NeuroICU Board Review Question Book Flashcards
(164 cards)
1
Q
Treatment for cerebellar hemorrhage with clinical deterioration and evidence of brainstem compression (shift/herniation)?
A
Decompressive surgery
2
Q
ICH Score
A
GCS: 2: 3-4, 1: 5-12, 0: 13-15
ICH volume 30 or more: 1
IVH: yes:1
Age: 80 or older: 1
Infratentorial: yes: 1
Otherwise = 0
5 or 6 = 100% 30 day mortality
3
Q
Right middle cerebral artery stroke with ischemic cerebral edema and mass effect treament?
A
Decompressive hemicraniectomy
4
Q
Location of ischemia causing ipsilateral dilated pupil, contralateral hemiparesis (sometimes bilateral), and abnormal extensor posturing
A
Middle cerebral artery (can have transtentorial herniation)
5
Q
Kernohan Notch Phenomenon
A
Ipsilateral weakness to side of stroke,
“false localizer”
6
Q
Charles Bonnet Syndrome
A
Partial or severe blindness resulting in complex visual hallucinations
“Visual release hallucinations”
7
Q
Foster-Kennedy Syndrome
A
Frontal lobe masses
Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilledema
8
Q
Terson Syndrome
A
Intraocular hemorrhage associated with SAH
Usually associated with sudden aneurysm rupture
9
Q
Anton Syndrome
A
Cortical blindness/visual agnosia from bilateral occipital damage
Patients unaware of visual deficit and confabulate visual scenes
10
Q
Diagnosis of headache, blurred vision, seizures with severe hypertension with MRI with focal regions of confluent symmetric hemispheric vasogenic edema most commonly in occipital and parietal lobes?
A
Posterior reversible encephalopathic syndrome
Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome
11
Q
Presumed etiology of PRES
A
Failed autoregulation resulting in hyperperfusion and endothelial dysfunction/injury
12
Q
Conditions associated with PRES
A
Eclampsia
Renal failure
Sepsis
Autoimmune disorders
Transplantation
Immunosupprassive therapies: cyclosporine and tacrolimus
13
Q
Diagnosis
A
Posterior reversible encephalopathic syndrome - PRES
Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome
14
Q
Diagnosis: headache, seizures, temporal lobe hemorrahges or infarctions?
A
Thrombosis of the vein of Labbee
15
Q
Side effect of IV alteplase and who is at increased risk of developing this complication?
A
Angioedema
Patients taking ACE-inhibitors
16
Q
Treatment of IV alteplase angioedema?
A
Histamine antagonists: ranitidine and diphenhydramine
Corticosteroids
17
Q
Lemierre syndrome
A
Thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and bacteremia preceeded by recent oropharyngeal infection/abscess
18
Q
Type of stroke in Sickle Cell patients by age
A
<10 - ischemic
20-30 - hemorrhagic - ruptured cerebral aneurysm
>30 - ischemic
19
Q
Management of acute stroke in Sickle Cell patients
A
Thrombolytics and anticoagulation avoided but can be considered on a case-by-case basis
Exchange transfusion to lower % of sickle cell hb to 30% or less of total hemoglobin with total hb level 10 or less
20
Q
Factor associated with thrombosis of dural sinus and/or cerebral veins? How many have seizures? What is the treatment?
A
Hereditary or acquired thrombophilias
Inflammatory conditions
Transient conditions: pregnancy, puerperium, dehydration, parameningeal infection
Some meds: tamoxifen, steroids, IV Ig, OCP
Head trauma
40% have focal or generalized seizures
Anticoagulation
21
Q
Ischemic Stroke + Livedo reticularis diagnosis, pathology, etiology, Ab?
