Neuro exam 2 Flashcards

(193 cards)

1
Q

Theories for development of MS

A

environment (away from equator)
genetic (twins)
autoimmune (attack CNS)
viral/microbial

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2
Q

Pathophysiology of MS

A

demyelination (decrease oligodendrocytes)
inflammatory response (t-cell breakdown BBB)
both

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3
Q

Primary symptoms of MS

A

visual complaints/optic neuritis
gait problems and falls
paresthesia
pain, spasticity, weakness, ataxia, speech

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4
Q

Secondary symptoms of MS

A

recurrent UTI, urinary calculi
decubiti and osteomyelitis
osteoporosis
respiratory infections
poor nutrition
depression

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5
Q

Tertiary symptoms of MS

A

financial
person/social
vocational
emotional

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6
Q

What is expanded disability status scale (EDSS)

A

0 no disability 10 death from MS

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7
Q

Factors for MS that are reported to aggravate symptoms or lead to acute attack

A

infections
anemia
fever
sleep deprivation
stress
malnutrition
childbirth
organ dysfunction
exertion

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8
Q

Diagnosis of MS

A

MRI (lesions)
CSF (IgG elevations)

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9
Q

What is an MS attack classified as

A

new symptoms lasting at least 24 hours and separated from other symptoms by at least 30 days

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10
Q

What is relapsing-remitting (RRMS)

A

no disease progression between relapses
clearly defined disease relapses

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11
Q

What is secondary progressive (SPMS)

A

develops after initial RRMS course
50% of RRMS pt develop it

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12
Q

What is primary progressive (PPMS)

A

disease progression from onset, with continuous worsening

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13
Q

What is progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

A

progressive disease from onset
continuing progression between relapses

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14
Q

Favorable prognosis of MS

A

<40 yo
female
optic neuritis or sensory symptoms
low attack frequency
relapsing/remitting disease course

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15
Q

Unfavorable prognosis of MS

A

> 40 yo
male
motor or cerebellar symptoms
high attack frequency
progressive disease course

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16
Q

What is mild MS

A

do not produce functional decline and may not require any tx
some clinicians may use PO steroids

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17
Q

What is moderate MS

A

functional ability is affected
high dose corticosteroids shorten duration of acute exacerbations

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18
Q

What is severe MS

A

manifested by hemiplegia, paraplegia, quadriplegia
no response to steroid therapy
plasma exchange every other day x7 treatments

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19
Q

Optic neuritis tx for MS

A

visual loss, blurring, hazy vision
onset of symptoms sudden and progressive
lesions on optic nerve
IV methylprednisolone

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20
Q

What do corticosteroids do for MS

A

improve recovery by decrease edema, BBB abnormality, IgG synthesis
Methylprednisolone (500-1000) 3-10 days duration

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21
Q

Avonex: MOA, indications

A

interferon 1a
suppress t cell proliferation
decrease BBB permeability
for RRMS (non-FDA: SPMS)

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22
Q

Avonex: warnings, ADRs

A

depression, seizures, albumin allergy
flu-like, inj rxn, leukopenia, depression
decrease of 1 pt EDSS

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23
Q

Betaseron: MOA, indications

A

interferon 1b
suppress t cell proliferation
decrease BBB permeability
RRMS, SPMS w/ relapses
(non-FDA: SPMS w/out replases)

