Neuro (Core Qs & Others) Flashcards

1
Q

At which intervertebral disc level does the conus medullaris typically terminate?

A

L1-L2

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2
Q

What is the upper limit of the diameter of a normal filum terminale?

A

2mm

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3
Q

The filum terminale extends from the conus medullar is to the _____

A

Periosteum of the coccyx

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4
Q

CN I (sensory)

A

Olfactory: smell

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5
Q

CN II (sympathetic)

A

Optic: sight

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6
Q

CN III (motor)

A

Oculomotor: eyeball movement, pupillary light reflex

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7
Q

CN IV (parasympathetic)

A

Trochlear: eyeball movement

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8
Q

CN V (sensory, sympathetic, motor)

A

V1: ophthalmic
V2: maxillary
V3: mandibular

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9
Q

CN VI (motor)

A

Abducens: eyeball movement

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10
Q

CN VII (sympathetic)

A

Facial: taste (anterior 2/3 of tongue), facial expressions, salivary and lacrimal glands

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11
Q

CN VIII (sensory)

A

Vestibulocochlear: hearing and baalnce

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12
Q

CN IX (sensory, motor, parasympathetic)

A

Glossopharyngeal: sensation of posterior 1/3 tongue, parotid salivary gland

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13
Q

CN X (motor, parasympathetic, sympathetic)

A

Vagus: swallowing, heart rate, GI peristalsis, sweating

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14
Q

CN XI (motor)

A

Accessory: sternocleidomastoid (head turning), trapezius (shoulder shrugging)

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15
Q

CN XII (motor)

A

Hypoglossal: most muscles of the tongue

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16
Q

Which CN exists through the cribiform plate?

A

CN I Olfactory

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17
Q

Which CN exists through the optic canal?

A

CN II Optic

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18
Q

Which CN exists through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III Oculomotor
CN IV Trochlear
CN V(v1) Ophthalmic
CN VI Abducens

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19
Q

Which CN exists through foramen rotundum?

A

CN V(v2) Trigeminal (maxillary)

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20
Q

Which CN exists through foramen ovale

A

CN V(v3) Trigeminal (mandibular)

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21
Q

Which CN exists through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN VII Facial

CN VIII Vestibulocochlear

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22
Q

Which CN exists through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal
CN X Vagus
CN XI Accessory

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23
Q

Which CN exists through the hypoglossal canal?

A

CN XII Hypoglossal

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24
Q

With spinal cord contusion and/or edema, what are the different types?

A

From best prognosis to the worst:
Cord edema only
Cord edema and contusion
Cord contusion only

