Neurological Emergencies

Question 1

Your patient states that he often experiences a painful cramping and “freezing up” of his hands and feet while handwriting or walking, respectively. This best describes:
Question 1 options:

A)

torticollis.

B)

dystonia.

C)

myoclonus.

D)

palsy.

Answer 1

dystonia

Question 2

Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?
Question 2 options:

A)

Atrial fibrillation

B)

Premature atrial contractions

C)

First-degree heart block

D)

Sinus arrhythmia

Answer 2

atrial fibrillation

Question 3

Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?
Question 2 options:

A)

Atrial fibrillation

B)

Premature atrial contractions

C)

First-degree heart block

D)

Sinus arrhythmia

Answer 3

Bells palsy

Question 4

Your patient is a 55-year-old male with a history of seizures who is on the floor and experiencing tonic-clonic motor activity. His jaw is clenched, he has peripheral cyanosis, and there are frothy secretions in his airway. HR = 130, RR = 4 and shallow, SaO2 = 88%. Which of the following is most appropriate?
Question 4 options:

A)

Suctioning the airway, inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, assisting respirations by bag-valve-mask device with 100 percent oxygen

B)

An IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, check blood glucose level, administer 3 mg of lorazepam, IV

C)

Immediate nasal intubation and hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

D)

An IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, check blood glucose level, administer 5 mg of diazepam, IV

Answer 4

suctioning the airway, inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, assisting respirations by bag-valve-mask device with 100 percent oxygen

Question 5

Your patient is a 45-year-old female type I diabetic with a history of a nonhealing foot ulcer. On examination, you find that her pedal pulse is present, but she lacks sensation in her foot. This is most likely due to:
Question 5 options:

A)

Brown-Séquard syndrome.

B)

Raynaud’s disease.

C)

claudication.

D)

peripheral neuropathy.

Answer 5

peripheral neuropathy

Question 6

Your patient is a 48-year-old female who is alert and oriented after a possible seizure. Her friends state they witnessed her slump to the floor and “shake” for about 15 seconds. She awoke in less than 1 minute and was “a bit groggy” for a few minutes. She does not believe she had a seizure but thinks she may have fainted. Which of the following questions is least important when differentiating seizure and syncope?
Question 6 options:

A)

“Are you allergic to any medications?”

B)

“Do you have a history of seizures?”

C)

“What happened just before the event?”

D)

“What kind of medications do you take?”

Answer 6

are you allergic to any medications

Question 7

You have been called for a 46-year-old female complaining of a headache. Which of the following statements made by the patient should you find most concerning?
Question 7 options:

A)

“I took two Tylenol tablets 2 hours ago, and the pain is still there.”

B)

“I have never had a headache this bad.”

C)

“I have never been nauseated like this with a headache before.”

D)

“The pain gets worse when the lights are on.”

Answer 7

I have never had a headache this bad

Question 8

Your patient is a 76-year-old female who was initially lethargic but responded to verbal stimuli. According to family members, the patient experienced a sudden decrease in responsiveness. She had a left-sided facial droop, aphasia, a dilated and nonreactive right pupil, and a flaccid left arm. Lung sounds are decreased bilaterally. HR = 58, BP = 172/102, RR = 6 and shallow, SaO2 = 88%. As you start to treat her, the patient has a generalized seizure lasting about 30 seconds. She is now unresponsive. Which of the following is most appropriate?
Question 8 options:

A)

Hyperventilate by bag-valve mask, IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, check blood glucose level, administer 25 gm of dextrose if needed, administer naloxone and thiamine, intubate if no improvement, transport without delay

B)

Hyperventilate by bag-valve mask, IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, diazepam 5 mg IV, intubate if no improvement, transport without delay

C)

Intubation, IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, cardiac monitor, blood glucose determination, sublingual nitroglycerin spray, transport without delay

D)

Intubation, IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, cardiac monitor, blood glucose determination, transport without delay

Answer 8

intubation, IV of normal saline at a keep open rate, cardiac monitor blood glucose determination, transport without delay

