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Flashcards in neuro pharm Deck (54)
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1

2. Propofol:
a. Is less painful when injected than thiopentone
b. Causes less hypotension than thiopentone
c. Is less likely to cause post operative vomiting than thiopentone
d. Causes cumulative effects when given as a continuous infusion
e. Is useful in long term sedation in ICU for periods of 1-2 weeks

e

2

3. Ketamine:
a. Is useful as an induction agent in head injured patients
b. Decreases salivation
c. Decreases heart rate and may cause bronchoconstriction
d. Must be given intramuscularly
e. May cause unpleasant dreams in children

e

3

4. Regarding inhaled anaesthetics, which is NOT true?
a. The depth of anaesthesia is related to the alveolar concentration of the gas
b. The potency of these agents is directly proportional to their fat solubility
c. The alveolar concentration is not influenced by cardiac output
d. Nitrous oxide when administered alone cannot produce surgical anaesthesia
e. More than 95% of halothane is excreted by the lungs

e

4

5. Propofol:
a. Is mainly excreted unchanged in urine
b. Has minimal effects on blood pressure during induction
c. Has a recovery rate from anaesthesia similar to the barbiturates
d. Has antiemetic properties
e. Hypersensitivity reactions are due to the intralipid component

d

5

6. Ketamine is closely chemically related to
a. Phencyclidine
b. LSD
c. Propofol
d. Thiopentone
e. Enflurane

a

6

7. The MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) is greatest for:
a. Nitrous oxide
b. Halothane
c. Isoflurane
d. Methoxyflurane
e. Ketamine

a. <= 100%

7

8. All of the following are anaesthetic agents EXCEPT:
a. Midazolam
b. Glycopyrrolate
c. Propofol
d. Fentanyl
e. Etomidate

B

8

9. Regarding intravenous anaesthetics:
a. Ketamine is a cardiovascular depressant
b. Respiratory depression is rare following use of midazolam
c. Delayed recovery is expected following prolonged infusion of propofol
d. Barbiturate anaesthetics have a rapid onset of action due to high lipid solubility
e. Intravenous opioids aid chest wall relaxation

d

9

10. Regarding adverse effects of propofol:
a. Post-operative vomiting is common
b. Hypertension is a complication
c. Severe acidosis can occur with its use in paediatric respiratory infection
d. It is positively inotropic
e. Tremors are a common side effect

c

10

1. Regarding non-depolarising relaxants, which of the following is incorrect:
a. Vd is only slightly larger than blood volume
b. Drugs excreted by the kidney have t ½ less than 60 minutes
c. Drugs excreted by the liver have short half lives
d. Rocuronium is more dependent on biliary excretion for elimination

b

11

1. The duration of action of rocuronium is closest to:
a. 20-35 minutes
b. 10-15 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. Less than 10 minutes

a

12

1. Regarding succinylcholine, which of the following is correct:
a. It reacts at the muscarinic receptor
b. It prevents opening of the sodium channel preventing depolarisation of the motor end plate
c. Phase I block is augmented by cholinesterase inhibitors
d. It is metabolised predominantly in the liver

c

13

1. Adverse effects of succinylcholine include all of the following, except:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Muscle pains
c. Malignant hyperthermia
d. Decreased intragastric pressure

d

14

1. Which of the following muscle relaxants has the longest duration of action:
a. Rocuronium
b. Vecuronium
c. Succinylcholine
d. Pancuronium

d

15

Regarding antipsychotics as a group
a. Metabolites are important to the action of these drugs
b. Haloperidol has a higher systemic availability than thioridazine or
chlorpromazine
c. Elimination half lives of these drugs range between 3 – 6 hours
d. This group of drugs generally has short clinical duration of action
e. Clozipine is a member of the dihydroindolone group

b

16

Which of the following antipsychotics (in excess dose) is responsible for cardiac arrhythmias?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Clozapine
c. Thioridazine
d. Haloperidol
e. Thiothixene