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24
Q

Betaseron: warnings, ADRs

A

depression, seizures, albumin allergy
flu-like, inj rxn, leukopenia, depression

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25
Copaxone: MOA, indications
glatiramer acetate suppress T-cell activation reduce inflammation, demyelination, axonal damage at MS lesion RRMS (non-FDA: PPMS)
26
Copaxone: warnings, ADRs
not for IV use inj rxn, skin rash, transient chest pain
27
Natalizumab for MS
pt who cant take ABC UTI, depression, joint pain, ab discomfort, infusion rxn
28
TOUCH program (REMS)
baseline MRI pt evaluated at 3 and 6 months risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy risk factors: >24 months tx, prior use of immunosuppressives, h/o JCV
29
SP1s for MS
oral for RRMS first dose bradycardia, need ECG at baseline cause macular edema, need eye exam fetal harm
30
Fingolimod DDI
ketoconazole admin live vaccines before drug or 2 months after discontinuation
31
Siponimod requires genetic screening prior to _________
initation CI in CYP2C19*3 genotype
32
Ozanimod is contraindicated in what
severe untreated sleep apnea and MAO-I use
33
Ponesimod is a ______ half-life than other S1P agonists
shorter (leaves body in about 1 wk)
34
Teriflunomide for MS
reduce activated lymphocytes in CNS decreasing inflammation and demyelination for relapsing form of MS BBW: hepatotxicity, tertogenicity (avoid pregnant for 2 years after stopping)
35
What are the nuclear factor-like 2 activators for MS and their MOA
dimethyl (texifdera) diroximel (vumerity) monomethyl (bafiertam) - active form activate the nuclear factor (NrF2) pathway involved in cellular response to oxidative stress
36
nuclear factor-like 2 activators considerations for MS
CBC prior to therapy, w/in 6 months, then annually cause flushing: pretreat with 325 mg ASA 30 min prior to dose take with food
37
Alemtuzumab (lemtrada) for MS
anti-CD-52; deplete T and B cells for RRMS high inf rxns and malignancies (REMS program)
38
Ofatumumab (kesimpta) for MS
anti-CD-20; selctively depletes B cells for RRMS and active SPMS hep B screening, increase risk of infections (PML)
39
Ocrelizumab (ocrevus) for MS
anti-Cd-20; humanized version of the rituximab monoclonal antibody for RRMS, and PPMS hep B screening, increase risk of infections (PML)
40
Mitoxantron for MS
decrease neurologic disability +/- frequency of relapse SPMS, PRMS, RRMS cause alopecia, dysmenorrhea, URI, UTI, cardiac toxicity
41
Cladribine for MS
impairs DNA synthesis resulting in dose dependent depletion of B and T cells RRMS and active SPMS 2 courses 1 yr apart increase risk of infections and malignancies teratogenicity up until 6 months after dose
42
How to manage MS gait and spasticity
baclofen (somnolence and confusion) tizanidine (cause less weakness, can cause sedation, dizziness, dry mouth, hypotension) gabapentin
43
Drugs for MS urgency, frequency, incontinence (hyper-reflexic bladder)
anticholinergics (oxybutynin, tolterodine, can cause falls or decrease cognition antimuscarinic agents (trospium, solifenacin, darifenacin) TCA
44
Drugs for MS hesitance, retention, overflow (sphincter destrusor dyssynergia)
beta adrenergic blockers like prazosin
45
Drugs for MS sensory symptoms
trigeminal neuralgia: carbamazepine neuropathic pain: TCA, pregablin, gabepentin, duloxetine
46
Drugs for MS fatigue
amantadine methylphenidate or dextroamphetamine modafanil or armodafinal (maybe fluoxetine)
47
Drugs for MS sexual dysfunction
if also depression use bupropion
48
Drugs for MS tremor
propranolol, primidone, isoniazid
49
What is epilepsy
neuro disorder that is an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures
50
What causes provoked seizures
toxins: alcohol, benzo, barbiturate w/drawal neuro inj: stroke, intracranial hemorrhage electrolyte: hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia illness: eclampsia, fever, uremia
51
What are the 4 non-provoked epilepsy type seizures
genetic structural infectious metabolic/immune
52
Dravet syndrome (genetic seizure)
sodium channel mutation at volt gated, type 1 alpha subunit
