Neuro non drug table Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

potency of anaesthetic agents in linearly correlated with

A

Lipid solubility

◦ Relates to their ability to cross and manipulate the activity of ion channels --> ligand gated channels are moe sensitive to the action fo general anaesthetics than voltage gated channels
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2
Q

Lipid solubility of local anaesthetics is determined by>

A

pKa which in turn determines potency

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3
Q

How are local anaesthetics formulated

A

Hydrochloride salt with sodium metabisulfite and fungiside preservatives; further preservative 1mg/mL methyl parahydroxybenzoate in multidose bottles

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4
Q

What concentration is adrenaline in when added to LA

A

1:200 000
5mcg/mL

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5
Q

pKa for LA
Acid or base

A
  • pKa for most of them is ~8-9, and they are weak bases
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6
Q

Describe how pKa and MOA work for LA

A

◦ After injection, at body pH they become more lipid soluble –> solubility and lipophilicity are primary determinants of absorption into the neuron/potency but also affects local distirbution and likelihood of being washed away by local blood flow
◦ This allows them to penetrate the cell and bind to the intracellular part of the voltaged-gated sodium channel, which is their site of action
◦ Most local anaesthetics have a pKa of something like 8.0-9.0, and are presented in an aqueous solution.
◦ Aqueous solutions of local anaesthetics are buffered down to a pH of 5.0-6.0, which makes them ionised and therefore water-soluble.
◦ Once injected into the tissues, this acidic liquid dilutes into extracellular fluid and the local anaesthetic molecules become more lipid-soluble (now being bathed in a pH of 7.40).
◦ Now they can penetrate into the cells.
◦ Inside the cells, conditions are slightly more acidic (pH ~ 6.9)
◦ Thus, more of the agent will be present in its cationic form
◦ This is good because only the charged form can bind to the voltage-gated sodium channel.

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7
Q

LA binding domain? What characteristics of the channel are required for binding? What important characterstics of the LA are required to bind?

A

◦ Bind to INTRACELLULAR domain of voltage gated sodium channels in their OPEN state inside the channel pore then blocking the channel by stabilising its inactive state
‣ Also block other ion channels
‣ Needs to be in its ionised form (protonated) to do this –> the axoplasm is more acidic favouring this anyway

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8
Q

Is local anaesthetic action concentration dependent?

A

Yes, decrease in amplitude of action potential is concentration dependent, and if enough are blocked the membrane does not reach threshold

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9
Q

What state do the LA stabilise

A

Inactive

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10
Q

What states can a sodium channel be in?

A

Open
Inactive
Resting

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11
Q

What does phasic block refer to?

A

Property of LA

  • They preferentially bind to the channel in its open state, stabilising it in the inactive state
    ◦ This gives rise to use-dependent block (PHASIC block), where repeated stimulation of the axon makes more open channels available, and increases the blockade effect.
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12
Q

What is the term for block that i use dependent in LA

A
  • They preferentially bind to the channel in its open state, stabilising it in the inactive state
    ◦ This gives rise to use-dependent block (PHASIC block), where repeated stimulation of the axon makes more open channels available, and increases the blockade effect.
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13
Q

Differential block means what?

A
  • Differential block
    ◦ They preferentially affect pain and temperature fibres (“Differential block”), possible because they are largely unmyelinated (C-fibres); but also autonomic neurotramission with motor block only at HIGH concentrations
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14
Q

What afferents do local anaesthetics primarily affect?

A
  • Differential block
    ◦ They preferentially affect pain and temperature fibres (“Differential block”), possible because they are largely unmyelinated (C-fibres); but also autonomic neurotramission with motor block only at HIGH concentrations
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15
Q

Potency of local anaesthetics is related to?

A

◦ Correlated to lipid solubility - tissue distribution and vasodilator properties determine amount of clocal anaesthetic available
‣ e.g. vasodilation at low concentrations (prilocaine > lidocaine > bupivocaine > ropivocaine) - vaso constrcti at high concentrations.
◦ Ineffective in infected tissue as acidic environment reduced unionised fraction and increased vascularity removes drug from area

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16
Q

Duration of action of a local anaesthetic agent is related to?

A

Protein binding

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17
Q

Onset of action of a local anaesthetic is related to?

