neuro trivia Flashcards
(370 cards)
1
Q
The inverted omega controls motor to what body part? What sulcus?
A
hand
central sulcus
2
Q
ACA controls what body parts? MCA?
A
ACA = legs
MCA = everything else
3
Q
Do perivascular spaces contain CSF or interstitial fluid?
A
interstitial fluid
4
Q
What foramen looks like a gun barrel on coronals?
A
FR
5
Q
WHat foramen looks like a footprint?
A
ovale
6
Q
WHat foramen looks like a footprint?
A
ovale
7
Q
WHat foramen looks like a heel print?
A
spinosum
8
Q
What are the two components of the jugular foramen?
A
pars nervosa
pars vascularis
9
Q
Which is anterior/lateral, pars nervosa or jugularis?
A
pars nervosa is anterior/lateral
10
Q
What does the pars nervosa contain?
A
CN 9 and jacobsons nerve
11
Q
What nerves are in the pars vascularis?
A
CN 10 and 11
12
Q
What nerves run in the cavernous sinus?
A
CN3
CN4
V1
V2
CN 6
13
Q
What vessel run in the cavernous sinus?
A
carotid
14
Q
What nerve in the cavernous sinus runs next to the carotid?
A
CN 6
15
Q
What nerves are contained in superior orbital fissure?
A
CN3, CN4, V1 and CN6
16
Q
What nerves are contained in inferior orbital fissure?
A
V2
17
Q
What anatomical structure is contained in Dorello’s canal?
A
abducens
18
Q
What is the mnemonic for the branching of the external carotid artery?
A
Some Admins Love Fucking Over Poor Medical Students
19
Q
Is flow reversal in the carotid bulb normal or abnormal?
A
normal
20
Q
Which branch of the ICA can have a retropharyngeal course?
A
cervical
21
Q
ANeurysms of what ICA branch are associated with HTN?
A
cavernous
22
Q
Persistent trigeminal artery connects which two vessels?
A
cavernous ICA to basilar
23
Q
Persistent trigeminal increases the risk of developing what type of vascular abnormality?
A
branch point aneurysm
24
Q
What sinus connects the ISS to the midline transverse sinus?
A
straight sinus
25
What sinus drains into the juncture of the ISS and straight sinus?
vein of Galen
26
What two structures drain into the vein of galen?
internal cerebral veins
basal veins of rosenthal
27
Which vein drains the cavernous sinus into the transverse sinus?
superior petrosal vein
28
Which vein drains the cavernous sinus into the IJ?
inferior petrosal vein
29
What two veins are connected by the vein of trolard?
superficial middle cerebral vein to SSS
30
What two veins are connected by the vein of labbe?
SMCV to transverse sinus
31
Which CN can get stretched in the brainstem herniates inferiorly?
CN6
32
What two structures are normally myelinated at birch?
brainsteam
posterior limb of internal capsule
33
What two directions does brain myelination occur in?
inferior --> superior
posterior --> anterior
34
What pituitary lobes are T1 hyperintense at birth?
both
35
What pituitary lobes are T1 hyperintense at birth?
both
36
What two sinuses are present at birth?
maxillary and ethmoid
37
What is the last sinus to develop?
frontal
38
Does the corpus callosum myelinate from front to back or back to front? What is the last structure to be myelinated/form?
front to back
rostrum
39
What is colpocephaly? What condition is it associated with?
dilated occipital horns of lateral ventricles
agenesis of splenium of corpus callosum
40
What intracranial lesion is associated with agenesis of the corpus callosum?
intra-cranial lipoma
41
Will anencephaly have oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios?
poly (can't swallow without brain)
42
What lab will be elevated with anencephaly?
AFP
43
What is iniencephaly?
neural tube defect at the level of the cervical spine
44
What are the components of the Dandy Walker malformation?
1. Vermian hypoplasia
2. enlarged/cystic 4th ventricle
3. torcula above lambdoid
45
What is the term for a fused cerebellum?
rhomboencephalosynapsis
46
What is elongated during joubert syndrome?
superior cerebellar peduncles
47
What three conditions are associated with Joubert syndrome?
retinitis pigmentosa
liver fibrosis
multicystic dysplastic kidneys
48
What is the definition of mega cisterna magna?
"cystic dilation of the retro-cerebellar CSF space"
49
What is the definition of blake pouch?