A
Sneddon syndrome
Rare noninflammatory thrombotic vasculopathy
Primary idiopathic or associated with primary autoimmune disorder: SLE, antiphospholipid antibody (up to 78% with these antibodies)
22
Q
Reversal agent for dabigatran
A
Idraucizumab
23
Q
Treatment/reversal of IV alteplase hemorrhagic conversion
A
Cryoprecipitate
24
Q
Rivaroxaban reversal agent
A
Andexanet alfaH
25
Heparin reversal agent
Protamine sulfate
26
Cerebral amyloid angiopathy etiology
beta-amyloid deposits in small arteries of the leptomeninges and cerebral cortex
MCC lobar intraparenchymal hemorrhage in elderly (esp alzheimers)
27
Severe thunderclap headache with or without other acute neurologic symptoms and diffuse segmental constriction of cerebral arteries diagnosis, can have hemorrhagic or ischemic strokes
Reversible cerebral vasoconstrictive syndrome
Convexity/sulcal SAH
Imaging: segmental constriction of cerebral arteries, normalizes within 3 months on imaging
Controversial: use of nimodipine, verapamil and/or magnesium
Recovery within days to weeks
28
Cerebral small-vessel arteriopathy (nonhypertensive) with subcortical infarcts with alopecia and spondylosis diagnosis
Cerebral autosomal recessive arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy (CARASIL)
Early adulthood onset
HTRA1 gene
29
CVA in 40's and 50's with migraines with subcortical infarcts diagnosis
Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcotial infarcts and leukoencephalopathy (CADASIL)
KRIT1 gene
Familial cerebral cavernous malformations
30
Fabry disease multation
GLA
31
Retinal vasculopathy with cerebral leukodystrophy mutation
TREX1
32
DAWN trial
Endovascular thrombectomy reduced poor outcome and disability in select patients up to 24 hours after ischemic stroke in patients with mismatch between clinical deficit and infarct volume (worse deficit then CVA volume would suggest)
33
Lindegaard ratio
Middle cerebral artery velocity / internal carotid artery velocity
Mean flow velocities >120 cm/s = abnormal
Ratio <3 = normal
>6 = distinguishes severe from moderate vasospasm
34
Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, neurologic symptoms, rneal failure and fever
Thrombocytopenic thrombotic purpura
ADAMTS13 activity reduced
Tx: plasma exchange transfusion
35
Most common segment involved in a spontaneous vertebral artery dissection
Distal V3 segment - relatively mobile and unfixed, susceptible to tearing with sudden motion and stretching
36
World Federation of Neurologic Surgeons Scale of SAH
GCS 15, no motor deficit = 1
13-14, no = 2
13-14, yes = 3
7-12, either = 4
3-6, either = 5
37
Hunt and Hess Scale for SAH
38
Who get screened for unruptured aneurysms?
Families with 2 first-degree relatives with know IA
Patients with a family history of IA
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Type IV Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Microcephalic osteodysplastic primordial dwarfism
Consider in patients with 1st degree relative and conditions with increased risk of IA - ex: coarctation of aorta or bicuspid aortic valve
39
Modified Fisher Scale
40
Rare complication of rTPA
Angioedema from activation of complement and kinin cascade from increased concentrations of plasmin especially in patients on ACEI
41
How is rTPA potentially neurotoxic?
Cross blood-brain barrier and increase ischemic injury via potentiation of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) -induced cell death and increase in NMDA-mediated intracellular calcium levels
42
Treatment of acute ischemic stroke under 4.5 hr from onset (NIHSS <25, <1/3 MCA involvement, no prior CVA and DM, any anticoagulant use)
IV r-tPA
43
Treatment of acute ischemic stroke under 8 hours from onset, with terminal carotid, MCA (M1 or M2) or basilar artery occlusion with <1/3 hemisphere territory infarcted with ability to perform arterial puncture within 8 hours from stroke onset)?
Intra-arterial prourokinase, r-tPA or mechanical clot extraction
44
Indications for IABP
* Acute congestive heart failure exacerbation with hypotension
* As prophylaxis or adjunct treatment in high risk percutaneous coronary intervention
* Myocardial infarction with decreased left ventricular function leading to hypotension
* Myocardial infarction with mechanical complications causing cardiogenic shock, i.e., acute mitral regurgitation due to papillary muscle rupture or ventricular septal rupture
* Low cardiac output state after coronary artery bypass grafting surgery
* As a bridge to definitive treatment in patients with any of the following conditions; intractable angina or myocardial ischemia, refractory heart failure, or intractable ventricular arrhythmias
45
Contraindications for IABP
* Uncontrolled sepsis
* Uncontrolled bleeding diathesis
* Moderate to severe aortic regurgitation
* An aortic aneurysm or aortic dissection
* Severe peripheral artery disease unless pretreated with stenting
46
Indications for ventricular assist device
* High-risk percutaneous intervention, there is no precise definition for high-risk percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and many factors should be taken into consideration like impaired LV function, left main stenosis, ostial stenoses, heavily calcified lesions, and cardiogenic shock.