A

◦ Related to pKa - high pKa have more in the ionised form and cannot penetrate the nerve as quickly, and the inverse

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18
Q

What is the structure of a local anaesthetic 3

A

Lipophilic aromatic ring - essential to anaesthetic activity

Hydrophilic amine group - allows ionisation and water soluble. Alkalyl substitutions make for larger molecules adn more lipid solubility = higher potency

Intermediate chain linkage - ester or amide

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19
Q

Distirbution and protein binding for local anaestheteics

A

◦ Highly protein bound e.g. lignocaine bound to both albumin and alpha 1 acid glycoprotein (bupivocaine and ropivocaine also >95% bound)
‣ Free fraction reduced when lots of protein e.g. pregnancy, MI, renal failure, post op, infancy
‣ Note if foetus becomes acidotic then there will be increased local anaesthetic accumulation there (ion trapping); esters do not cross the placenta in significant amounts
◦ Vd 0.9L/kg for lignocaine and 2.7L/kg for prilocaine (the largest)
◦ Esters minimally bounds
◦ Amide protein binding: bupicacaine > ropivacaine > lidocaine > prilocaine

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20
Q

What are the two subclasses of local anaesthetics? 3 examples of each

A

Amides - lignocaine, ropivocaine, bupivocaine
Esters - cocaine, procaine, amethocaine

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21
Q

What structurally is differnent between esters and amides

A
  • Esters have an ester intermediate chain
  • e.g.

Amides have an amino intermediate chain

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22
Q

Metabolism and clearance for esters

A

◦ Plasma esterases rapidly degrade via hydrolysis e.g. prilocaine <10 minutes to para-aminobenzoate which has been associated with hypersensitivity reactions
◦ Cocaine the exception undergoing a hepatic metabolism by amidases
◦ Additionally also has a shorter shelf life as esters degrade more easily

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23
Q

Metabolism and clearance of amides

A
  • Metabolism and clearance
    ◦ longer halflives
    ◦ cleared by the liver - lignocaine has active metabolites - reduced hepatic blood flow or hepatic dysfunction markedly reduces clearance
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24
Q