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25
Spinal cord compression requires what kind of referral?
A neuro-surgical emergency, requires decompression
26
Cauda equina syndrome is the compression of _____
Spinal nerve roots, past the conus medullaris
27
There are many causes of spinal cord compression, what are some common ones?
Intervertebral disc Spondylophytes Trauma Tumors
28
What is the most common cerebellarpontine angle mass in adults?
Acoustic schwannoma (CN VIII vestibulocochlear nerve) accounts for approximately 80%
29
Aside from acoustic schwannoma, what are some other common masses of the cerebellarpontine angle?
Meningioma Trigeminal schwannoma Facial nerve schwannoma Ependymoma
30
What is intraspinal hemorrhage? (Aka hematomyelia)
Hematoma within the spinal cord, can occur during trauma
31
If a hematomyelia is present without trauma, what should be considered?
Underlying lesion of the spinal cord
32
What are some causes of intraspinal hemorrhage (hematomyelia)?
``` Vascular malformation Intramedullary tumor Cavernous hemangioma Spinal cord metastasis Coagulopathies Radiation therapy ```
33
Where is the foramen spinosum located?
Posterior-lateral to the foramen ovale
34
What exists out of the foramen spinosum?
Middle meningeal artery Middle meningeal vein Nervus spinosus (usually)
35
What is the most common cause of neurogenic arthropathy (aka Charcots joints) in the shoulder and/or upper extremity?
Syringomyelia
36
What portion of the spine is the most common location for a syringomyelia?
C2-T9 region but may descend to the conus medullaris
37
What are 3 congenital causes of syringomyelia?
Chiari malforrmation Klippel-Feil syndrome Myelomeningocele
38
What is the most common population for viral meningitis?
Children and young adults, | < 1 years old and between 5-10 years old
39
What is the classic presentation of viral meningitis?
Fever Neck stiffness Brudzinski sign (+)
40
Are there neurological dysfunction associated with viral meningitis?
No, neurological dysfunction is not a feature
41
Which virus is responsible for the majority of cases of viral meningitis?
``` Enterovirus (90%) Other viruses include: Poliovirus Echovirus HPV Herpes simplex Epstein Barr virus Cytomegalovirus ```
42
Acute transverse myelitis (ATM) is an inflammatory condition that affects both halves of the spinal. This is associated with what changes?
Motor, sensory, and autonomic dysfunctions that rapidly progresses
43
What is the peak age for acute transverse myelitis?
10-19 years old and 30-39 years old
44
Clinical symptoms for ATM presents within hours/days, they include the following
Para/tetraparesis (limb weakness) Sensory impairment Sphincter dysfunction
45
Approximately what percentage of people with ATM will recover with no sequelae?
Approximately 1/3 of patients will recover with no sequelae 1/3 will have moderate permanent disability 1/3 will have severe permanent disability
46
What are the MRI findings of acute transverse myelitis?
Variable enlargement of cord T1 isointense/hypointense T2 poorly delineated hyperintense
47
What is the most common type of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Classic/Charcot type
48
MS is the _____ most common cause of neurological impairment
Second most common cause after trauma
49
What is the peak age for MS to present?
35 years old | Usually presents between adolescence to 6th decade
50
Is there a strong gender predilection for MS?
Females > males (2:1)
51
What are some classic clinical features of MS?
``` Optic neuritis Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (often bilateral) Trigeminal neuralgia Diplopia Vertigo Ataxia and gait disturbances Limb sensory loss Lhermitte sign (+): electric shock sensation on neck flexion Urinary incontinence ```
52
Which pattern of MS is the most common type?
Relapse-remitting (70%)
53
What are the 3 pathological stages for MS lesions?
Early acute stage: Active myelin breakdown Plaque appears pink/swollen Subacute stage: Plaque is paler ("chalky") Abundant macrophages ``` Chronic Stage: Inactive plaque/gliosis Little/no myelin breakdown Gliosis with associated volume loss Appearance is gray/translucent ```
54
The "Dawsons finger" sign is associated with what pathology?
Multiple sclerosis
55
For intracranial involvement in MS, what are some differential diagnosis to consider?
CNS fungal infection Mucopolysacchridosis Susac syndrome Antiphospholipid syndrome
56
For spinal involvement in MS, what are some differential diagnosis to consider?
Acute transverse myelitis Infection Spinal cord tumors (eg. astrocytomas)
57
Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM) is demyelination of _____
Demyelination of white matter
58
ADEM typically follows _____
Typically follows a viral infection/vaccination
59
What part of the grey matter is typically involved with ADEM?
Basal ganglion
60