"sac like protrusion of CSF through foramen of magendie into the posterior fossa"
50
What is a blake pouch associated with?
hydro
51
At what week of gestation is vermis/vermian development complete?
18 weeks
52
Does the brain cleave/divide from front to back or back to front?
back to front
53
Where are the cerebral hemispheres fused during lobar holoprosencephaly?
frontal lobes
54
Where are the cerebral hemispheres fused during lobar holoprosencephaly?
frontal lobes
55
Will the thalamus be fused or separated during lobar holoprosencephaly?
separated
56
With semi-lobar HPE, which lobes are fused? How much?
frontal
> 50%
57
What is arhineencephaly?
congenital anosmia
58
What is arhineencephaly?
congenital anosmia
59
What are the three components of meckel gruber syndrome?
1. occipital encephalocele
2. multiple renal cysts
3. poly-dactyl
60
What structures are absent or hypoplastic in septo-optic dyaplasia?
hypoplastic optic structures
absent septum pellucidum
61
What cleavage problem is septo-optic dysplasia associated with?
schizencephaly
62
What does hemi-megalencephaly look like?
unilateral cerebral hemisphere and lateral ventricle enlargement
63
What does Rasmussen Encephalitis look like?
atrophic cerebral hemisphere and enlarged lateral ventricle
64
What condition is associated with lissencephaly?
colpocephlay
65
What is band heterotopia associated with?
seizures
66
Type 2 Lissencephaly features what finding? Where? Why?
gray matter nodules
usually located near sylvian fissures
over migration of neurons
66
Type 2 Lissencephaly features what finding? Where?
gray matter nodules
usually located near sylvian fissures
67
What two conditions is Type 2 Lissencephaly associated with?
retinal detachment
muscular dystrophy
68
Periventricular Nodular Heterotopia is associated with what neurological condition?
seizures
69
Do heterotopias enhance?
no
70
What virus is responsible for south american PMG?
zika
71
Does porencephlaic cyst have a gray matter lining? What is it?
no
encephalomalacia
72
What three structures will be present with hydranencephaly?
1. midbrain
2. falx
3. cerebellum
73
Will alobar HPE have a falx?
no
74
Will semi-lobar HPE have a falx?
usually not
75
All types of chiari malformation share what feature?
downward displaced cerebellum
76
What needs to be screen for with a type 1 chiari?
cervical cord syrinx
77
In addition to tonsillar herniation, what are the four classic features of Type 2 Chiari?
tectal beaking
low torcula
hydro
clival hypoplasia
78
Other than a cervical cord syrinx, what cervical spine abnormality is associated with Chiari I?
klippel feil
79
A type III chiari has the features of a type 2 chiari and what else?
occipital encephalocele
80
What are the three typical findings for mesial temporal sclerosis?
1. reduced hippocampal volume
2. increased T2 signal
3. loss of morphology
81
what is the name of the brain volume hypothesis?
Monro-Kellie
82
What is the best sign for CSF shunt infection?
debris in ventricles
83
Does cytotoxic edema favor the grey or WM?
grey
84
Does vasogenic edema favor the grey or WM?
WM
85
Duret Hemorrhages are caused by what vessel?
"perforating basilar artery branches"
86
What is Kernohans Notch?
midbrain indentation on tentorium
87
What part of the pons is affected by demyelination?
central
88
What does Wernicke Encephalopathy look like on FLAIR?
T2 bright, medial thalamus
89
What can enhance with Wernicke Encephalopathy?
Mamillary bodies
90
What does Marchiafava-Bignami look like on MRI?
T2 bright and swollen corpus callosum
91
Chronic Marchiafava-Bignami can have cystic lesions where?
genu and splenium of corpus callosum
92
What part of the cerebellum atrophies with alcoholic use?
vermian
93
What can the basal ganglia look like with liver disease? What elements are deposited?
T1 bright basal ganglia
copper and/or manganese
94
What are the three classical findings of methanol toxicity?
1. optic nerve atrophy
2. putamen hemorrhage
3. WM necrosis
95
What is medial, the putamen or globus pallidus?
GP
96
CO poisoning hit what part of the brain?
globus pallidus
97
Whole brain radiation can cause what sequela?
cavernous malformation
98
Post-XRT meningiomas occur at what time frame after therapy?
15 years
99
FLAIR or T2 for infra-tentorial MS lesions?
