Pseudo tumor cerebri AV malformation ```
271
reduce icp
``` REDUCE ICP by Fluid restriction Corticosteroid Hyperventilation Thiopental for induction Avoid Ketamine Head-up position Diuretics CSF drainage Avoid PEEP Hypothermia ```
272
When a vasodilator such as nitroprusside is administrated , or when the patient is hypoventilated so that CO2 accumulates, vessel in non-ischemic brain dilate, flow to non-ischemic brain increase , and flow to ischemic brain decrease
Cerebral Steal (Luxury Perfusion)
273
When a patient with an ischemic region of brain is hyperventilated (decrease PCO2), blood vessels in non-ischemic brain constrict and blood is diverted to ischemic brain
Inverse Steal (Robin Hood Effect)
274
``` Most common 1 brain tumor Grave prognosis < 1 year life expectancy Found in cerebral hemisphere Resection, radiation and chemo ```
Astrocytoma
275
Relatively rare Slow growing (tumor)
oligodendroglioma
276
Found in 4th ventricle Can cause hydrocephalus Poor prognosis
ependymoma
277
2nd most common 1 brain tumor Occurs in convexities of brain and parasigittal region Arise from arachnoid cells external to brain (NOT dura) Slow growing Resectable
meningioma
278
Most commonly prolactinoma Bitemporal hemianopia “ tunnel vision” Hyper or hypo pituitarism are sequelae
Pituitary adenoma
279
3rd most common 1 brain tumor. Schwann cell origin; often localize to VIII nerve  acoustic schwannoma Resectable
Schwannoma
280
neurologic degenerative diseases that can be transmitted within or between species
Transmissible spongiform ecephalopathies (TSEs) | Mad Cow
281
The human form of TSE is called variant _________.
CJD (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)
282
______seizures arise from discrete region, no loss of consciousness
Focal (partial)
283
Treatment focal seizure
Phenytoin | Carbamazepine
284
Sustain seizure activity lasting at least 30 min | Medical emergency due to risk of hypoxia, aspiration, rhabdomyolysis and multiple trauma
Status epilepticus
285
Status epilepticus treatment
``` Treatment Establish airways “ABC” Adequate oxygenation Glucose +thyiamine Lorazepam – short term control Phenytoin or phenobarbital ```
286
(Guillain-Berré syndrome) _________ and _________ of PNS motor neurons
inflammation and demyelination
287
(Guillain-Berré syndrome) _________ motor neuron lesions
lower
288
(Guillain-Berré syndrome) dx
increase CSF proteins | Slow nerve conduction velocity.
289
Guillain-Berré syndrome treatment
Monitoring vital capacity is critical Plasmapheresis IV immunoglobulin
290
Symmetrical _______ paralysis (Guillain-Berré syndrome
ascending
291
LMN lesion due to destruction of anterior horn cell  flaccid paralysis
Poliomyelitis
292
mostly white matter demyelination; scanning speech, intentional tremors, diplopia, remission and relapses
Multiple sclerosis
293
Both UMN and LMN lesion. No sensory deficit
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
294
spares dorsal column | spinal cord lesion
Occlusion of anterior spinal artery
295
degeneration of dorsal root and dorsal column tract; impaired proprioception and ataxia
Tabes dorsalis (3 degress syphilis)
296
damage to spinothalamic tract; loss of pain and temperature
Syringomyelia
297
demyelination dorsal column
VitB12 deficiency and Friedreich’s ataxia
298
Most useful for assessment of cerebral perfusion
EEG
299
Most anesthetic produce ________pattern on EEG ________ followed by __________
biphasic. Activation, depression
300
Opioids produce _______ depression (EEG)
monophasic
301
Ketamine produces ________ activation (EEG)
unusual
302
Dorsal column tract is a _____ rout whereas RAS is an ______ for sensory information reaching to sensory strip
‘direct’, ‘indirect rout’
303
RAS is ____when sleeping
OFF
304
Complete loss of RAS activity is _____.
coma
305
GA produces sedation and hypnosis by ________RAS
depressing
306
Test the integrity of dorsal column (cuneatus and gracilis tracts) and sensory cortex
Somatosensory Evoked Potential –SSEP
307
Detection of global ischemia from _____ or _______, during brain and spinal cord surgery
hypoxia, anesthetic overdose
308
SSEP surgeries
Aortic reconstruction Spinal cord tumors Carotid endarterectomy Instrumentation of spine
309
_______ , _____ or _______ are stimulated and SSEP are recorded from the scalp
Tibial, median, or ulnar nerves
310
Stimulation of tibial nerve at ankle must be recorded at the ________
midline (over longitudinal fissure)
311
Stimulation of median/ulnar nerve must be recorded at ?
Lateral to midline
312
Action potentials via dorsal column tract
Early peak “direct”
313
Larger | Action potentials via reticular activating system (RAS)
Late peak “indirect”
314
Magnitude or size of evoked potential
Amplitude
315
Time taken by action potential to travel from peripheral nerve  spinal cord  inner brain  cerebral cortex
Latency
316
Applications of SSEP
Spinal surgeries Aortic reconstruction Carotid endarterectomy
317
Factors affecting SSEP
Hypo or hyperthermia Hypotension PCO2 PO2
318
Brain stem auditory evoked potential (BAEP) monitoring during brain surgery is a noninvasive technique for measuring neural functions, e.g. during acoustic neuroma resection where the _________at risk
vestibulocochlear nerve ( CN VIII)
319
VEPs can be used to monitor ________, ______visual pathways during craniofacial procedures, pituitary surgery, and surgery in the visual tracts and occipital cortex
the optic nerve (CN II), anterior
320
G.A. and volatile anesthetics have the greatest effect on evoke potentials causing dose dependent ______ amplitude and ________ latencies
decrease, increased
321
Order for sensitivity to anesthetic agents: Order for sensitivity to anesthetic agents: (evoked potentials)
VEP > SSEP > BAEP [ Very ; Somewhat ; Barely]
322
I/ V anesthetics have ________ effect on EP
fewer
323
has the least effect
Vecuronium
324
In general, intravenous anesthetics suppress motor evoke potential (MEP) responses much less than inhalational agents, so ______________ is preferred when MEPs are to be monitored in patients with neurologic disease.
total intravenous anesthesia
325
Neurocranium consists of 8 bones
``` Frontal Ethmoid Sphenoid Occipital Temporal (pair) Parietal (pair) ```
326
Viscerocranium consists of 15 irregular bones
``` Mandible Ethmoid Vomer Maxilla (pair) Inferior nasal choncha (pair) Zygomatic (pair) Palantine (pair) Nasal (pair) Lacrimal (pair) ```