c

17

Plasma lithium levels (assuming no change in daily lithium dose) may become toxic in the presence of all of the following EXCEPT
a. Pregnancy
b. Use of thiazides
c. Dehydration
d. Use of some non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
e. Post partum state

a

18

Regarding pharmacokinetics of antidepressants
a. Most are highly protein bound
b. Fluoxetine is poorly absorbed
c. Tricyclics are predominantly excreted unchanged in the urine
d. Plasma half lives of antidepressants are mostly less than 10 hours
e. The half life of the older MAOIs is helpful in governing doses

a

19

Which of the following drugs is potentially dangerous in a single drug overdose
a. Moclobemide
b. Paroxetine
c. Sertraline
d. Trazodone
e. Amoxapine

e

20

Which of the following drugs is 99% protein bound in plasma
a. Gentamicin
b. Theophylline
c. Carbamazepine
d. Atenolol
e. Diazepam

e

21

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated (absolutely) in a patient with porphyria
a. Zolpidem
b. Chloral hydrate
c. Buspirone
d. Phenobarbitone
e. Diazepam

d

22

Regarding local anaesthetic agents
a. Lignocaine is also an antiarrhythmic of the Vaughan Williams classification group 1A
b. At normal pH the larger fraction of local anaesthetic in the body fluids will be in the unchanged form
c. Bupivacaine may cause an apparent cyanosis in some patients
d. The duration of action of procaine will be increased in the presence of
liver disease
e. Local anaesthetic agents block conduction in small myelinated axons
prior to blockade of other axons

e

23

Regarding IV anaesthetic agents
a. Ketamine is the induction agent of choice in a head injured patient
b. Propofol has a slow offset of action
c. Etomidate causes hypotension more commonly than thiopentone
d. Ideal agents for neuroleptanalgesia are fentanyl and droperidol
e. Thiopentone is metabolised at a rate of 40-50% per hour in humans following a single dose

d

24

Suxamethonium
a. Is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agent
b. Is contraindicated in all eye operations
c. Stimulates cardiac muscarinic receptors and autonomic ganglia
d. Its action is directly terminated by the action of plasma cholinesterase
e. Should not be administered to patients with burns >24 hours old
because of its hypercalcaemic effect

c

25

Inhalational anaesthetics
a. Enflurane is proconvulsant
b. Isoflurane is the inhalational agent of choice in patients with active
IHD
c. Nitrous oxide is a useful adjunct to volatile anaesthetic use in women
in the first trimester of pregnancy
d. Halothane has a MAC value of 75% making it less potent than
desflurane
e. Desflurane is extensively metabolised via the liver

a

26

Phenytoin
a. Is 20-30% bound to albumin
b. Is the drug treatment of choice in absence seizures
c. Undergoes flow limited elimination
d. Steady state mean plasma concentrations varies disproportionately
with the dose
e. Preferentially binds to activated state sodium channels

d

27


13. Drugs of abuse can be extremely dangerous in the wrong hands! Which of the following is correct
a. Ketamine is structurally related to psilocybin
b. LSD acts on various 5 HT receptor subtypes to produce its mind
altering effects
c. Marijuana causes mydriasis and conjunctival infection
d. Cocaine has a long plasma half life
e. Amphetamine like drugs cause marked stimulation of appetite

b

28

Flumazenil
a. Is cleared renally
b. Predictably reverses benzodiazepine induced respiratory depression
c. Antagonises CNS effects of opioids
d. Can precipitate seizures in mixed overdose
e. Has a half life of around 10 hours

d

29

Regarding non-depolarising muscle relaxants
a. Pancuronium is eliminated via the kidney
b. Roacuronium is an isoquinolone derivative
c. Roacuronium undergoes Hoffman elimination
d. Vecuronium is eliminated predominantly via the kidney
e. Atracurium is eliminated via plasma pseudocholinestera

a

30

16. Which of the following is a direct serotonin agonist
a. Fluoxetine
b. Amitriptylline
c. Moclobemide
d. Ondansetron
e. Sumatriptan

e