* Acute myocardial infarction. Some patients with (STEMI) and non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) would benefit from circulatory support to unload the LV and improve the coronaries' perfusion; however, no evidence of the benefit of the mechanical circulatory support in decreasing the myocardial injury in the setting of acute occlusion.
* Cardiogenic shock and advanced heart failure stabilize critically ill patients and serve as a bridge to recovery, surgical, mechanical circulatory support, or transplant.[4]
Selected high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous aortic valvuloplasty or aortic valve replacement.[8]
* Patients with severe LV dysfunction undergoing electrophysiologic procedures as these high-risk patients will be intolerant to prolonged ventricular arrhythmia during the procedure.[9]
* Right ventricular failure using percutaneously inserted RVD. RECOVER RIGHT trial demonstrated the safety and the immediate hemodynamic stabilization in patients with acute RV failure.[6]
47
Contraindications to percutaneous inserted ventricular assist device
* Significant peripheral vascular disease
* Aortic stenosis (less than 1.5 cm) or insufficiency
* Ventricular septal defect. The percutaneously inserted LVD increases the left to right shunt significantly
* Left ventricular thrombus [3]
48
Inclusion criteria for extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation
* Age <70 years
* Cardiopulmonary arrest to first CPR <5 minutes
* Witnessed arrest
* Ventricular fibrillation (VF) or paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia (pVT) or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) as initial cardiac rhythm
* Recurrent VF or intermittent ROSC
* Absence of comorbidities like end-stage heart failure/chronic obstructive pulmonary disease/liver failure/end-stage renal failure or terminal irreversible illness
* No known aortic valve incompetence
49
Indications for VA ECMO
* VA ECMO is used to provide both respiratory and cardiac support.[15]
* Cardiac conditions with low cardiac output (cardiac index < 2L/min/m) and hypotension (systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg) despite inotropic and intra-aortic balloon pump support.
* Cardiogenic shock secondary to either acute coronary syndrome, refractory cardiac arrhythmia, sepsis leading to cardiac depression, myocarditis, pulmonary embolism, drug toxicity, cardiac trauma, anaphylaxis, acute decompensated heart failure, septic shock; where cardiac activity is compromised and unable to pump out the adequate blood to meet the body’s demand.
* Periprocedural for high-risk cardiac interventions
* Postoperative heart failure: Inability to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass after cardiac surgery; ECMO is very useful post-operatively to provide rest for the heart and helps in recovery after the surgery.
* Post heart transplant: after heart or lung-heart transplantation in cases of primary graft failure
* Bridge to long-term VAD support or bridge to heart/lung transplant.
50
Indications for VV ECMO
* VV ECMO is used for respiratory support in those who do not respond to mechanical ventilation or any acute potentially reversible respiratory failure.[15]
* Acute respiratory distress syndrome secondary to either severe bacterial or viral pneumonia, including COVID-19 or aspiration pneumonitis. ECMO bypasses the compromised activity of the lungs and maintains oxygenation and ventilation with the removal of CO2.[2]
* Covid-19 Severe Respiratory Failure: ARDS due to SARS-CoV-2 infection when prolonged mechanical ventilatory support fails. In some cases, when ventilation fails, ECMO support (venovenous ECMO) has been initiated.[5]
* Extracorporeal assistance to support lung in cases of airway obstruction, pulmonary contusion (barotrauma), smoke inhalation, drowning, air leak syndrome, hypercapnia, or hypoxic respiratory failure
* Status asthmaticus
* Massive hemoptysis or pulmonary hemorrhage
* Bridge to lung transplant
Support for lung resections in unstable patients.