Question 9

Your patient is a 32-year-old female who is alert but in significant distress, complaining of a migraine. She has a history of migraines, describes a gradual onset of headache this morning, and is now experiencing nausea and intense throbbing pain behind her temples. She is lying on a couch in a dim room and keeps her eyes closed while talking to you in a low voice. HR = 100, BP = 148/100, RR = 12, SaO2 = 99%. Which of the following is most appropriate in the prehospital management of this patient?
Question 9 options:

A)

Lorazepam, 2 mg

B)

Morphine sulfate, IV in 2 mg increments, up to 10 mg

C)

A calm, quiet environment and dim lights

D)

NTG SL, 0.4 mg, up to 3 tablets or a diastolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg

Answer 9

a calm quiet environment and dim lights

Question 10

Your patient is a 62-year-old female who is alert and oriented and sitting at her kitchen table. Her husband describes an episode of slurred speech and facial drooping that lasted about 10 minutes and resolved just before your arrival. Physical examination is unremarkable. She has no significant medical history and takes no medications. HR = 78, BP = 134/78, RR = 12, SaO2 = 99%. Which of the following is most likely?
Question 10 options:

A)

Stroke

B)

Absence seizure

C)

Ménière’s disease

D)

Transient ischemic attack

Answer 10

transient ischemic attack

Question 11

A series of two or more generalized motor seizures without an intervening period of consciousness is known as:
Question 11 options:

A)

a petit mal seizure.

B)

status epilepticus.

C)

a complex partial seizure.

D)

hypertonic seizures.

Answer 11

status epilepticus

Question 12

Which of the following infectious childhood diseases would most likely result in paralysis?
Question 12 options:

A)

German measles

B)

Spina bifida

C)

Poliomyelitis

D)

Rubella

Answer 12

poliomyelitis

Question 13

The most common cause of dementia is:
Question 13 options:

A)

stroke.

B)

Alzheimer’s disease.

C)

Bell’s palsy.

D)

Korsakoff’s psychosis.

Answer 13

Alzheimer’s disease

Question 14

A seizure that begins as an electrical discharge in a small area of the brain but spreads to include the entire cerebral cortex is a ________ seizure.
Question 14 options:

A)

complex partial

B)

simple partial

C)

myoclonic

D)

generalized

Answer 14

generalized

Question 15

You should most highly suspect that a patient with tremors, periodic muscular rigidity, slowed movement, and impaired balance and coordination suffers from:
Question 15 options:

A)

peripheral neuralgia.

B)

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

C)

Parkinson’s disease.

D)

autonomic dysreflexia.

Answer 15

Parkinson’s disease

Question 16

Which of the following should be suspected as a potential cause of syncope?
Question 16 options:

A)

Hypovolemia

B)

All of these

C)

Unknown cause

D)

Cardiac arrhythmia

Answer 16

all of these

Question 17

A patient tells you that she experienced an episode of involuntary “shaking” in her arm. She describes a 1- to 2-minute-long episode of muscular jerking and contracting of her entire left arm. She retained consciousness, lacked an aura, and had no pain associated with the episode. This most indicates a(n) ________ seizure.
Question 17 options:

A)

psychosomatic

B)

petit mal

C)

simple partial

D)

absence

Answer 17

simple partial

Question 18

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is alert and oriented, complaining of severe “dizziness” and an earache for two days. He states that any movement of his head causes him to become very dizzy and nauseated. The patient’s skin is warm and dry, his pupils are equal and reactive, and there is no gross neurological deficit. HR = 82, BP = 120/82, RR = 12, SaO2 = 99%. Which of the following is most likely?
Question 18 options:

A)

Transient cerebral attack

B)

Subdural hematoma

C)

Labyrinthitis

D)

Hypersensitivity of the carotid sinus

Answer 18

labyrinthitis

Question 19

You suspect your patient is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke. He is confused, has a respiratory rate of 20, and a blood pressure of 178/88. Which of the following additional findings would most increase your suspicion of increased intracranial pressure?
Question 19 options:

A)

Slurred speech

B)

Heart rate of 50

C)

Anterograde amnesia

D)

Hallucinations

Answer 19

heart rate of 50

Question 20

Which three cranial nerves are involved in the cardinal positions of gaze?
Question 20 options:

A)

III, IV, and VI

B)

I, III, and IV

C)

VI, VII, and X

D)

I, III, and VI

Answer 20

III, IV and VI

Question 21

You are transporting a male patient to the hospital for an evaluation after a possible seizure when you notice the patient’s loss of consciousness. His muscles start to contract so that he is arching his back. This best describes the ________ phase of a generalized seizure.
Question 21 options:

A)

postictal

B)

tonic

C)

hypertonic

D)

clonic

Answer 21

hypertonic

Question 22

A patient with speech impairment following a stroke would have involvement in the ________ lobe of the brain.
Question 22 options:

A)

occipital

B)

parietal

C)

temporal

D)

frontal

Answer 22

temporal

Question 23

Your patient has a history of epilepsy and is experiencing loss of consciousness, tonic-clonic muscle activity, and erratic ocular movement. Based on this, you might also expect to find all of the following EXCEPT:
Question 23 options:

A)

pinpoint pupils.

B)

increased oral secretions.

C)

urinary incontinence.

D)

impaired respiration.

Answer 23

pinpoint pupils

Question 24

Your female patient is experiencing sharp, stabbing, right-sided face pain of her upper and lower lips, cheek, and around her orbit. This best describes:
Question 24 options:

A)

Bell’s palsy.

B)

trigeminal neuralgia.

C)

temporomandibular joint syndrome.

D)

a cluster headache.

Answer 24

trigeminal neuralgia

Question 25

Which of the following is a collection of genetic diseases characterized by progressive muscle weakness and skeletal muscle degeneration? Question 25 options: A) Myasthenia gravis B) Multiple sclerosis C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D) Muscular dystrophy

Answer 25

muscular dystrophy

Question 26

The dorsal roots of the spinal cord contain afferent fibers that transmit impulses from ________ to ________. Question 26 options: A) sensory nerves, central nervous system B) the central nervous system, sensory nerves C) the central nervous system, motor nerves D) motor nerves, the central nervous system

Answer 26

sensory nerves, central nervous system

Question 27

The most common cause of lower back pain is: Question 27 options: A) idiopathic. B) sciatica. C) arthritis. D) osteomyelitis.

Answer 27

idiopathic

Question 28

During a domestic disturbance your patient experienced a sudden onset of violent, bizarre movements of the extremities followed by unresponsiveness to verbal stimuli. On your arrival the bizarre movements begin again but stop suddenly when you firmly say, "Stop!" This most indicates ________ seizure. Question 28 options: A) simple partial B) pseudo C) complex partial D) absence

Answer 28

pseudo

Question 29

A 35-year-old male complains of a "pressure"-type headache to the back of his head and neck. He states that he woke up with the discomfort this morning, and the pain has steadily gotten worse through the day. He denies any radiation of the pain and denies photophobia but states that he is slightly nauseated. Based on this clinical presentation, the paramedic should be suspicious of what type of headache? Question 29 options: A) Tension B) Cluster C) Vascular D) Migraine

Answer 29

tension

Question 30

All of the following may cause a transient ischemic attack EXCEPT: Question 30 options: A) a small embolus. B) hypotension. C) intracranial hemorrhage. D) cerebrovascular spasm.

Answer 30

intracranial hemorrhage

Question 31

Which of the following complaints is most typical for a patient suffering an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis? Question 31 options: A) "I cannot remember my address or phone number." B) "Each night I seem to get a fever and break out in a sweat." C) "My legs feel heavy, and I am having trouble walking." D) "I have no feeling in either my arms or my legs."

Answer 31

my legs feel heavy and I am having trouble walking

Question 32

Which of the following diseases involves inflammation followed by demyelination of the brain and spinal cord nerve fibers? Question 32 options: A) Myasthenia gravis B) Muscular dystrophy C) Alzheimer's disease D) Multiple sclerosis

Answer 32

multiple sclerosis

Question 33

The postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nerves is: Question 33 options: A) norepinephrine. B) epinephrine. C) dopamine. D) acetylcholine.