T2
100
What type of WM disease does not effect the callosal-septal interface?
ADEM
101
What is another name for NMO?
Devic's Disease
102
What is another name for Hurst Disease?
Acute Hemorrhagic Leukoencephalitis
103
What is another name for Binswanger's Disease?
subcortical arteriosclerotic encephalopathy
104
Does Binswangers/SAE effect GM, WM or both? Where specifically?
WM only
centrum semiovale
105
Binswangers in a patient under 40 should make you think of what disease?
CADASIL
106
What do CADASIL pt's usually present with?
migraines
107
What lobe is classically effected during CADASIL?
temporal
108
What lobe is classically UN-effected during CADASIL?
occipital
109
Where will Alzheimer Disease display low FDG uptake?
posterior temporal/parietal lobes
110
What kind of hallucinations with Lewy Body Dementia?
visual
111
What comes first with lewy body dementia, parkinsonian features or dementia?
dementia
112
Are the hippocampi normal in lewy body dementia?
yes
113
What lobes are atrophied with Picks?
bi-frontal, symmetric
114
What lobes have decreased FDG uptake in Lewy body dementia?
lateral occipital
115
Where does Pick's Disease have low FDG avidity in the brain?
frontal and temporal lobes
116
Where does Pick's Disease have low FDG avidity in the brain?
frontal and temporal lobes
117
What part of brain is spared in lewy body dementia in regard to FDG avidity?
cingulate gyrus
118
What part of the basal ganglia is affected by Fahr disease first?
globus pallidus
119
What is the pathophysiology of Hallervorden Spatz disease?
iron deposition in the globus pallidus
120
What is the pathophysiology of Leigh Disease?
mitochondrial disorder
121
What does Leigh Disease look like on MRI?
T2 bright basal ganglia, brainstem and peduncles
122
Where does MELAS produce strokes?
gray matter of parietal/occipital
123
What suture is "beaked" in Hurler Disease?
metopic
124
What is enlarged in the brain with hurler syndrome?
peri-vascular spaces
125
What is the radiotracer for a DAT scan?
Ioflupane-123
126
What should the caudate look like on a normal DAT scan?
comma
127
What two structures are preserved in PSP (?) that are otherwise abnormal in parkinsonian diseases?
Midbrain
superior cerebellalar peduncles
128
What two parts of the brain are atrophhied during MSA?
pons
cerebellar peduncles
129
What atrophies during during Progressive Supranuclear Palsy?
Tegmentum
130
What does Wilson disease look like on MR?
T2 bright tegmentum
131
DBS leads need to be less than what distance from the midline?
< 9mm
132
What does PPM mean in regards to MRS?
one millionth of a larmor frequency
133
In regards to MRS, lipids are a marker of what?
brain necrosis
134
What two conditions feature an increased lactate peak?
anaerobic metabolism
cerebral abscess
135
When is it normal to see an elevated lactate peak?
first hours of life
136
What two peaks can superimpose of themselves?
lactate and lipids
137
What is an NAA a marker of?
neuronal viability
138
When is glutamine increased?
hepatic encephalopathy
139
When is creatinine decreased?
tumor necrosis
140
What is choline a marker for?
cell membrane turnover
141
ALD WM changes dominate in which two lobes ?
parietal and occipital
142
Which leukodystrophy can extend across the splenium?
ALD
143
What structure is spared during metachromatic leukodystrophy?
U-fibers
144
What structure is spared during metachromatic leukodystrophy?
U-fibers
145
WHat is the location of WM abnormality with metachromatic leukodystrophy?
peri-ventricular
146
What is the location of WM abnormality with alexander disease?
frontal
147
What is the location of WM abnormality with canavan disease?
bilateral, diffuse, U-fiber
148
What leukodystrophy has high attenuating foci in the deep brain structures?
krabbe disease
149
What is another name for Leigh Disease?
Subacute Necrotizing Encephalo-Myelopathy
150
What are the two low grade enhancing primary CNS malignancies?
ganglioglioma
pilocytic astrocytoma
151
What is the acronym for bleeding metastasis?
MRCT
(melanoma, renal, carcinoid, choriocarcinoma, thyroid
152
What are the two CNS neoplasms of NF1?
optic glioma
astrocytoma
153
What are the two neoplasms for T.S.?
subependymal tubers
SEGA
154
What is the mnemonic for cortically based tumors? Name them bitch.