51
Contraindications (absolute and relative) to ECMO
Absolute
* Unwitnessed cardiac arrest
* Prolonged CPR without adequate tissue perfusion
* Not a transplant or VAD support candidate
* Unrepaired aortic dissection
* Severe aortic regurgitation
* Unrecoverable severe brain injury
* Disseminated malignancy
* Severe organ dysfunction, for example, emphysema/cirrhosis/renal failure
* Peripheral vascular disease in cases of peripheral VA ECMO
* Lethal chromosomal abnormalities
* Pulmonary hypertension (mean pulmonary artery pressure >50 mmHg) or cardiogenic failure: VV ECMO is contraindicated
Relative
*Obesity
*Advanced age
* Pre-existing chronic illness with long term poor prognosis
* Prolonged mechanical ventilation >14 days
52
Neurologic Complications to LVAD
Ischemic stroke - most common neurologic complication
Hemorrhagic stroke
TIA
Generalized hypoxic-ischemic event
Mycotic aneurysms
Cerebral abscess
Seizures
Encephalopathy
53
Neurologic Complications to ECMO
ICH - SAH, IPH, SDH - most common neurologic complication
Ischemic stroke
Seizures
Hypoxic-ischemic brain injury
Brain death
Harlequin syndrome: LV starts to recover while lungs are poorly oxygenated
54
Management of pulmonary hypertension
Diuretics for fluid retention and right ventricular failure
ACE inhibitors, b-blockers, angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitors or ivabradine - NOT recommended for PAH unless other indications exist
Long term Oxygen if PaO2 <60
CCB - first line - amlodipine or nifedipine if bradycardic at baseline, dilt if tachy at baseline
Ambrisentan - endothilian receptro type A antagonist, bosentan and macitentan type A and type B
PDE type 5 inhibitors - sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil
Epoprostenol - prostacyclin analog
55
RTA diagnosis
Type 1 - impaired distal NH4 secretion, HCO3 <-15, low K, urine pH >5.5, + urine anion gap, common nephrocalcinosis
tx: correct electrolytes
Type 2 - reduced proximal HCO3 resorption, HCO3 -6 to -15, low-normal K+, urine pH <5.5 (increased urine HCO3), urine anion gap negative, rarely nephrocalcinosis
Tx: replace bicarb, citrate, potassium and sodium
Type 4 - decreased aldosterone secretion or resistance, HCO3 >15, high K+, urine pH <5.5, urine anion gap +, nephrocalcinosis: rare
tx: stop K+ retaining drugs, can give loop (lose K+) diuretics
56
FeNa calculation
AKI vs ATN
(Urine Na x Serum Cr) / (Serum Na x Urine Cr)
<1% = prerenal
>2% = ATN
Not accurate in mild AKI, AKI on CKD, recent diuretics
57
FeUrea calculation
AKI vs ATN
(Urine Urea x Serum Cr) / (Serum Urea x Urine Cr)
< 35% = prerenal
>35% = ATN
58
AIN vs ATN
AIN: allergic reaction causing interstitial inflammation, fever, rash, flank pain, arthralgia
ATN: no inflammation, kidney tubules
Bx for diagnosis
59
Renally eliminated anti-epileptic drugs
Levetiracetam
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Topiramate
Eslicarbazepine
Lacosamide
Vigabatrin
60
IMPACT and CRASH trial looked at what?
Steroids in TBI
61
When to intubate MG patients?
VC < 20 mL/kg
NIF < -30
Maximal expiratory pressure <40 cm H20 or >30% or more decline in measurements on serial testing
Some use: VC <15 mL/kg or NIF < -20
62
What is discontinued during a myasthenic crisis? What is given?
Pyridostigmine
Tx: Corticosteroids, IvIg and Plasmapheresis
63
Contraindications to IvIg
Renal failure
Hypercoagulable states
64
Contraindications to plasmapheresis
Sepsis due to hemodynamic issues and bacterial colonization of plasmapheresis catheter
65
OD of pyridostigmine can trigger what?