53
Childhood absence epilepsy (genetic seizure)
t-type calcium channel and GABA receptor mutations
54
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (genetic seixure)
EF-hand containing protein-1 (EFHC1) and intestinal kinase (ICK) mutations
55
What are some structural seizures
cortical dysplasia mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (sclerosis of hippocampus) post-traumatic epilepsy (brain lesions)
56
What are the most common acquired infectious epilepsy in neurocysticercosis (infections)
parasitic infection of brain (tapeworm eggs, pork) damage from parasite leading to structural injury
57
What are metabolic/immune seizures
lafora disease (glycogen metabolism) NMDA encephalitis (tertoma tumors cause the nuronal tissue to make antibodies against NMDA)
58
What are the 2 principle neurotransmitters in the majority of seizures
GABA (inhibitory) Glutamate (excitatory)
59
Generalized vs Partial Seizure
generalized: entire cerebral cortex of both hemispheres partial: circumscribed area of cortex (focal)
60
General Action of anticonvulsants: reuce currents through __________ calcium channels
t-type (generate spikes and bursts of energy in thalamic neurons)
61
What are L-type calcium channels
need strong depolarization for activation long lasting blocked by dihydropyridines and phenylkylamines
62
What are N, P, Q type calcium channels
need strong depolarization for activation blocked by various snail and spider venoms found in neurons
63
Barbiturates like phenobarbital are useful in treating what seizures
focal onset and generalized onset
64
phenobarbital MOA
increase Cl- conductance block non-NMDA receptors block N, P, L type Ca channels
65
Hydantoins like phenytoin are useful in treating what seizures
focal onset and generalized onset
66
phenytoin MOA
block voltage-gates Na+ channels by selectively binding to the channel in the inactive state (hyperpolarizes neurons) blocks Ca2+ influx directly and indirectly
67
Carbamazepine is useful for treating what kind of seizures
focal and general
68
Carbamazepine MOA
block voltage-gated Na+ channels
69
Valproic Acid is useful for treating what kind of seizures
all focal and general
70
Valproic Acid MOA
inhibits GABA transaminase block Na+ channels block T-Type Ca2+ channels
71
Gabapentin is useful in treating what kind of seizures
focal onset
72
Lamotrigine is useful in treating what kind of seizures
focal and general
73
Lamotrigine MOA
block Na+ channels
74
Topiramate is useful in treating what kind of seizures
focal and general
75
Topiramate MOA
block Na+ may increase frequency of Cl- by binding to GABA may act as AMPA antagonist
76
Tiagabine used for and MOA
focal onset block reuptake of GABA
77
Benzos like diazepam, clonazepam, and lorazepam are used for treating what type of seizures
ACUTE therapy for focal and generalized (need to be in combo with something else)
78
Benzos like diazepam, clonazepam, and lorazepam MOA
enhance inhibitory effect of GABA
79
Phenytoin MOA
prolongs Na+ channel opening prevent spread of ectopic signals to normal tissue
80
Phenytoin FDA approved indications
partial status epilepticus tonic clonic seizure ppx
81
Fosphenytoin FDA approved indications
partial status epilepticus tonic clonic seizure ppx
82
Levetriacetam FDA approved indications
myoclonic status epilepticus tonic clonic
83
Phenytoin Sodium Injection
S = 0.92 insoluble in water dissolved in 40% propylene glycol and 10% ethanol pH adjusted to 10-12 with sodium hydroxide to maintain solubility
84
Max rate of phenytoin admin for adult <60 yo and >60 yo
<60: 40-50 mg/min >60 yo: 20-25 mg/min (flush line with 50 mL NS after each admin)
85
Oral Phenytoin Formulations S values
1: chew, suspension, elixir 0.92: capsules
86
How long does it take fosphenytoin sodium to change into phenytoin
hydrolysis to active phenytoin: 8-15 min S = 0.92 diluted to 1.5-25 mg in D5W max rate of 150 mg PE/min
87
What is hypoalbuminemia categorized as
albumin <3.5 g/dL
88
max single PO dose of phenytoin
400 mg
89
What is the Vmax and Km value
Vmax: 7 Km: 4
90