Answer 33

norepinephrine

Question 34

A type of generalized seizure characterized by a rapid loss of consciousness and motor coordination, muscle spasms, and jerking motions is known as a(n): Question 34 options: A) complex partial seizure. B) absence. C) tonic-clonic seizure. D) simple partial seizure.

Answer 34

tonic-clonic seizure

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a migraine? Question 35 options: A) Throbbing headache B) Vomiting C) Photosensitivity D) Low back pain

Answer 35

low back pain

Question 36

Which of the following should NOT be part of the general management of a patient with altered mental status? Question 36 options: A) Thiamine B) Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen C) 50 percent dextrose D) IV with saline lock

Answer 36

Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen

Question 37

Which of the following is characterized by involuntary muscle twitching? Question 37 options: A) Myoclonus B) Ataxia C) Trismus D) Dystonia

Answer 37

Myoclonus

Question 38

The most common cause of dementia in the elderly is: Question 38 options: A) multi-infarct dementia. B) cerebrovascular disease. C) Parkinson's disease. D) Alzheimer's disease.

Answer 38

Alzheimer's disease

Question 39

An eight-year-old male child is alert and oriented after a brief episode of eyelid fluttering and slight loss of muscle tone, which caused him to slump in his chair. His teacher reports that the child was inattentive for 15 to 20 seconds during the episode but was fine after. This most indicates a(n) ________ seizure. Question 39 options: A) absence B) generalized C) simple partial D) pseudo

Answer 39

absence

Question 40

A seizure that remains confined to a limited portion of the brain, causing localized dysfunction, is a(n) ________ seizure. Question 40 options: A) petit mal B) absence C) tonic D) partial

Answer 40

partial

Question 41

Your patient is a 57-year-old male who is alert and oriented and complaining of a slight headache. His coworker states the patient "fainted." The patient describes feeling weak and lightheaded before the incident and "came to" lying on the floor. Medical history includes cardiovascular disease with a history of angina and hypertension. Medications include clopidogrel (Plavix), nitroglycerin, and metoprolol. Which of the following is least helpful when formulating a field impression for this patient? Question 41 options: A) Cardiac monitoring B) Neurological exam C) Pulse oximetry D) Orthostatic vital signs

Answer 41

pulse oximetry

Question 42

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a progressive degeneration of the nerve cells that control voluntary movement, weakness, loss of motor control, difficulty speaking, and cramping? Question 42 options: A) Multiple sclerosis B) Bell's palsy C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D) Muscular dystrophy

Answer 42

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Question 43

Which of the following is least likely to be detrimental when treating a stroke patient? Question 43 options: A) IV of 5 percent dextrose in water B) Hyperventilation with 100 percent oxygen C) Administration of 50 percent dextrose, IV push D) IV of lactated Ringer's solution

Answer 43

Iv of lactated Ringers solution

Question 44

Which of the following is least pertinent in the prehospital setting when obtaining the history of a patient with a suspected transient ischemic attack or stroke? Question 44 options: A) History of diabetes B) Allergies C) History of cardiovascular disease D) Medications

Answer 44

Allergies

Question 45

Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is exhibiting generalized seizure activity. Her roommate states that she had a seizure that lasted about 3 minutes. She remained unresponsive, then started having another seizure about 5 minutes after the first. The patient has peripheral cyanosis and copious oral secretions. Which of the following is of HIGHEST priority for this patient? Question 45 options: A) Suctioning the airway, assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device B) Starting an IV, administering succinylcholine, and intubation C) Suctioning the airway, applying 15 liters per minute of oxygen by nonrebreathing mask D) Starting an IV and administering 5 mg of diazepam

Answer 45

suctioning the airway, assisting ventilations with a bag valve mask device

Question 46

A form of spina bifida in which some of the spinal cord and meninges are protruding from a defect in the spine is a(n): Question 46 options: A) osteogenesis imperfecta. B) myelomeningocele. C) hydrocele. D) meningioma.