Cholinergic crisis in MG (generalized weakness, miosis, excess pulmonary secretions, muscle fasciculations, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, diaphoresis, bradycardia)
Tx: support, stop pyridostigmine, tx myasthenic crisis (steroids, IvIg, Plasmapheresis)
66
Neurologic complications of stem cell transplant
Drug-related toxicities: Immunosuppressive drugs can cause direct toxicity, such as posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES), or facilitate opportunistic infections.
Infections: Bacterial, fungal, viral, and protozoan pathogens can cause infectious complications.
Seizures
Encephalopathy
Neuropathy
Myopathy
Chronic graft-versus-host disease
Akinetic mutism
Osmotic demyelination
Multifocal cerebral infarction
Hemorrhage
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Post-transplant malignancies
67
HUS vs TTP
68
CSF normal, bacterial, viral, fungal
Bacterial: turbid, elevated opening pressure, most WBCs, low glucose
Viral: lymphocytes, low protein
Fungal: lowest WBC, high protein, normal or low glucose
69
Toxidromes
Pupils
*Dilated: antichol and symatho
*Pinpoint: cholingergic, opiods
HR-BP:
Up: antichol, sympath
Low: opoids, sed
Resp
Up: sympath
Low: opoid, sed
Temp:
Up: antichol, sympath
Low: opoid, sed
Bowel tones:
None: antichol, opoid, sed
Hyperactive: chol, sympath
Diaphoresis: chol, sympath
70
Serotonin syndrome versus neuroleptic malignant syndrome
71
Aneurysm that causes ptosis
PC Comm -> compression of CNIII
Pupillary involvement = pathognomonic for aneurysm (esp if >5 mm)
72
Terson's syndrome
Blindness from vitreous hemorrhage in setting of ICH with elevated ICP
73
Statin benefit in DCI
Decrease glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity
Moderates inflammatory response by upregulating CK
Increases NO levels
74
Abulia and LE motor deficits can occur in vasospasm of which artery?
Anterior Cerebral Artery
75
Aphasia and motor deficit of upper and lower extremities can occur in vasospasm of which artery?
MCA - can also cause temporal lobe seizures or hemiparesis
76
Is increased tone or hyporeflexia indicative of cerebral vasospasm?
Increased tone
77
In SAH, what is the relationship between vasospasm and location of blood?
SAH > 1mm = increased risk
Intraventricular and intracerebral hematoma does NOT increase risk of vasospasm
78
Systemic complications of SAH
Cardiac: stunned, neurogenic, takotsubo -> LV apical thrombus and death, elevated catecholamines -> myocardial contraction band necrosis -> LV dysfunction -> inc trop and BNP
EKG: ST elevation and depression, QT prolongation (not shortening), peaked or inverted T, large U, peaked P, pathologic Q, afib, aflutter and sinus bradycardia
Increased ICP -> hypothalamic injury and xs catecholamine release
79
SAH with aneurysm risk of rebleeding?
>1 cm
Poor neurologic presentation initially
Seizure at onset
Prevention: early intervention, antifibrinolytic therapy
80
Nitroprusside and ICP
Avoid
Dilated intracerebral venous and arterial vasculature causing elevated ICP
Unreliable dose-response profile
Rebound hypertnesion
Cyanide toxicity
81
Aneurysms that can cause bitemporal hemianopsia, homonomous hemianopsia and quadrantanopsia?
Opthalmic segment of carotid artery
Anterior communicating Artery
Caverous sinus
82
Aneurysm that can cause Horners
Cavernous segment of carotid artery (compresses postganglionic symathetic pathway)
83
Aneurysm that can cause exopthalmus
Carotid cavernous fistula with rupture into cavernous sinus
84
Posterior Circulation aneurysms can cause what?
Weber syndrome
Brainstem compression syndromes
CN III, and CN VI
Lower cranial nerve palsy
85
What symptoms can anterior communicating aneurysms cause?
Dementia
Abulia
Pituitary dysfunction
86
Theories of neurogenic pulmonary edema
Blast theory: sympathetic surge
Permeability theory: damage to capillary endothelium that contains alpha and beta receptors and edema
87
SAH blood in 3rd ventricle, suprasellar cistern and AComm aneurysms are associated with what electrolyte abnormality?