PDOG
PXA, DNET, Oligodendroglioma, Ganglioglioma
155
What lobe is most often involved with a PXA? What do they look like?
temporal
cyst with mural nodule
156
What other CNS neoplasm looks just like a PXA?
D.I.G.
157
How does DNET present?
kid with intractable seizures
158
What is one word to describe DNET?
"Bubbly"
159
What is one word to describe DNET? Located where?
"Bubbly"
temporal lobe
160
Bright rim sign is indicative of what CNS neoplasm? What sequence?
DNET
FLAIR
161
What does oligodendroglioma do 90% of time?
calcify bitch
162
What lobe is oligodendroglioma most often found in?
frontal
163
What is the "anything goes" tumor?
Ganglioglioma
164
Do medulloblastoma or ependymoma arise from the FLOOR of the 4th ventricle?
ependymoma
165
Do medulloblastoma or ependymoma arise from the ROOF of the 4th ventricle?
medullo
166
Where do SEGA arise?
lateral wall of lateral ventricle near foramen of monroe
167
Is a subependymoma within the lateral ventricles more of an adult or pediatric presentation?
adult
168
What is the most common ventricular CNS malignancy in adults? What do these malignancies often do?
central neurocytoma
calcify
169
Where will a choroid plexus in an adult be?
4th ventricle
170
What is the name for the benign choroid plexus mass? What do they do on MR?
xanthogranuloma
restrict
171
What is the most common ventricular location for metastasis? Why?
trigone of lateral ventricle
blood supply
172
What is the most common ventricular location for metastasis? Why?
trigone of lateral ventricle
blood supply
173
What benign ventricular lesion can cause sudden/acute hydro?
colloid cyst
174
Vestibular schwannomas should make you think what disease?
NF2
175
What can a vestibular schwannoma widen?
porus acousticus
176
Which CPA mass can invade the internal auditory canal, meningioma or schwannoma?
schwannoma
177
An LP can contribute to what acquired lesion?
epidermoid
178
Where are dermoid cysts usually located?
midline
179
What condition are dermoid cysts associated with?
NF2
180
A ruptured dermoid can cause what?
chemical meningitis
181
Dermoids behave like what substance?
fat
182
What will calcify, ATRT or medulloblastoma?
ATRT
183
"Increased head Circumference" is associated with what pediatric CNS malignancy?
ATRT
184
What are the two locations for a JPA?
posterior fossa
optic chiasm
185
What genetic mutation does an oligodendroglioma have?
1p/19q deletion
186
T2/FLAIR mismatch is seen with what two CNS malignancies?
Grade 2 and 3 astrocytoma
187
What is the radiotracer for CNS lymphoma?
thallium
188
What is the differential for periventricular/ependymal enhancement?
CMV
Lymphoma
189
"Rapidly increasing head circumference" is indicative of what CNS malignancy?
DIG (diffuse infantile ganglioglioma)
190
What do DIGs look like on imaging?
big cystic lesions
191
When do DIGs usually present by?
first birthday
192
What is the most common vertebral body location for a chordoma?
C2
193
A soft tissue sarcoma that can mimmic the appearance of a meningioma is called what?
hemangiopericytoma
194
What can hemangiopericytomas invade?
skull
195
What is the most common dural met primary ?
breast
196
A macroadenoma is bigger than what size?
> 1 cm
197
Do pituitary adenomas enhance more or less than the normal pituitary?
less
198
Where are rathke cleft cysts usually located?
between anterior and posterior pituitary
199
What type of craniopharyngioma is seen in adults?
papillary
200
What type of craniopharyngioma is seen in kids?
adamantinoma
201
What type of craniopharyngioma is calcified?
adamantinoma type
202
Where does a hypothalamic hamartoma occur?
tuber cinereum
203
Are pineal germinomas seen exclusively in boys or girls?
boys
204
What are the two components of the pineal germinoma?
fat and calcs
205
What pineal gland malignancy is associated with retinoblastoma?
pineal-blastoma
206
What is Lhermitte-Duclos syndrome? What do these lesions represent? What is needed next?
dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma
hamartoma
cowden syndrome --> breast cancer --> mammogram
207
What is the MRS marker for a glioma?
NAA
208
What is the MRS marker for a meningioma?
alanine
209
What infection is associated with periventricular calcifications?