Answer 46

myelomeningocele

Question 47

Your patient is a 52-year-old female who is alert but slightly confused after a syncopal episode lasting about 1 minute. She has no complaints, and your physical exam reveals no abnormalities aside from slight confusion. She has had a stroke and has a history of type II diabetes and hypertension. HR = 100, BP = 132/84, RR = 12, SaO2 = 99%. Which of the following is the least likely cause of the patient's episode? Question 47 options: A) Orthostatic hypotension B) Transient cardiac arrhythmia C) Transient ischemic attack D) Hypoglycemia

Answer 47

orthostatic hypotension

Question 48

You are transporting a male patient with the complaint of expressive aphasia and right upper extremity paralysis to the hospital. When calling the hospital, which of the following pieces of information is it most critical to convey? Question 48 options: A) Blood pressure 168/82 mmHg B) History of hypertension C) SaO2 94% despite oxygen D) Time of symptom onset

Answer 48

time of symptom onset

Question 49

Atrial fibrillation is most associated with ________ strokes. Question 49 options: A) embolic B) hemorrhagic C) hypoxic D) thrombotic

Answer 49

embolic

Question 50

All of the following are assessed during the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Screen EXCEPT: Question 50 options: A) speech. B) facial droop. C) arm drift. D) memory.

Answer 50

memory

Question 51

The family members of a 72-year-old female state that the patient complained of a sudden, severe headache; had slurred speech; then became unresponsive. She responds to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing and has snoring respirations at a rate of 10 per minute. Her radial pulse is palpable but grossly irregular. According to her son, she also suffers from congestive heart failure, hypertension, and diabetes. Which of the following should you do first? Question 51 options: A) Insert an endotracheal tube. B) Check her blood sugar. C) Attach the cardiac monitor. D) Manage the airway with a modified jaw-thrust maneuver.

Answer 51

manage the airway with a modified jaw- thrust maneuver

Question 52

The father of a 15-year-old male who has had a generalized seizure asks you why his son turned blue during the seizure. Which of the following is the best answer? Question 52 options: A) "It is a normal part of the seizure process and nothing to worry about." B) "The brain stem stops working during a seizure, which causes breathing to stop, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the blood." C) "The muscles used in breathing cannot work effectively during the seizure, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the blood." D) "The heart slows down and the blood pressure drops during a seizure, causing a lack of circulation to the skin."

Answer 52

the muscles used in breathing cannot work effectively during the seizure, decreasing the amount of oxygen in the blood

Question 53

Pseudoseizures are best controlled by: Question 53 options: A) a command to stop. B) phenytoin. C) lorazepam. D) using physical restraints.

Answer 53

a command to stop

Question 54

While you are caring for a patient on the floor of her kitchen, she begins to have a generalized seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate first action? Question 54 options: A) Move objects away from her and wait to see if the seizure stops. B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C) Restrain her so she does not injure herself. D) Start an IV, and administer 5 mg diazepam.

Answer 54

move objects away from her and wait to see if the seizure stops

Question 55

Which of the following is evaluated in the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen but is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? Question 55 options: A) Arm drift B) Facial droop C) Temperature D) Blood glucose level

Answer 55

blood glucose level

Question 56

Your patient is a 49-year-old male complaining of a headache and weakness of his left arm, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The information that would be most helpful in differentiating a brain abscess from a brain tumor is whether or not the patient: Question 56 options: A) exhibits nuchal rigidity. B) has a recent history of brain surgery. C) has had a change in the level of responsiveness. D) has had a seizure.

Answer 56

exhibits nuchal rigidity

Question 57

You are examining a newborn and note that the meninges and spinal cord are protruding through an opening over the lower back. This is known as: Question 57 options: A) a myelomeningocele. B) spina bifida occulta. C) poliomyelitis. D) a meningocele.

Answer 57

a myelomengingocele

Question 58

What neurological problem results in a neural defect in which the fetal vertebrae do not close properly, often resulting in spinal cord dysfunction? Question 58 options: A) Spina bifida B) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Multiple sclerosis D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Answer 58

spina bifida

Question 59

What is the innermost layer of meninges that directly overlies the central nervous system? Question 59 options: A) Pia mater B) Dura mater C) Cerebrospinal membrane D) Arachnoid membrane

Answer 59

pia mater

Question 60

Which of the following diseases is most likely to cause dementia in the patient? Question 60 options: A) Spina bifida B) Multiple sclerosis C) Pick's disease D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Answer 60

Pick's disease

Question 61

Epilepsy affects roughly: Question 61 options: A) 10 percent of the population. B) 15 percent of the population. C) 1 percent of the population. D) 5 percent of the population.