What increases Vmax
enzyme induction: fever, pregnancy, trauma phenobarbital, carbamazepine
91
What decreases Vmax:
hepatic cirrhosis -decreased hepatocytes -decreased enzyme activity non-competitive inhibition
92
What increases Km
competitive inhibition -amiodarone -cimetidine -chloramphenicol
93
What decreases Km
change in protein binding protein displacement: valproic acid, salicylates, penicillin, bilirubin, p-HPPH, fatty acids
94
What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin
10-20 (>15 cause 88% decrease in seizures)
95
Phenytoin adverse effects
death ams, coma ataxia
96
What is the typical level for phenytoin LD
15-20 mg PE/kg
97
What is the typical level for phenytoin MD
4-6 mg/kg/day
98
VPA MOA
chemically related to free fatty acids inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in the CNS decrease neuronal excitability and rate of signal transduction increase GABA
99
Therapeutic range for VPA
50-100 (only relevant when used as an AED)
100
What are the hepatic mechanisms that VPA is eliminated
glucuronidation beta oxidation alpha hydroxylation
101
What is carbamazepine used for
monotherapy and adjunctive therapy in tonic clonic and focal seizures
102
carbamazepine MOA
enhance inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels
103
carbamazepine therapeutic monitoring
4-12 mcg/mL (needs to be titrated over 2-3 wks)
104
carbamazepine ADE
derm blood dyscrasia hyponatremia (SIADH) osteoporosis
105
carbamazepine dose adjustments
CTP score >8 = reduce by 25-50% pregnancy in 3rd trimester hemodialysis
106
Clonazepam used for
monotherapy or adjunctive for myoclonic, akinetic, and absence seizures
107
Clonazepam MOA
competitively binds the GABA-A receptor and potentiates the effect of GABA via modulation of chloride efflux
108
Benzo BBW
respiratory depression w/ opioids
109
Clonazepam clinical pearls
physiological dependence and w/drawal common CNS depression effects cause hallucinations, worsen ICU delirium, increase aggression
110
Ethosuximide used for
monotherapy or adjunctive for absence seizures DOC
111
Ethosuximide MOA
inhibition of T-type Ca2+ channels
112
Ethosuximide drug monitoring
40-100 mcg/mL
113
Ethosuximide interactions and ADE
VPA, phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin
114
Ethosuximide clinical pearls
worsens tonic clonic seizures causes hiccups
115
Phenobarbital used for
generalized and focal seizures
116
Phenobarbital MOA
binds GABA-A receptor and potentiates GABA via modulation of chloride efflux
117
Phenobarbital drug monitoring
20-40 mcg/mL
118
Phenobarbital ADE
other AED SJS and TEN
119
Phenobarbital clinical pearls
not FDA approved for anything off-label for alcohol w/drawal
120
Primidone used for
tremor (Prodrug of phenobarbital, Converted to active intermediary metabolite phenylethylmalo-n-amide)
121
Phenytoin used for
Focal seizures, tonic-clonic seizures Seizure prophylaxis post-operatively and in traumatic brain injury
122
Phenytoin MOA
Enhances inactivation of voltage-gated ion channels
123
Phenytoin significant interactions and adverse drug effects
SJS/TEN DDI w/ warfarin purple glove syndrome
124
Fosphenytoin used for
Focal seizures, tonic-clonic seizures Seizure prophylaxis post-operatively and in traumatic brain injury
125
Fosphenytoin MOA
Enhances inactivation of voltage-gated ion channels Phosphorylated pro-drug of phenytoin, activated by serum esterases
126
VPA used for
Focal seizures, general seizure disorders Most utilized drug for absence seizures in patients >10
127
VPA interactions and ADE
Black Box Warning for hepatoxicity Hyperammonemia Associated with nail bed abnormalities, hirsutism, alopecia
128
VPA clinical pearls
Contraindicated in urea cycle disorders Pregnancy Category D Used off-label for migraines, mood/behavioral augmentation
129
Felbamate used for
Focal onset seizures with or without tonic-clonic seizures
130
Felbamate MOA
Antagonizes N-methyl-D-aspartic acid receptors as well as GABA-A receptors
131
Felbamate drug monitoring
30-60 mcg/mL
132
Felbamate BBW
Black Box Warning for aplastic anemia and hepatoxicity Aplastic anemia risk = >100-fold increase from general population