CMV
210
What congenital infection has the highest association with polymicrogyria?
CMV
211
Calcifications from what neonatal infection target the basal ganglia?
toxo
212
What neonatal infection is associated with hydro?
toxo
213
What does HSV encephalitis look like?
deep white matter T2 hyperintense
214
Does HSV encephalitis effect the subcortical U fibers?
no
215
Does PML effect the subcortical U fibers?
yes
216
What is the most common presentation for CNS cryptococcus in an AIDS patient?
increased perivascular spaces with gelatinous crap
217
What is the most common presentation for CNS cryptococcus in an AIDS patient?
dilated perivascular spaces with gelatinous crap
218
Where do cryptococcomas tend to occur?
basal ganglia
219
Is toxo thallium hot or cold?
cold
220
Is lymphoma thallium hot or cold?
hot
221
TB meningitis has a predilection to involve what structures?
basal cisterns
222
HSV encephalitis does not effect what structure? What does this exclude it from?
basal ganglia
proximal MCA stroke
223
What is the earliest finding on MR of HSV encephalitis?
diffusion restriction
224
What syndrome can mimmic HSV encephalitis? What type of syndrome is this considered?
Limbic encephalitis
paraneoplastic
225
What does West Nile look like on imaging?
T2 bright basal ganglia and thalamus
226
Will West Nile Encephalitis restrict?
yes
227
What neuro-degenerative disease can cause rapidly progressing cerebral atrophy?
CJD
228
What can infants get in regards to meningitis/cerebral abscess that adults often dont?
"Sterile, Reactive, Subdurals"
229
Where is Grade 1 DAI located?
grey/white junction
230
Where is Grade 2 DAI located?
corpus callosum
231
Where is Grade 3 DAI located?
brainstem
232
What is the time frame for blood to be hypoattenuating on CT?
less than one hour
233
What is the baby sound mnemonic?
IB
ID
BD
BB
DD
234
What are the five time points for the baby sound mnemonic?
< 24 hours
1-3 days
> 3 days
> 7 days
> 14 days
235
What can cause a fake out for SAH on FLAIR imaging?
supplemental O2
236
What are the two classic symptoms of superficial siderosis?
sensorineural hearing loss
ataxia
237
What is the most common location for hypertensive hemorrhage in the deep brain?
putamen
238
What CNS vascular territory is most susceptible to mycotic aneurysms?
distal MCAs
239
Water shed infarcts in a kid should make you think what disease?
Moya Moya
240
What part of MCA vascular territory is most susceptible to infarction? Why?
insular cortex
least amenable to collaterals
241
What are the rule of three regarding post-infarct enhancement?
- starts at 3 days
- peaks by 3 weeks
- gone by 3 months
242
Define fogging. When does it start?
when infarcted brain looks normal
around 14 days
243
Where would an artery of percheron infarct manifest?
bilateral, paramedian, thalami
244
Where would an artery of huebner infarct manifest?
caudate
245
Where does artery of huebner arise?
proximal ACA
246
What has a higher risk of hemorrhagic conversion, arterial or venous infarct?
venous infarct
247
ASPECTS can only be used for what vascular territory?
MCA
248
What is the definition of MTT?
CBV/CBF
249
What is the definition of a blister aneurysm? Where are these most often found?
broad based bulge at non-branch point
supraclinoid ICA
250
What is a pedicle aneurysm?
AVM feeding vessel aneurysm
251
Pineal calcifications under what age may raise the question of neoplasm?
seven
252
Extensive dural calcs plus what other finding may make one think of gorlin syndrome?
odontogenic keratocysts
253
Calcified subependymal nodules at what two locations are typical for TS?
atria of lateral ventricles
caudothalamic groove
254
What is the pathophysiology of tram track calcs during sturge weber?