Answer 61

1 percent of the population

Question 62

The nervous system is divided into which two main parts? Question 62 options: A) Central and peripheral B) Autonomic and cranial C) Peripheral and autonomic D) Central and autonomic

Answer 62

central and peripheral

Question 63

The entire central nervous system is covered by the: Question 63 options: A) meninges. B) peritoneum. C) pia mater. D) dura mater.

Answer 63

meninges

Question 64

The area that connects the brain to the spinal cord is known as the: Question 64 options: A) cerebellum. B) foramen magnum. C) medulla oblongata. D) pons.

Answer 64

pons

Question 65

The primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system is: Question 65 options: A) epinephrine. B) acetylcholine. C) dopamine. D) reteplase.

Answer 65

epinephrine

Question 66

The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is: Question 66 options: A) epinephrine. B) reteplase. C) dopamine. D) acetylcholine.

Answer 66

acetylcholine

Question 67

The two mechanisms capable of producing alterations in mental state are: Question 67 options: A) cranial nervous and the central nervous system. B) physiologic and RAS. C) structural and RAAS. D) structural and toxic-metabolic.

Answer 67

structural and toxic- metabolic

Question 68

The acronym AVPU is used to quickly assess a patient's: Question 68 options: A) judgment. B) mental status. C) mood. D) thought.

Answer 68

mental status

Question 69

Increasing PaCO2 will cause: Question 69 options: A) cerebral vasodilation. B) hyperventilation syndrome. C) cerebral vasoconstriction. D) ataxic respirations.

Answer 69

cerebral vasodilation

Question 70

Decreasing PaCO2 will cause: Question 70 options: A) ataxic respirations. B) cerebral vasoconstriction. C) cerebral vasodilation. D) hyperventilation syndrome.

Answer 70

cerebral vasoconstriction

Question 71

Posturing with the arms flexed and the legs extended is known as: Question 71 options: A) decorticate position. B) decerebrate position. C) neurogenic shock position. D) postictal position.

Answer 71

decorticate position

Question 72

You respond to a patient who has an AV shunt in place. You notice that the patient is unresponsive with the following vital signs: blood pressure, 180/100 mmHg; pulse: 48; respirations: 12 and irregular. You suspect: Question 72 options: A) seizure. B) increased intracranial pressure. C) normal status for an AV shunt patient. D) decreased intracranial pressure.

Answer 72

increased intracranial pressure

Question 73

One cause of altered mental status that you are able to quickly rule out is: Question 73 options: A) hypoglycemia. B) TIA. C) CVA. D) hyperglycemia.

Answer 73

hypoglycemia

Question 74

When evaluating a patient with a possible neurologic emergency, which acronym can help you remember the causes? Question 74 options: A) AEIOU-TIPS B) ISAL C) TICKLES D) AVPU

Answer 74

AEIOU-TIPS

Question 75

A condition seen in chronic alcoholics that causes ataxia, eye muscle weakness, and mental derangement is known as: Question 75 options: A) Brugada syndrome. B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. C) Wernicke's syndrome. D) Korsakoff's psychosis.

Answer 75

Wernicke's syndrome

Question 76

You respond to a patient who is complaining of a sudden onset of a severe headache. The patient has a history of hypertension. You should suspect: Question 76 options: A) occlusive stroke. B) hypertensive urgency. C) migraine. D) hemorrhagic stroke.

Answer 76

hemorrhagic stroke

Question 77

A TIA typically: Question 77 options: A) never resolves. B) is caused by intracranial hemorrhage. C) resolves within 24 hours. D) can be reversible with tPA.

Answer 77

resolves within 24 hours

Question 78

A tonic-clonic seizure is characterized by: Question 78 options: A) flaccidity. B) movement of one area of the body. C) increased muscle tone and rhythmic jerking. D) a period of apnea.

Answer 78

increased muscle tone and rhythmic jerking