What is the typical age range for ADEM?
Children/adolescents usually < 15 years old
61
Symptoms of ADEM are more systemic rather than focal, including the following
Fever Headache Decreased consciousness (lethargy to coma) Seizure
62
If treated, what percentage of patients with ADEM make a complete recovery without sequelae?
50-60%, this is the most common result
63
What percentage of patients with ADEM recovery but with sequelae?
20-30% of patients will have persisting sequelae, most commonly seizures
64
Multiple benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors (neurofibromas) are strongly associated with which disease?
Neurofibromatosis type I
65
What percentage of spinal neurofibromas are localized intraneural lesions?
90% | Majority of them are sporadic and solitary
66
What are the normal components of a spinal neurofibroma?
Schwann cells Fibroblasts Collagen fibers
67
Schwannomas are encapsulated while neurofibromas are _____
Not encapsulated They infiltrate between nerve fascicles Primarily affecting superficial cutaneous nerves
68
The "target" sign is seen with what condition?
Hyperintense rim seen on MRI due to central area of collagen. Seen with neurofibromas
69
The "fascicular" sign is seen with what condition?
Neurofibromas, demonstrating multiple, small ring-like structures
70
Neurofibromas are slow growing and often asymptomatic but can cause remodeling of adjacent bone. That often includes the following
Widening of neural foramen Thinning of pedicle Posterior vertebral body scalloping
71
What is the most common nerve sheath tumor of the spine?
Spinal schwannoma
72
Where do spinal schwannomas typically arise?
Usually from nerve roots
73
What is the most common intradural extramedullary lesion?
Meningioma (25-30%)
74
What is the second most common intradural extramedullary lesion?
Schwannoma (15-50%)
75
What percentage of spinal shwannomas are sporadic and solitary?
90%
76
What condition is associated with multiple spinal schwannomas?
Neurofibromatosis type II
77
What is the most common location for spinal schwannomas?
Cervical and lumbar spine
78
What is the peak age for spinal meningiomas?
Between the 6th and 8th decade
79
Is there a gender predilection for spinal meningiomas?
Strong females > males predilection in adults
80
What are some risk factors associated with spinal meningiomas?
Increased ionizing radiation | Prior trauma
81
What condition is strongly associated with multiple spinal meningiomas?
Neurofibromatosis type II
82
Where in the spine is the most common location for meningiomas?
Thoracic spine
83
The "dural tail" sign associated with spinal meningiomas is seen in what percentage of patients?
60-70% of patients, caused by thickened dura
84
What is the most common spinal cord tumor overall in adults?
Spinal ependymoma
85
A spinal ependymoma is a considered a _____ cell tumor
Glial cell tumor
86
Ependymomas arise from the which 2 locations?
Ventricles of the brain | Central canal lining of the spinal cord
87
What is the most common location for an ependymoma?
Posterior fossa (60%) Followed by: Supratentorium (30%) Spine (10%)
88
There is an increased coincidence of epnedymomas with what condition?
Neurofibromatosis type II
89
MRI findings of an ependymoma include the following
``` T1 isointense/hypointense T2 hyperintense Peritumoral edema (60%) "Cap" sign from hemorrhage may be present ```
90
What is the most common spinal cord tumor in children?
Spinal astrocytoma
91
What is the second most common spinal cord tumor overall?
Spinal astrocytoma
92
Astrocytomas account for what percentage of intramedullary tumors?
40%
93
Astrocytomas account for what percentage of pediatric intramedullary tumors?
60%
94
What underlying condition is associated with an increased chance of developing spinal astrocytomas?
Neurofibromatosis type I
95
Astrocytomas arise from what kind of cells?
Astrocytic glial cells
96
Astrocytomas are characterized by hypercellularity as well as absence of surrounding _____
Absence of surrounding capsule
97
What are the 2 most common locations for spinal astrocytomas?
``` Thoracic spine (67%) Cervical spine (49%) ```
98
Spinal astrocytomas will typically span multiple vertebral segments, this causes the following findings
Thin pedicles and/or lamina | Posterior body scalloping
99
Hemangioblastoma is the _____ most common intramedullary spinal tumor
3rd most common
100
Spinal hemangiomblastomas are rarely seen in children, the peak age range is what?
4th decade
101
Spinal hemangioblastomas consists of what?
Large stromal cells | Packed between blood vessles
102
If multiple spinal hemangioblastomas are present, a strong association to which condition is suspect?
Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
103
What are the 2 most common locations for spinal hemangioblastomas?
``` Thoracic cord (50%) Cervical cord (40%) ```
104
What percentage of spinal hemangioblatomas are sporadic?