"pial angiomatosis leading to subcortical ischemia"
255
The crescent sign is indicative of what?
dissection
256
What genetic disease can be associated with moya moya?
sickle cell
257
Contralateral cerebral hemisphere and cerebellar hemisphere abnormalities are called what? Is the abnormality in the cerebrum or cerebellum?
crossed cerebellar diaschisis
cerebrum
258
What is LeFort 1?
separation of maxilla
259
What is LeFort 2?
maxilla separated from face
260
What is LeFort 3?
face separated from cranium
261
What is superior, the pars flaccida or pars tensa?
pars flaccida
262
What middle ear bone is the first to be involved with an acquired cholesteatoma?
long process of incus
263
What semicircular canal is move often involved with a cholesteatoma causing perilymphatiuc fistula? What is air called in the semicircular canals?
lateral semicircular canal
pneumolabyrinth
264
What is ossification of the membranous labyrinth called?
labyrinthitis ossificans
265
Regarding the inner ear, what is a contraindication for a cochlear implant?
calcification of the cochlea
266
Noise induced vertigo should make you think of what disease?
superior semicircular canal dehiscence
267
The vestibular aqueduct should never be bigger than what adjacent structure?
posterior semi-circular canal
268
How does an enlarged vestibular aqueduct present?
progressive sensorineural hearing loss
269
When is the insult with Michel's aplasia?
3rd week
270
When is the insult with Mondini aplasia?
7th week
271
What is preserved with Mondini aplasia?
high frequency
272
Endolymphatic sac tumor is associated with what genetic disease?
VHL
273
What is the most common cause of apical petrositis?
oto-mastoiditis
274
What foramen can get compressed with apical petrositis? What nerve compressed?
dorello canal
CN 6
275
What will a cholesterol granuloma look like on MR?
T1 and T2 bright lesion
276
Does a cholesterol granuloma restrict?
no bitch
277
Does fibrous dysplasia favor the inner or outer table?
inner
278
Is allergic fungal sinusitis hyperdense or hypodense? Why?
hyper
metals
279
Is acute invasive fungal sinusitis hyperdense or hypodense?
HYPO-dense
280
Will allergic fungal sinusitis enhance?
no
281
What foramen is a JNA centered?
spheno-palatine foramen
282
What malignancy can be harbored within an inverted papilloma? How often?
SCC
10%
283
What is the most common location for an SNUC?
maxillary sinus antrum
284
What artery is the main branch for a posterior nose bleed?
sphenopalatine
285
What is the eponym for the submandibular duct?
Whartons duct
286
What is the eponym for the sublingual duct?
rivinus
287
What is the eponym for the parotid duct?
stenson
288
What line separates the sublingual from submandibular space?
mylohyoid
289
Osteonecrosis of the mandible can be seen with what two conditions?
radiation
bisphosphonates
290
What space is a ranula in? Called 'plunging' when it passes under what?
sublingual
mylohyoid
291
What do ameloblastomas do to teeth roots?
absorb
292
What parotid tumor is cystic?
warthin
293
Smoking is a risk factor for what parotid tumor?
Warthin
294
What disease has a 'YUGE' increased risk of developing parotid lymphoma?
sjogrens
295
What are the three tumors that can occupy the carotid space?
paraganglioma/glomus
schwannoma
neurofibroma
296
What is the radiotracer for glomus tumor?
In-111- octreotide
297
Where is a glomus vagale located?
below jugular foramen
above carotid bifurcation
298
Which carotid space tumor can have a cystic/solid component?
schwannoma
299
What carotid space tumor can display a target sign on T2 weighted sequences?
neurofibroma
300
What is grisel syndrome?
torticollis with AA subluxation/laxity and recent ENT surgery or retropharyngeal ascess
301
What is the most common cause of masticator space mass?
infection
302
What are the retropharyngeal lymph nodes called? When do they regress?
Nodes of Rouvier
around age 4
303
What muscle separates 1B from 2A lymph nodes?
stylohyoid
304
What separates level 2 nodes from level 3 nodes vertically?
305
What separates level 2 nodes from level 3 nodes vertically?
hyoid
306
What separates level 3 nodes from level 4 nodes vertically?
cricoid
307
Where is the most common location for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
fossa of rosenmuller
308
Where are the first nodes involved for a nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
retropharyngeal
309
What is Coats Disease? What complication can be seen? Does it calcify?
retinal telangiectasia
retinal detachment
no
310
Does Coats disease have an enlarged, normal or small globe?
small
311
What is the pathophysiology of Persistent Hyperplastic Primary Vitreous?
"failure of embryonic ocular blood supply to regress"
312
What is the feared complication of PHPV?
retinal detachment
313
Does PHPV have a small or large eye?
small
314
Where does ocular melanoma like to met?
liver
315
Bilateral optic nerve glioma should make you think of what disease?