Hyponatremia (SIADH and CSW)
88
Fludrocortisone and hyponatremia
Refractory SIADH and CSW
89
Preferred drug to increase BP in cerebral vasospasm?
Phenylephrine
Caution in CAD, glaucoma and thyroid disease
SE: reflex bradycardia
90
Mechanism of mannitol's effect on ICP
Rheologic: alters RBC shape
91
Indications for OR for EDH
>30 cm3
Thickness >15 mm
Shift >5 mm
Pupillary anisocoria
92
Denver criteria
93
Seizure diagnosis
Lasts 5 min or more
2 or more with incomplete LOC recovery between
94
Calculation for phenytoin dose and valproic acid
(Target level - current corrected total level) x (dose weight x 0.8)
Valproic acid uses 0.4
95
3.0 to 3.5 Hz irregular generalized spike and wave or polyspike and wave diagnosis, precipitating drugs and what medication to avoid?
Absence seizures
Precipitating drugs: phenytoin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and tiagabine
Avoid phenytoin in kids
96
Mixed 4 to 7 Hz theta with 12-16 Hz spindle activity diagnosis and hallmarks? Differentiation between two? When else can it be seen? What does it indicate?
Spindles
Spindle coma (high mesencephalic/midbrain lesions) versus stage II sleep - can arouse from sleep, not spindle coma
Can also see in post traumatic or post encephalitic encephalopathies
Harbinger of favorable prognosis for some meaningful recovery
97
Monotonous diffuse alpha activity diagnosis and assocation? Location of lesions or etiologies?
Alpha coma
Poor prognosis
Brainstem lesion or just caudal to pontomesencephalic junction
Toxic or metabolic abnormalities including barbiturate OD and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar coma
98
Virus linked to AIDP
POW - tick-born, northeast part of US, Canada and Russia, causes devastating encephalitis or meningoencephalitis
ZIKV
Denguae fever
West Nile VIrus
99
Antibiotic choice for bacterial meningitis stratified by age
1-23 months: vanc + 3rd cephalosporin for S Pneumo, N meningitidies, S agalactiae, HJ flu and E coli
2-50 years: vanc + 3rd cephalosporin: N meningitities. S Pneumo
> 50 years: vanc, ampicillin and 3rd cephalosporin: S Penumo, N meningities, L monocytogenes, aerobic gram-negative bacilli
100
Tx VZV CNS infections?
Acyclovir for min 14 days
101
What should be given in wide complex tachyarrythmias of TCA overdose?
Sodium Bicarbonate
Also give if wide QRS or prolonged QTc
102
Does serotonin syndrome have miosis or dilated pupils?
Dilated and reactive (mydriasis)
103
Does MDMA or PCP overdose have ataxia, nystagmus and cholinergic symtpoms?
PCP overdose
104
Organophosphate excess causes what?
Cholinergic crisis via inhibiting acetyl-cholinesterase inhibition
105
Treatment for organophosphate toxicity?
Pralidoxime
106
What is physostigmine used for?
Anticholinesterase inhibitor - treat OD of anticholinergic agents
107
Eptifibatide mechanism and reversal and clearance?
GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor
T1/2 20-40 mins, hold and will reverse 2/2 short half life
Renal clearance
108
Mechanism of negative pressure pulmonary edema? Hallmark symptom?
Negative intrathoracic pressure against closed glottis or upper airway obstruction
Pulmonary capillary beds trigger hypoxemia, catecholamine release, systemic and pulmonary hypertension
Pink frothy sputum
109
Management of post traumatic vasospams
Neuro IR for intra-arterial vasodilator
Nimodipine DOES NOT demonstrate benefit in SAH in TBI
110
Treatment of ring enhancing lesions in HIV+ patient
Toxoplasmosis
Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
111
What can HSV encephalitis trigger?
Anti-NMDA receptor autoimmune encephalitis with seroconversion of Anti-NMDA antibodies
112
Ketogenic diet used to treat new-onset super refractory status epilepticus mechanism and contraindications?