LA toxicity affects which 2 systems things primarily

A

CNS
CV
Methaemoglobinaemia in prilocaine

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25
Which more commonly occurs in local anaesthetic toxicity - CNS or CV
CNS at lower doses Usually 1:3 dose relationhip Bupivocaine has a reduced ratio
26
Describe the phases of CNS toxicity for local anaesthetic agents
◦ At lower doses: (inhibitory interneurons blocked) ‣ Visual disturbances (resembling nystagmus) - objects oscillate ‣ Perioral numbness ‣ Lightheaded, tinnitus ◦ At increasing doses: all neurons blocked ‣ Slurred speech ‣ Incoherent conversation ‣ Confusion and decreased level of consciousness ◦ With very large doses: ‣ Seizures - as inhibitory neuronal activity is suppressed ‣ Coma with EEG features of non-convulsive status or burst suppression
27
Cardiovascular toxicity of local anaesthetics
◦ Lower dose effects are sympathomimetic: ‣ Hypertension ‣ Vasoconstriction ‣ Tachycardia ◦ With increasing doses cardiodepression occurs and vasoconstriction changes to vasodilation ◦ Higher dose effects: ‣ Hypotension (systemic vasodilation) ‣ Bradycardia and heart block - spontaneous pacemaker activity prolonged ‣ Decreased VMax (prolonged 0 phase), QRS prolongation, QT shortened, arrhythmias, cardiac arrest
28
What patient risk factors increase the risk of local anaesthetic toxicity 6
◦ Acidosis ‣ Only the charged version can bind to voltage gated sodium channels - in intracellular acidosis more of them in active ionised state ‣ Acidosis also reduced protein binding increasing free drug ‣ Acidosis increases the partition coefficient of local anaesthetic to the myocardium ◦ Old age: slower clearance due to reduced hepatic blood flow, more cardiofragile ◦ Young age: lower α1-acid glycoprotein level, higher free fraction ◦ Pregnant patients: lower α1-acid glycoprotein level, better perfusion of blocked tissue therefore faster systemic washout ◦ Concomitant use of another antiarrhythmic ◦ Hyperkalemia (decreased toxic dose of agent)
29
Pharmacologcial factors increaase the change of local anaesthetic toxicity 5
◦ Dose (obviously) - dose to ideal no actual body weight ◦ Choice of agent (some drugs, eg. bupivacaine, have a lower CC/CNS ratio) ‣ The difference in the dose required to cause cardiac complications vs CNS ◦ Site of administration (eg. closer to large vessels, hyperaemic site, epidural) ‣ Increased risk of direct intravascular injection: * Interscalene block * intercostal * Epidural * Brachial plexus block * Stellate ganglion block * Intercostal nerve block ‣ Increased risk of rapid absorption: * Scalp * Bronchial mucosa * Interpleural cavity * Epidural ◦ Coadministration of vasoconstrictor (slows systemic absorption) ◦ Slower dissociation from sodium channels (eg. bupivacaine) ◦ Drug interactions: ‣ displacement from protein binding (eg. by phenytoin) ‣ decreased metabolism (eg. by cimetidine of amides) ‣ Delayed absorption - adrenaline
30
Management of locala anesthetic toxicity comes down to 3 factors
◦ Supportive ‣ Seizures - Benzos to raise seizure threshold ‣ Decreased GCS - intubated ‣ Cardiovascular collapse - supportive +/- ECMO ◦ Alkalinise or hyperventilate as binding is pH dependent ‣ Increase protein binding when alkalosis ‣ Decrease charged fraction (active and capable of binding sodium channels) ◦ Increase the distribution into lipid:
31
what is the dose for intralipid
‣ Give intralipid emulsion to increase lipid-bound fraction and decrease free fraction * 1.5mL/kg IV over 1 minute then continuous infusion 0.25mL/kg/minute ◦ Bolus can be repeated and infusion doubled if resistance ◦ Maximum dose over first 30 minutes 10mL/.kg
32
What is the MOA for intralipid (4)
* Lipid sink - highly lipid soluble LA moelcules absorbed into intralipid reducing free fraction ◦ Tissue extraction because free fraction drops decreased CNS and CVS * Lipid shuttle - deliver anaesthetic to the liver enhancing rate of elimination * Metabolic changes in mycoardium - increased fatty acid reverses LA reduced reduction in FFA metabolism in mitochondria, providing energy substrate * May prevent Na channel inhibition * Inoconstrictor - inhibits NO release
33
Give the 2 classes of classical antipsycotics and 2 examples of each
* Phenothiazines ◦ CHlorpramazine ◦ Prochlorperazine * Butyrophenones ◦ Haloperidol ◦ Droperidol
34
What is a phenothiazine
1st Gen classical antipsychotic Chlorpromazine and prochloperazine
35
What is a butyrophenone?
* 1st Gen antipsyhotic * Butyrophenones ◦ Haloperidol ◦ Droperidol
36
Atypical or second generation antipsychotics include?
* Olanzapine * Quetiapine * Risperidone * Aripiprazole
37
Action in general of antipsychotics by?
* Central dopamine (typically D2, but varies with agent) antagonism ◦ Responsible for the antipsychotic properties
38
Secondary actions of antispychotics relate to which systems 4
* 5-HT2 antagonism * Other receptors which are quantitatively less important: ◦ H1 antagonism ◦ α1 antagonism ◦ Muscarinic ACh antagonism
39