133
Felbamate clinical pearls
Only indicated for super-refractory seizures
134
Gabapentin used for
Adjunctive therapy in most seizure types, with the exception of absence seizures and tonic-clonic seizures
135
Gabapentin MOA
Binds to alpha-2 subunit of calcium channel, with unknown effects on seizures
136
Gabapentin drug monitoring
2-20 mcg/mL
137
Gabapentin clinical pearls
Rarely utilized in seizure disorders Commonly utilized in: * Neuropathic pain * Restless leg syndrome * Post-herpetic neuralgia * Alcohol withdrawal * Chronic refractory cough
138
Lamotrigine used for
Adjunctive therapy for focal-onset seizures without tonic-clonic motion
139
Lamotrigine MOA
Enhances fast inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels
140
Lamotrigine drug monitoring
4-20 mcg/mL
141
Lamotrigine ADE
Significant interaction with valproic acid: * Max dose of lamotrigine if on VPA: 500 mg * Max dose if on VPA: 200 mg Black Box Warning for dermatologic reactions (SJS/TEN)
142
Lamotrigine clinical pearls
Utilized for bipolar disorder, headaches, and trigeminal neuralgia
143
Levetiracetam used for
Workhorse of modern anti-epileptic agents Utilized in focal-onset, myoclonic, JME, tonic-clonic seizures * Second or third line for absence seizure
144
Levetiracetam MOA
inhibits synaptic vesicle SV2A which prevents neurotransmitter release
145
Levetiracetam drug monitoring
10-66 mcg/mL Not correlated with clinical efficacy or safety * Not routinely measured other than to confirm adherence
146
Levetiracetam ADE
Minimal drug-drug interactions Negative behavior effects
147
Levetiracetam clinical pearls
100% oral bioavailability Can be administered as an undiluted IV push * Useful in status epilepticus
148
Oxcarbazepine used for
Focal-onset seizures
149
Oxcarbazepine MOA
Enhances inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels
150
Oxcarbazepine ADE
Inhibitor of CYP 2C19 and inducer of CYP 3A4
151
Oxcarbazepine clinical pearls
Structural analog of carbamazepine with fewer adverse effects * Considered safer alternative with regard to dermatologic reactions Eslicarbazine (Aptiom) and oxcarbazepine are metabolized to same intermediary compound
152
Lacosamide used for
Focal-onset seizures, generalized tonic-clonic, and status epilepticus Post-injury prophylaxis in neurologic injury/traumatic brain injury
153
Lacosamide MOA
Mediates voltage-gated ion channels
154
Lacosamide ADE
Substrate of CYP 3A4, 2C9, 2C19 Requires dose adjustment in hepatic impairment
155
Lacosamide clinical pearls
May be necessary to decrease doses of concomitant agents by up to 20%: * Carbamazepine * Phenytoin * Phenobarbital * Primidone
156
Perampanel used for
Focal-onset seizures, tonic clonic seizures * Commonly as adjunctive therapy
157
Perampanel MOA
Non-competitive antagonist of glutamate receptors on post-synaptic neurons
158
Perampanel ADE
Black Box Warning for significant psychiatric events, including suicidal and homicidal ideation Dose-dependent CYP enzymatic inducer
159
Perampanel clinical pearls
Schedule III controlled substance Associated with weight gain
160
Clobazam used for
Adjunctive therapy for non-absence seizure classifications
161
Clobazam MOA
Binds GABA-A receptors and potentiates GABA via modulation of chloride conductance
162
Clobazam drug monitoring
0.03 – 0.3 mcg/mL
163
Clobazam ADE
BBW for profound sedation and respiratory depression in combo w/ BZD and opioids, addiction, inhibitor of CYP 2C9, inducer of CYP3A4
164
Clobazam clinical pearls
Schedule IV controlled substance Moderate association with dermatologic reactions
165
Cannabidiol used for
Primarily used in Dravet syndrome and Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome * More commonly being prescribed for refractory status epilepticus, NORSE, and FIRES
166
Cannabidiol ADE
Increases lamotrigine levels Increases clobazam metabolite concentration by 300%
167
Cannabidiol MOA
Hepatotoxicity and respiratory failure are significant May be associated with ICU delirium and poor sleep hygiene
168