Decanoic acid inhibits excitatory AMPA receptors, anti-inflammatory action and improvement of mitochondrial function leads to antiseizure properties
Contraindicated in patients on Propofol within last 24 hours (can lead to Propofol infusion syndrome), metabolic derangements, fatty acid oxidation disorders, hemodynamic instability, liver failure, pregnancy and poor enteral absorption
Side effects: metabolic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, hyponatremia, constipation
113
Lurasidone effect on QTc
Minimal effect (relative to other antipsychotics)
114
Treatment of health-care associated meningitis and ventriculitis?
Vancomycin + antipseudomonal beta-lactam agent (cefepime, ceftazidime, merrem)
Anaphylaxis to beta-lactam: aztreonam or cipro
115
Encephalopathy, gait ataxia and oculomotor palsy diagnosis?
Wernicke's encephalopathy
116
Acute ischemic stroke in sickle cell disease treatment?
Exchange transfusion
If unable, transfuse to hb 10
117
Headaches and nuchal rigidity with CSF with lymphocyte pleocytosis who develops flaccid paralysis 2 weeks into hospitalization
West Nile Virus Induced Motor Neuro Disease
118
Renal failure in patients with transplant on prograf who take CCB, calcineurin inhibitors, antibiotics or grapefruit juice?
BK nephropathy - Diagnosis with biopsy
Can also cause PRES, polyomavirus (JC and BK virus)
119
Unilateral Subfalcine herniation causes compression of what artery and what symptom?
Ipsilateral ACA -> contralateral leg weakness
120
Temporal herniation causes what?
Ipsilateral pupikary constriction then dilatation
121
Descending transtentorial herniation leads to what?
Decerebrate and decorticate posturing
122
Preserved nerve conduction distal to injury with no evidence of fibrillation potential indicates what kind of nerve injury?
Neurapraxia
123
Treatment of listeria meningitis
Amoxicillin and gentamycin
124
Kernohan notch phenomenon
Herniated uncus compressed contralateral corticospinal tract against tentorium -> ipsilateral anisocoria from uncal herniation and hemiparesis from Kernohan notch phenomenon
125
Tonsillar herniation leads to what?
Respiratory paralysis
126
CT or MRI for acute vestibular disorder or acute cerebellar ischemic event?
MRI
127
Treatment of severe/thunderclap headache after smoking marijuana with negative imaging?
Verapamil/CCB for reversible vasoconstriction syndrome
128
Do triphasic morphology on EEG influence risk of seizure?
No
129
EEG features with neuroprognostication implications?
Epileptiform activity - presence of absence
Abnormal variability
Abnormal reactivity
Burst suppression
130
Neurologic decline once HD started?
Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
131
Presence of midline/vertex predominant epileptiform discharges correlating with myoclonus in a reactive continuous background is associated with what?
Favorable prognosis
132
Opthalmoplegia, ataxia and hyporeflexia with DESCENDING paralysis
Miller Fischer Syndrome (variant of GBS)
133
Drugs that can worsen weakness in MG
Aminoglycosides
Telithromycin
Fluoroquinolones
Ciprofloxacin
134
MS meds for relapsing and remitting disease
Fingolimod
Terifluonimide
Dimethyl fumarate
135
NMO
Optic neuritis and acute transverse myelitis
Periventricular medulla - area postrema and medial lateral portion of nucleus tractus soltarius
NMO IgG (IgG aquaporin 4) antibody
Normal MRI or nonspecific white matter lesions
Tx: IV corticosteroids, oral azathioprine and chimeric anti-CD20 monoclonal protein rituxumab
136
Brain stem and diencephalon
Vasculitis
HLA-B5 and HLA-B1
Bahcet's disease
137
HLAs and diseases
HLA-B5 and HLA-B1 = Bahcet's
HLA-DR15 = MS
HLA-DQB1-0602 = Narcolepsy
C-ANCA = Wegener's granulomatosis
HLA-B27 = ankylosing spondylitis
138
Antibiotics associated with aseptic meningitis
Penicillin
Cephalosporins
139
Meds associated with benign intracranial hypertension
Amphotericin B
Nalidixic acid
140
Antibiotic that can cause cochlear and vestibular damage
Vancomycin
140
Medications associated with cerebellar ataxia andoptic neuritis
Ethambutol
141
Treatment of PML from natalizumab?