How is the MOA slightly different generally between 1st and 2nd generation antipsyhcotics
* Typical or 1st generation antipsychotics ◦ Higher affinity for D2 receptors (subsequently less blockade of 5-HT2), causing a greater effect on 'positive' symptoms' and a greater incidence of extrapyramidal side effects * Atypical or 2nd generation, which typically have fewer motor effects ◦ Have greater effect on negative symptoms.
40
Which seratonin receptor is implicated in antipsychotic use
5HT2
41
General pharmacokinetic rules for antipscyhotics
* Well absorbed * Large first pass effect - oral bioavailability 10-70% * Large Vd 10-20L/kg * Most are >90% protein bound * Metbaolised in the liver - many having active metabolites * Metabolites renally excreted Pharmacodynamics
42
Pharmacoynamics for antipsychotics
* D2 receptor blockade in the mesolimbic symptoms controlling positive symptoms of psychosis * Seratonin recpeotr actvity managing negative symptoms in newer antipsychotics
43
Side effects of antipsychotics - 3 systems with 3 things each
Cardiac 1. QTc prolongation 2. Hypotension, postural esp 3. Tachycardia anticholinergic Neuro 1. Sedative 2. EPS 3. Seizure threshold reduced Hormonal - Increased weight gain - DM - Increased chlosterol - Increased prolactin
44
What EPS side effects do antipsychotics cause
◦ Dystonia - involuntary muscle spasm involving facial muscles ◦ Oculogyric crisis - arched back and eyes rolled back ◦ Akasthesia - restless ◦ Rigidity and parkinsons - months to develop ◦ Tardive dyskinesia with prolonged Tx - involuntary movements more pronounced, irreversible, worsen if therapy stopped, occuring with use for >10 years
45
Why does the Qtc interval get longer for antipsychotics
as they block the delayed rectifer currents responsible for phase 3 of the acrtion potential
46
How would you classify antiepileptics?
* Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release) ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine ◦ Calcium channels ‣ Ethosuxamide ‣ Gabapentin ‣ Pregabalin ‣ Zonisamide ◦ Na channels ‣ Phenytoin ‣ Carbamazapine ‣ Lacosamide ‣ Lamotrigine ‣ Rufinamide ‣ Sodium valproate ‣ Topiramate * GABA potentiators ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate * Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam * Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium Phenytoin
47
What antiepileptics affect Ca channels 4
* Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release) ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine ◦ Calcium channels ‣ Ethosuxamide ‣ Gabapentin ‣ Pregabalin ‣ Zonisamide ◦ Na channels ‣ Phenytoin ‣ Carbamazapine ‣ Lacosamide ‣ Lamotrigine ‣ Rufinamide ‣ Sodium valproate ‣ Topiramate * GABA potentiators ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate * Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam * Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium Phenytoin
48
What antiepiletocis affect Na channels? 6
* Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release) ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine ◦ Calcium channels ‣ Ethosuxamide ‣ Gabapentin ‣ Pregabalin ‣ Zonisamide ◦ Na channels ‣ Phenytoin ‣ Carbamazapine ‣ Lacosamide ‣ Lamotrigine ‣ Rufinamide ‣ Sodium valproate ‣ Topiramate * GABA potentiators ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate * Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam * Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium Phenytoin
49
What antiepileptics affect GABA - 3 mechanisms each with an agent
* Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release) ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine ◦ Calcium channels ‣ Ethosuxamide ‣ Gabapentin ‣ Pregabalin ‣ Zonisamide ◦ Na channels ‣ Phenytoin ‣ Carbamazapine ‣ Lacosamide ‣ Lamotrigine ‣ Rufinamide ‣ Sodium valproate ‣ Topiramate * GABA potentiators ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate * Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam * Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium Phenytoin
50
Preynsaptic neurotransmitter release is inhibited by which antiepuileptics
* Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release) ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine ◦ Calcium channels ‣ Ethosuxamide ‣ Gabapentin ‣ Pregabalin ‣ Zonisamide ◦ Na channels ‣ Phenytoin ‣ Carbamazapine ‣ Lacosamide ‣ Lamotrigine ‣ Rufinamide ‣ Sodium valproate ‣ Topiramate * GABA potentiators ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate * Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam * Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium Phenytoin
51
Post synaptic inhibitors of neurotransmission is regulated by which two receptors in antiepileptics? What are examples of drugs in each class?