80%
105
Tarlov cysts (aka perineural cyst) are defined as what?
CSF filled dilations of nerve root sheath Located at dorsal root ganglion Extradural in location
106
What kind of underlying condition is associated with Tarlov cysts?
Connective tissue disorders: Marfans syndrome Ehlers Danlos Sjogren syndrome
107
What are the most common locations for Tarlov cysts?
Lower lumbar spine | Sacrum
108
On MRI, Tarlov cysts have the following appearance
T1 hypointense T2 hyperintense No enhancement with contrast
109
Arachnoid cysts are relatively common and benign. They can be located at which 2 locations?
Intracranial or within spinal cord
110
Imaging features of arachnoid cysts are as follows
Well defined Imperceptible wall Follows CSF patterns
111
Arachnoid cysts are seen with increased frequency in which type of underlying condition?
Mucopolysacchridosis
112
What is the most common location for arachnoid cysts?
Middle cranial fossa (50-60%) | Can cause widening of the Sylvian fissure
113
What is the second most common location for arachnoid cysts?
Retrocerebellar (30-40%)
114
An intracranial epidermoid cyst is an uncommon congenital cyst caused by the following
Inclusion of ectodermal elements during neural tube closure
115
Intracranial epidermoid cyst has a thin capsule made up of _____
Squamous epithelium
116
What is the most common location for an epidermoid cyst?
``` Intradural (90%) Cerebellarpontine angle (40-50%) ```
117
Image findings for an epidermoid cyst includes the following
Lobulated lesion Fill and expand CSF spaces Exert gradual mass effect (slow growing) Displacement of vertebral artery from pons
118
What is the Currarino triad?
Anorectal anomalies Sacral anomalies Presacral mass
119
What are the presacral masses that are associated with the Currarino triad?
Anterior sacral meningocele (most common) Mature teratoma (common) Dermoid/epideroid cyst (rare)
120
Which 2 CN originate from the cerebrum?
CN I: olfactory | CN II: optic
121
Which 2 CN originate from the midbrain?
CN III: oculomotor | CN IV: trochlear
122
Which 4 CN originate from the pons?
CN V: trigeminal CN VI: abducens CN VII: facial CN VIII: vestibulocochlear
123
Which 4 CN originate from the medulla oblongata?
CN IX: glossopharyngeal CN X: vagus CN XI: accessory CN XII: hypoglossal
124
What is the definition of benign multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Defined as remaining functional for > 15 years | Accounts fo 15-50% of MS patients
125
What is a common diagnostic criteria system used for MS?
McDonald diagnostic criteria
126
Susac syndrome (aka SICRET syndrome) stands for what?
Small infarctions of cochlear, retinal, encephalic tissues
127
What is the most common population to be affected by Susac syndrome?
Young-middle aged females
128
What triad is seen with Susac syndrome?
Acute/subacute encephalopathy Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss Branch retinal arterial occlusions
129
Acute/subacute encephalopathy in Susac syndrome leads to the following?
``` Memory impairment Confusion Behavioral disturbances Headaches Psychosis ```
130
on MRI images for Susac syndrome, low signal T1 lesions known as "black holes" and high signal T2 lesions known as "snowball" lesions are seen in which stage of the disease?
Chronic stage of Susac syndrome
131
Sjorgren syndrome affects which 2 glands?
Lacrimal glands | Salivary glands
132
After rheumatoid arthritis, what is the second most common autoimmune disease?
Sjorgren syndrome
133
What is the gender predilection for Sjorgren syndrome?
Females > males (9:1)
134
What is the typical age range for presentation of Sjorgren syndrome?
40-50 years old
135
What are some clinical features of Sjorgren syndrome?
Bilateral parotid gland enlargement Dryness of mucous membranes of mouth (xerostomia) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dryness)
136
Describe the MRI findings of the parotid glands in Sjorgren syndrome
"Salt and pepper" appearance "Honeycomb" appearance Fat deposits
137
What is a possible malignancy that is associated with Sjorgren syndrome?
Development of malignant lymphoma
138
The temporal bone consists of which 5 parts?
``` Squamous Mastoid Petrous Tympanic Styloid process ```
139
The mandible bone consists of which parts?
``` Body Ramus Coronoid process Mandibular notch Condylar process ```
140
Chronic small vessel disease is more common in those with which 2 underlying disease?
Alzheimer disease | Lewy body disease
141
Chronic smell vessel disease is also known as what other name?
Leukoaraiosis (diffuse white matter changes)
142
Histologically in chronic small vessel disease, what do the lesions show?
Atrophy of axons | Decreased myelin
143
Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) aka traumatic axonal injury is caused by what kind of forces?
Shearing focus | Typically rotational acceleration forces