Plasma exchange (removes the natalizumab from system)
142
PML vs MS MRI lesions
PML: confluent demyelination at juxtacortical white matter or near deep gray matter
MS: periventricular white matter
143
Marburg's variant
Rapidly progressing demyelination
Multifocal lesions in cerebral hemispheres, brainstem and optic nerves
Pseudotumor variant possible
Path: extensive necrosis, massive macrophage infiltration, severe and extensive demyelination
CSF: mononuclear pleocytosis
Tumefactive MS vs Marburgs (Marburgs has homogenous contrast uptake)
144
Infusion reaction from rituximab initial first infusion management?
CK release
Wait 30-60 minutes, give corticosteroids and restart infusion at 1/2 rate and titrate to tolerance
145
146
Patchy sensory involvement, mild to moderate weakness of asymmetric distribution, occasional bladder dysfunction, can convert to MS diagnosis
Acute Partial Transverse Myelitis
147
6 weeks after viral illness or immunization, rapid multifocal or focal neurologic symptoms (motor then sensory deficits, brainstem signs and cerebellar signs), encephalopathy, MRI: large and confluent white matter edematous lesions: multiple, bilateral but asymmetric and enhance simultaneously or nearly simultaneously with gadolinium diagnosis?
Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
Most common after measles
148
Recurrent steroid-dependent optic neuritis, elevated ACE in CSF and serum
Neurosarcoidosis
Tx: steroids
If relapsing vision loss occurs after short course of corticosteroids for presumed optic neuritis think neurosarcoidosis
149
Malar rash, photosensitivity, arthritis, sclerosis, mucosal ulcers, acute confusion, psychosis and dementia with stroke, cerebral venous thrombosis, ataxia and movement disorders diagnosis?
SLE
150
MRI with symmetric areas of abnormal high signal intensity in pons on T2-weighted images
Central Pontine Myelinosis
151
Drugs that can induce aseptic meningitis (CSF: pleocytosis, PN predominance, increased protein)
NSAIDs
Amoxicillin
Cephalosporins
INH
IvIg
Monoclonal antibiotics
Vaccines
152
Lithium side effects
Hypothyroidism
153
How does etomidate cause adrenal suppression?
Inhibition of 11 beta-hydroxylase (converts 11 beta-deoxycortisol into cortisol)
154
MRI with increased signal intensity on T2 without evidence of restricted diffusion or contrast enhancement diagnosis
Low-grade glioma
155
Treatment for glioblastoma multiforme
Resection
Concurrent chemotherapy (temozolomide)
Radiation
Additional adjuvant chemotherapy
Bevacizumab slows progression of recurrence
156
Treatment for metastatic epidural spinal cord compression (MESCC)
Corticosteroids
Surgery
Radiation therapy
157
Most common symptom of carcinomatous meningitis?
Diplopia
158
CSF of carcinomatous meningitis?
Increased opening pressure (>200 mmHg)
Increased leukocytes (>4)
Increased protein (>50)
Decreased glucose (<60)
159
Opsoclonus-myoclonus triggers, anatomy and associated cancers
Infections, toxic-metabolic, paraneoplastic
Disinhibition of the fastigial nucleus of cerebellum
SCLC, breast and ovary
160
Paraneoplastic cerebellar dysfunction path, location of lesions and preceding symptoms?
Extensive loss of Purkinje cells
Potentially associated with inflammatory infiltrates in cerebellar cortex, deep cerebellar nuclei and inferior olivary nuclei
Can be preceded by viral prodrome
161
Limbic encephalitis
Mood and sleep disturbances, seizures, hallucinations, short term memory loss
Can progress to dementia
EEG: foci of activity in one or both temporal lobes or focal or generalized slow activity
FLAIR or T2 with hyperintense signals in medial portion of one or both temporal lobes
SCLC, testicular germ-cell neoplasms, thymoma, Hodgkin's Lymphoma or teratoma
162
What disease affects muscles of trunk, shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle and lower extremities?
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
163