Why is status epilepticus a medical emergency
associated w/ brain damage and potentially death long term consequences after 30 minutes of ongoing seizure activity
169
status epilepticus definition
cont seizure activity for 5 minutes or multiple seizures w/out return to baseline over 5 min (pharm resistance and mortality increase w/ prolonged duration)
170
Type 1 vs Type 2 SE
1: absence of structural lesions 2: presence of structural lesions
171
Type 1 SE causes
alcohol systemic infection CNS infection metabolic dysregulation subtherapeutic AED levels
172
Type 2 SE causes
anoxia/hypoxic brain injury CNS malignancy CVA/TIA (ischemic or hemorrhagic) Drug overdose TBI
173
pathophysiology of SE what decreases
GABA adenosine, K, neuropeptide Y, opioid peptides, galanin
174
pathophysiology of SE what increases
glutamate Ca, Na, substance P, neurokinin B
175
What is phase 1 of SE
0-30 min active: E, NE, insulin, cAMP presentation: hypertensive, tachycardia, hyper then hypoglycemia, tracheal secretions
176
What is phase 2 SE
>30 min active: lactic acid, insulin, temp, dysregulation, hypoxia, acidosis presentation: hypotension, shock, hypoglycemia, azotemia
177
What labs to order before SE tx
CBC, BMP, UDS, blood cultures, ABG, drug levels
178
What is SE stabilization phase
ABCDE (airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure) vitals time of onset oxygen ECG blood glucose (adults thiamine then dextrose) IV assess and collect electrolytes, CBC, tox, ASM
179
Initial tx for SE (5-20 min)
lorazepam IV 0.1 mg/kg/dose (max 4 mg) x2 midazolam IN 0.15-0.3 mg/kg (max 10 mg) x2 midazolam IM 0.2 mg/kg/dose (max 10 mg) x2 diazepam IV 0.15-0.2 mg/kg/dose (max 10 mg) x2 diazepam IN or PR Midazolam buccal
180
Second phase tx for SE (20-40 min): first line tx
Fosphenytoin IV 20 mg PE/kg (max 1500) x1 VPA IV 40 mg/kg (max 3,000 mg) x1 keppra IV 60 mg/kg (max 4,500 mg) x1
181
Second phase tx for SE (20-40 min): 2nd and 3rd line tx
2: Phenobarbital IV 15 mg/kg x1 3: Lacosamide IV 5-10 mg/kg (max 400 mg) x1
182
Third phase tx for SE (40-60 min)
begin EEG monitoring Midazolam IV 0.2 mg/kg bolus, 0.05-2 mg/kg/hr Phentobarbital IV 5-15 mg/kg, 0.05-5 mg/kg/hr Propofol IV 1-2 mg/kg, 20 mcg/kg/min
183
BZD for SE
first line for first 30 min diazepam is lipophilic and shirt half life (bad) lorazepam hydrophilic (protect for 24 hr) midazolam short half life need bolus or cont IV
184
Phenytoin for SE
Considered second-line agent to benzodiazepine- refractory or recurrent seizures ADE: bradycardia, hypotension, phlebitis
185
Alternatives for AED for SE
Fosphenytoin Levetiracetam: 60 mg/kg max 4500 mg IV Valproate: 40 mg/kg max 3000 mg IV
186
What is considered refractory SE
Up to 15% of patients will fail benzodiazepine + 1 ASM, and are considered refractory
187
What is considered super-refractory SE
seizure activity for >24 hours
188
Anesthetic Medications for SE
midazolam (Versed): caution w/ respiratory depression and hypotension, avoid flumazenil Pentobarbital (Nembutal): need vent produces coma min 72 hr get neuro exam Propofol (Diprivan): need vent, produce coma
189
Propofol-Related Infusion Syndrome risk factors
dose >4 mg/kg/hr duration: >48 hr low glycogen stores neuro compromise (traumatic brain injury) underlying hyper-TGL liver disease
190
Potentially Useful Agents in Status Epilepticus
Ketamine (Ketalar): 0.5-3 mg/kg bolus followed by 0.1-4 mg/kg/h (increases BP and HR, increased secretions and hallucinations) use BZD Topiramate: may use NG
191
New Onset Refractory Status Epilepticus: (NORSE)
No previous history of seizures or neurological disorder with out a clear metabolic or toxic cause present w/ fever -> febrile infection-related epilepsy syndrome (FIRES) autoimmune or infection
192
Goal for NORSE
keep patient stable and stop seizure activity -Typically burst suppression on EEG with IV anesthetics is required -May start immunotherapy early
193
NORSE drugs to use
Monotherapy: pentobarbital Combination therapy: midazolam and propofol Patient should be seizure free for 24-48 hours before weaning IV steroids, immunoglobulin, plasmapheresis