144
What location does DAI have a predilection for?
Gray/white matter junction Especially the corpus callosum Severe cases involve the brainstem
145
The absence of imaging findings do not exclude DAI, MRI findings include the following
Surrounding edema will increase during first few days Some lesions may be non-hemorrhagic Lesions are hyperintense on FLAIR
146
What are 2 complications associated with DAI?
Herniation | Hydrocephalus
147
Months following the original trauma, DAI patients demonstrate _____ brain volume
Decreased brain volume
148
Clinical findings for DAI include the following
Loss of consciousness at the time of the accident | Long post traumatic coma
149
Arachnoiditis is the inflammation of what 2 structures/spaces?
Meninges and subarachnoid space
150
Arachnoiditis of the cauda equine is known as what?
Spinal/lumbar adhesive arachnoiditis
151
Clinical presentation for arachnoiditis includes the following
Leg pain Sensory changes Motor changes
152
Arachnoiditis with impaired CSF can cause what condition in the spinal cord?
Syringomyelia
153
Causes of arachnoiditis includes the following
Infections | Inflammatory such as hemorrhagic and iatrogenic
154
MRI appearance of arachnoiditis includes the following
Most easily seen at lumbar region: cauda equina Nerve roots adhere together Nerve roots may also adherer to theca
155
What are the different types of arachnoiditis seen at the cauda equina?
Type I: Nerve roots clumped together and distorted Type II: Nerve roots adhere to the theca "Empty theca" sign Type III: Nerve roots and theca clumped together Becomes a single soft tissue mass
156
Occasionally ossification can occur at the cauda equina due to arachnoiditis, what is this called?
Arachnoiditis Ossificans
157
Cortical contusions is often a differential diagnosis to consider for which condition?
Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)
158
Cortical contusions (aka cerebral hemorrhagic contusion) is a type of _____ hemorrhage
Intracerebral hemorrhage
159
Cortical contusions can occur anywhere but the predilections are as follows
Anterior cranial fossa floor Temporal pole Coup and coutrecoup pattern
160
What is the most common cause for cortical contusions?
Motor vehicle accidents
161
What is the MRI appearance of cortical contusions?
T1: hyperintense T2: hypointense
162
In cases of acute transverse myelitis (ATM), what percentage of patients will demonstrate a normal MRI?
40%
163
Lesions can occur anywhere along the spinal cord for acute transverse myelitis but what is the most common location?
Thoracic spine (usually spanning 3-4 segments)
164
Most frequent areas to check for cortical contusions that resulted from a coup and coutrecoup pattern is where?
Temporal pole | Inferior surface of frontal lobe
165
Subdural hemorrhage (SDH) aka subdural hematoma is located where?
Within the dura space, between the dura and arachnoid
166
What is the main cause of subdural hemorrhage?
Main cause is due to trauma
167
Subdural hemorrhage is seen in all age groups
Infants: suspected abuse Young adults: vascular lesions, motor vehicle accidents Elderly: falls
168
Some common clinical symptoms associated with subdural hemorrhage includes the following
Commonly coexist with cerebral contusions Severely depressed cognitive state ( 65-80%) Pupillary abnormalities (40%)
169
Potts disease is another name what condition?
Tuberculosis causing osteomyelitis and diskitis at the spine
170
What is the most common musculoskeletal location for tuberculosis?
Spine
171
What is the typical location for Potts disease?
Lower thoracic spine | Upper lumbar spine
172
Early radiographic findings of Potts disease includes the following
Decreased vertebral body height Irregular endplates Paraspinal collections
173
What are some common radiographic findings of Potts disease?
Typically sub-ligamentous involvement beneath ALL Posterior elements are usually spared Often involves multilevel Irregularity of anterior vertebral bodies
174
Spondylodiskitis is infection that involves the intervertebral disc and adjacent vertebral bodies. What is the most common age range?
Pediatric | Older patients > 50 years old
175
Low back pain is present in what percentage of patients with spondylodiskitis?
90%
176
Risk factors that are associated with spondylodikitis includes the following
``` Remote infection Spinal instrumentation/trauma IV drug users Immunocompromised individuals Long term steroid use Organ transplant Malnutrition Cancer ```
177
What is the most common location for spondylodiskitis?
Lumbar spine
178
What is the most common distribution of spondylodikitis?
Single level (65%) Multiple contiguous levels (20%) Multiple non-contiguous levels (10%)
179
What is the most common organism that causes spondylodikitis?
Staph. aureus
180
Those with spondylodikitis can present with normal radiographs for how long?
2-4 weeks