* Ion channel modulation (altered RMP, stabilised AP associated channesl, inhibiting Ca influx prevneting neurotransmitter release) ◦ Pottasium channels - Retigabine ◦ Calcium channels ‣ Ethosuxamide ‣ Gabapentin ‣ Pregabalin ‣ Zonisamide ◦ Na channels ‣ Phenytoin ‣ Carbamazapine ‣ Lacosamide ‣ Lamotrigine ‣ Rufinamide ‣ Sodium valproate ‣ Topiramate * GABA potentiators ◦ GABA A - Benzo, barbituates, clobazam ◦ GABA reuptake - tiagabine ◦ GABA catabolism - Sodium valproate * Presynaptic neurotranmitter release modulators - SV2A - Levetiracetam * Post synpatic inhibitors of neurotransmission ◦ AMPA - parampanel, topiramate ◦ NMDA - ketamine, sodium valproate, magnesium Phenytoin
52
Absorption of antidepressatns
* All of these drugs are only available in oral formulation * The vast majority of them are well absorbed enterically ◦ The exceptions are duloxetine, which is degraded by stomach acid, and sertraline, which is absorbed very slowly * Most have excellent oral bioavailability (except agomelatine and selegiline)
53
Distribution of antidepressants
Wide Large protein binding except venlafaxine
54
Metabolism and excretion of antidepressants
* All undergo extensive hepatic metabolism * Many have active metabolites (selegiline, fluoxetine, citalopram, bupropion, TCAs)
55
MAOI MOA
* MAOIs bind to monoamine oxidase and inhibit the catabolism of monoamines, increasing their synaptic effect ◦ This also increases the systemic availability of catecholamines, which can give rise to hypertensive crises
56
SSRIs inhibit
* SSRIs inhibit SERT, the serotonin reuptake protein ◦ This can result in serotonin syndrome in the presence of other serotonergic or monoamine agonist drugs
57
SNRIs inhibit
* SNRIs inhibit NET, the noradrenaline reuptake protein
58
What does mirtazepine affect
* Mirtazapine and mianserin target presynaptic α-adrenoceptors and histamine receptors in the CNS, increasing the synaptic release of noradrenaline ◦ The antihistamine effect leads to sedation
59
TCAs act via what mechanisms
* TCAs act by at least five different mechanisms, of which two are SNRI and SSRI like effects, and the others consist of the inhibition of α-adrenoceptors, histamine receptors and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors ◦ Antihistamine-like sedation, postural hypotension, and anticholinergic side effects, as well as sodium channel blockade in overdose
60
Classify antidepressants
Classifying antidepressants * MAO - mono amine oxidase inhibitors ◦ A1 - irreversible and non selective - phenelzine ◦ A1b - irreversible and selective - selegiline (MAO B) ◦ A1c - Reversible and selective - Moclobemide * Reuptake inhibitors ◦ SSRI - sertraline, fluoxetine, citalopram, paroxetine, fluvoxamine ◦ SNRI - DUloxetine, venlafaxine ◦ Noradrenaline/dopamine reuptake inhibitors - Bupropion * Alpha 2 receptor antagonists ◦ Mirtazepine * Multimodal ◦ Noradrenergic - mianserine ◦ Noradrenergic/sertonergic/anticholinergic - TCA (Amitrptyiline) * Non monoaminergic - melatonin agonsits - agomelatine * Unclassifiable ◦ Amphetamines ◦ Steriods ◦ Ketamine
61
Terminal half life of propofol?
Terminal elimination t1/2 of propofol: Variable reports from 2-24 hours (5-12 in Peck Hill and Williams), possibly longer – needed to express that it is lengthy and measured in hours from this range
62
pH and PKa of thiopental
pH 11 pKa 7.5
63
Vd and PPB of thiopental
2L/kg 80%
64
Additives to thiopentone
Sodium bicarbonate
65
Propofol pH and PkA
pH 8 pKa 11
66
Vd and PPB of propofol
4L/kg 98% protein bound
67
Additives to Propofol
10% soybean oil 2.5% glycerol 1.25% egg phosphatide NaOH EDTA
68
Ketamine pH and pKa
pH 4 pKa 7.5
69
Vd and PPB for ketamine
3L/kg 25% protein bound
70
Clearance of ketamine vs propofol
Propofol 30-60ml/kg/min Ketamine 15ml/kg/min
71
Additives to ketamine
HCl Na benzothonium
72
Nerve sensitivity to LA blockade
Nerve sensitivity to LA blockade: B > Aδ > C > Aγ > Aβ > Aα
73
pKa of lignocaine
7.9
74
Protein binding of ligocaine
70%
75
Vd of lignocaine
1L/kg
76
Ropivocaine and Bupivocaine pKa and protein binding?
8.1 95%
77
Potency of Ropivocaine and Bupivacaine in comparisone to lignocaine
Ropivocaine 3x potency Bupivocaine 4x potency (lignocaine is 2x more potent than the base procaine that is used for comparison)
78
Vd of suxamethonium?
0.2L/kg
79
Vd of pancruonium
0.2L/kg
80
Vd of rocuonrium
0.2L/kg
81
Atricurium Vd
0.2L/kg
82
Which muscle relaxant has the longest duration of action? WHy?
Pancruonium 10% hepatic metabolism 80% renal clearance
83
How is pancuronium cleared form the body? How is it metabolised? How important is metabolism to its clerance?
10% hepatic metabolism 80% renal clearance unchanged
84
Rocuronium clearance? Degree of metabolisM?
Hepatic 15% 50% unchnaged - 40% bile, 10% renal
85
Vecuronium metabolisma nd clearance
60% hepatically metabolised 20% renally unchanged 20% biliary unchanged
86
Keppra pharmacokinetics
100% bioavailable Small to moederate Vd 0.5L/kg Mainly in total body water Miniaml protein binding Minimal metabolism and likely non hepatic 70% unchanged in urine
87
Keppra side effects
Pregnancy category C with minor foetal skeletal abnormalities in rate studies Agitation, aggregsion, somnolence, reduced LOC< respiratory depression Haemodialsyis clears 50% in 4 hours
88