NF1
316
Optic Nerve Glioma are most often what type of tumor?
pilocytic astrocytoma
317
Tram Track calcs around the optic nerve shiould make you think what type of malignancy?
Meningioma
318
What is the most common benign orbital mass?
Dermoid
319
Malt lymphoma of the orbit is associated with what?
chlamydia
320
What tumor can cause peri-orbital tumor infiltration associated with proptosis?
metastatic neuroblastoma
321
What malignancy can unilaterally hit the greater wing of the sphenoid?
Ewing
322
What can a breast cancer met to the eye cause?
What type of breast cancer?
desmoplastic reaction and enophthalmos
scirrhous
323
Orbital pseudotumor most commonly involves what muscle?
lateral rectus
324
Does orbital pseudotumor affect the myotendinous insertion?
yes
325
Is orbital pseudotumor T2 bright or dark?
dark
326
What is Tolosa Hunt?
Orbital pseudotumor of the cavernous sinus
327
How does Tolosa Hunt present?
multiple cranial nerve abnormalities
328
Is graves exopthalmos painful?
no
329
Does graves spare the myotendinous insertion?
yes
330
What pituitary abnormality has a T2 dark rim?
lymphocytic hypophysitis
331
What orbital lesion has fluid/fluid levels?
lymphangioma
332
Where does the orbital septum originate?
"peri-osteum of the orbit"
333
What is the latin name for a displaced lens?
ectopia lentis
334
What is a coloboma?
any focal discontinuity of the globe
335
What levels does the artery of adamkiewics arise from?
T8-T11
336
What medication does one have to be on to be diagnosed with epidural lipomatosis?
steroids
337
Syndesmophytes represent ossification of what structure?
annulus fibrosis
338
Is a limbus vertebral body pathological? WHat causes it?
no
herniated nucleus pulposus
339
There can be enhancement up to what time point following back surgery?
6 weeks
340
What dens fracture type has the best prognosis for healing?
Type 3
341
What two types of dens fractures are unstable?
2 and 3
342
What is the pathophysiology of a Type 1 Dens fracture?
avulsion of alar ligament
343
What is a jefferson fracture?
anterior and posterior arch fractures OF C1
344
Is there a high or low incidence of cord injury with a jefferson fracture?
low
344
Is there a high or low incidence of cord injury with a jefferson fracture?
low
345
What does a jefferson fracture look like on coronal views?
lateral masses of C1 slid lateral to C2
346
Where is an orthotopic os odontoideum fused to?
dens
347
Where is an dystopic os odontoideum fused to?
clivus
348
What is a Hangmans fracture?
fracture through bilateral pars at C2
349
What is a Hangmans fracture?
fracture through bilateral pars at C2
350
In what cervical spine fracture is traction contraindicated?
hangman
351
Inverted hamburger sign is indicative of what injury?
perched/locked facets
352
Are perched/locked facets stable or unstable? Cord injury?
unstable
often cord injury
353
AA instability is seen with what three disease processes?
RA and JRA and Downs
354
What is the harris line rule of 12?
basion to dens and basion to posterior axial line should be less than 12 mm
355
What type of cord signal/damage is most severe?
hemorrhagic
356
What is the most common AVF/AVM? What percent?
Type 1 (Dural)
85%
357
What is Foix Alajouanine syndrome?
congestive (venous) myelopathy secondary to a dural AVF
358
What part of the cord is favored by ADEM?
dorsal white matter
359
How much of the cord is involved with transverse myelitis?
at least > 2/3
360
How much of the cord is involved with NMO?
usually full thickness
361
What entity can look very similar to SCID in the cord?
HIV vacuolar myelopathy
362
What will GBS/AIDP look like on MRI?
"enhancement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina"
363
What will CIDP look like on MRI?
thickened and enhancing cauda equina nerve roots
364
What is the differential for the three intradural spinal cord tumors?
astrocytoma
ependymoma
hemangioblastoma
365
What are the SIX VHL associated abnormalities/malignancies?
pheo
CNS hemangioblastoma
endolymphatic sac tumor
pancreatic cysts
pancreatic islet cell tumor
clear cell RCC
366
What structure do spinal cord schwannomas arise from?
dorsal root ganglion
367
Central necrosis and hemorrhage favors a spinal neurofibroma or schwannoma?
schwannoma
368
What does plexiform spinal neurofibroma look like?
bulky, multilevel enlarged nerves
