Neuro/Sedation Flashcards

1
Q

What is a sudden interruption of arterial or venous blood flow to a focal region of the brain?

A

Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the third line therapy for seizure control?

A

If lasting 40 is 60 minutes repeat dosing of second line, then anesthetic dose of versed, propofol, or pentobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What diagnostics tool shows abnormality in 90% of encephalitis cases?

A

EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What kind of seizure results in a sudden loss of tone?

A

A tonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When can children return to activities after traumatic brain injury?

A

Went at pre-morbid state and symptom-free at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What neurologic problem is a progressive and symmetrical with ascending paralysis progressive neuromuscular weakness?

A

Guillain-Barre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are three kinds of shunts used to help with hydrocephalus?

A

VP or ventricular pleural, VA or ventricular atrial, VG ventricular gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the best radiographic view for viewing C1?

A

Udontoid view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some post-operative complications of craniosynostosis surgery?

A

Pain, bleeding, s i a d h, bradycardia, facial edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are signs of botulism in infants?

A

Constipation, hypertonia, listlessness, dysphagia, weak cry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is initial therapy for seizure control?

A

In the 5 to 20 minutes after the seizure starts give benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Mallampati score?

A

Score that describes ability to visualize the pharynx one and two are safest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bleeding inside or around the ventricles of the brain?

A

Introventricular hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the opening pressure of an LP in pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Greater than 280

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a common cause of encephalitis and neonates?

A

Herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can an MRI identify?

A

Ischemia or infarcts, degenerative diseases, congenital anomalies, AV malformations, posterior fossa or spinal cord lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are children more prone to s c i w o r a?

A

They have cartilaginous end plates with wax interspinous ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What medications used to treat delirium?

A

Haldol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the second line therapy in status epilepticus?

A

If lasting 20 to 40 minutes give keppra fosfone, valpo weight or phenobarbital as a last choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What will a CT scan of a hydrocephalus patient show?

A

Ventricular magnolia, macrocephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a brief but widespread inflammation of the brain and spinal cord that damages the myelin usually following a bacterial or viral illness?

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two most common presenting signs of neurofibromatosis?

A

Lisch nodules and cafe au lait spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is p r e s most often seen?

A

In oncologic, transplant, dialysis patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Or the three types of delirium?

A

Hyperactive, hypoactive, mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What imaging should be used to diagnose hydrocephalus?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ischemia, cell death, cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure is primary or secondary brain trauma?

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a typical sign of shunt complications?

A

Wi’ll go back to pre-shunt functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If concerned for high ICP what should be performed prior to a lumbar puncture?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some other presenting factors of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Infants with seizures or cardiac rhabdomyomas and seizures

30
Q

What is the most common sight of the lumbar puncture?

A

Between l4 and l5 or one space above or one space below

31
Q

What are two sedation scores?

A

State behavioral score and Richmond agitation scoring system

32
Q

Is an intracranial contusion, hemorrhage, or diffuse external injury the primary or secondary injury?

A

Primary

33
Q

Is the most common presenting symptom in pediatrics of posterial reversible encephalopathy syndrome?

A

Seizures

34
Q

What is the diagnostic and treatment for pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Lumber puncture

35
Q

What is the scoring method used to screen for delirium?

A

Pediatric confusion assessment method or P-CAM

36
Q

What kind of seizure originates in one hemisphere?

A

Focal

37
Q

What is the mnemonic used to determine if safe to sedate?

A

AMPLE

Allergies
Medications
Past illnesses
Last oral intake
Events leading up to injury

38
Q

On a spinal cord injury impairment scale what is the best and worst category?

A

Best is category E where sensory and motor function is preserved

Worst is category A where there is no sensory or motor function preserved before S4 or S5

39
Q

What kind of seizure affects bilateral hemispheres of the brain?

A

Generalized

40
Q

When using an MRI to evaluate seizures what are the advantages?

A

Eliminates radiation exposure, higher resolution and differentiation of gray and white matter, higher resolution of skull base and orbits

41
Q

Bleeding within the brain tissue is what kind of hemorrhage?

A

Intraparenchymal

42
Q

What defines status epilepticus?

A

Single seizure lasting longer than 30 minutes or two or more consecutive seizures without returning to baseline level of consciousness

43
Q

What can a CT identify?

A

Bony abnormalities, intracranial hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, cerebral edema, space occupying lesions and calcifications

44
Q

What screening tool is used to test for traumatic brain injury during sporting events?

A

Scat 5

45
Q

What is a motor impairment resulting from neurological insult?

A

Cerebral palsy

46
Q

What is the PACARN or CHALICE criteria used for?

A

To decide whether or not to do a CT scan

47
Q

When does the child was seizures need to be seen in the ear?

A

Last greater than 5 minutes, head injury, high fever, compromised cardiac function

48
Q

What kind of seizure causes rhythmic or repetitive movements?

A

Chronic

49
Q

What is the gold standard study to diagnose an arteriovenous malformation?

A

Cerebral angiography

50
Q

What is an autosomal dominant disorder that develops benign tumors in the brain skin and kidneys?

A

Tuberous sclerosis complex

51
Q

What are some features of tuberous sclerosis complex?

A

Hypomelanotic fibromas, cortical tubers, facial angiofibromas, lymphangioleiomyomatosis

52
Q

Where do the tumors in neurofibromatosis present?

A

Brain, spine, skin, eyes

53
Q

What should we watch for after a lumbar puncture?

A

CSF leak, headache, lower extremity sensory changes, hematoma at the site

54
Q

What neurological problem is progressive, symmetrical with proximal weakness and has a genetic link?

A

Muscular dystrophy

55
Q

When using a CT scan to evaluate seizures what are the advantages?

A

Sensitive to presence of blood, bones, lesions

Can be done quickly

Fluid changes can be seen such as hydrocephalus or cerebral edema

56
Q

What kind of seizure causes sustained extension reflection of head trunk or extremities?

A

Tonic

57
Q

How does a shunt infection present?

A

Can be meningitis like

58
Q

What are the essential findings of brain death?

A

Coma, apnea, absence of brain stem reflexes

59
Q

What syndromes are associated with craniosynostosis?

A

Aperts, cruizzon, Pierre Robin, Turner, Vader, dandy Walker

60
Q

Which is the most severe and early onset form of SMA?

A

Type 1

61
Q

Tearing of small vessels in the pia matter is what kind of hemorrhage?

A

Subarachnoid

62
Q

What is the most common age for a febrile seizure to occur?

A

Between 6.and 60 months

63
Q

What brain abnormalities are associated with craniosynostosis?

A

Hide yourself list, chiari malformation, increased ICP, vision problems, hearing loss

64
Q

What injury are children with down syndrome prone to and why?

A

They are prone to arlanto axial subluxation after acute flexion injury due to atlanto axial instability

65
Q

Preaching vein rupture that may cross sutureline but not midline and is typically a counter coup injury is what kind of hemorrhage?

A

Subdural

66
Q

Injury to the middle meningeal artery or vein is what kind of hemorrhage? That does not cross the suture line

A

Epidural

67
Q

What sedative agents are related to delirium?

A

Benzos, propofol, can mean, opioids

68
Q

What is a skin feature of tuberous sclerosis complex?

A

Ashley’s spots

69
Q

What is a SCIWORA?

A

Spinal cord injury without radiological abnormality

70
Q

What are some common causes of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy?

A

Birth trauma, submergent injury, is fixation, accidents, prolonged resuscitation

71
Q

What are symptoms of delirium?

A

Impaired consciousness, impaired awareness, unable to focus, sleepwalk cycle abnormalities, thought processes disturbances, behavioral issues