Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is syncope?

A

Temporary loss of consciousness due to a disruption of blood flow to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is syncope also known as?

A

Vasovagal episodes

Fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes a vasovagal episode?

A

A problem with the autonomic nervous system regulating blood flow to the bran.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens when the vagus nerve recieves a strong stimulus?

A

It stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system, causing the blood vessels in the brain to relax and the cerebral blood pressure to drop, leading to hypoperfusion of brain tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is prodrome?

A

The events/ feelings prior to fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What symptoms may be included in prodrome?

A
Hot or clammy
Sweaty
Heavy
Dizzy/ lightheaded
Blurred/ dark vision
Headache
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of primary syncope (simple fainting)?

A

Dehydration
Missed meals
Extending standing in warm environment
Strong stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What events may strongly stimulate the vagus nerve?

A

Emotional event
Painful sensation
Change in temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the secondary causes of syncope?

A
Hypoglycaemia
Dehydration
Anaemia
Infection
Anaphylaxis
Arrhythmias
Valvular heart disease
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the key points to take in a syncope history?

A
Differentiate it from seizure
Triggers? 
Concurrent ilnness? 
Injuries caused by colapse? 
Associated cardiac or neurological symptoms?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What investigations may be done after a vasovagal episode?

A

ECG
24 hour ECG
Echo
Bloods (FBC, electolytes, blood glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Umbrella term for the tendency to have seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are seizures?

A

Transient episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the different types of seizure?

A
Generalised tonic-clonic
Focal 
Absence
Atonic
Myoclonic
Infantile spasms
Febrile convulsions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the tonic phase?

A

Muscle tensing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the clonic phase?

A

Muscle jerking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What phase comes first in a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Tonic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What may also occur in a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Tongue biting, incontinence, groaning and irregular breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens after a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Prolonged post-ictal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens in the post-ictal period?

A

Person is confused, drowsy and feels irritable/ low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the first line management of tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the second line management of tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Lamotrigine or carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are focal seizures?

A

Seizures that affect hearing, speech, memory and emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where to focal seizures start?

A

In the temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the different ways focal seizures can present?
Hallucinations Memory flashbacks Deja Vu Strange actions on autopilot
26
What is the first line management of focal seizures?
Carbamazepine or lamotrigine
27
What is the second line management of focal seizures?
Sodium valproate or Levetiracetam
28
What are absence seizures?
When patient becomes blank, stares into space and then abruptly returns to normal
29
Who most commonly gets absence seizures?
Children
30
How long do absence seizures typically last?
10-20 seconds
31
What is the first line treatment for absence seizures?
Sodium valproate
32
What are atonic seizures?
Drop attacks- brief lapses in muscle tone
33
How long to atonic seizures usually last?
Less than 3 minutes
34
What syndrome may be the cause of atonic seizures?
Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
35
What is the first and second line management of atonic seizures?
First line= Sodium valproate | Second line= Lamotrigine
36
What are myoclonic seizures?
Sudden brief muscle contractions
37
When do myoclonic seizures usually manifest?
In children as part of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
38
What is the management of myoclonic seizures?
1st line= sodium valproate | 2nd= lamotrigine/ levetiracetam/ topiramate
39
What are infantile spasms?
Clusters of full body spasms
40
What are infantile spasms also known as?
West syndrome
41
When do infantile spasms usually start?
Around 6 months
42
What is the prognosis of infantile spasms?
1/3 die by 25 | 1/3 are seizure free
43
What are febrile convulsions?
Seizures that occur in children whilst they have a fever
44
In what age range do febrile convulsions begin?
6 months- 5 years
45
What key investigations may be done into epilepsy?
EEG | MRI brain
46
What is an EEG and when would it be performed?
Electroencephalogram, performed after the second instance of simple tonic-clonic seizure
47
When would an MRI brain be considered?
If the first seizure is in a child <2 Focal seizures No response to medications
48
What can an MRI brain help rule out?
Structural problems and pathology such as tumours
49
What additional investigations may be considered to exclude causes of seizures?
``` ECG Blood electrolytes Blood glucose Blood cultures Urine cultures LP ```
50
What general advice is given to patients/ families with new epilepsy diagnosis?
Don't take baths Be cautious with swimming, heights, traffic and heavy/ electrical equipment Avoid driving
51
What is the first line medication for most forms of epilepsy?
Sodium valproate
52
Which form of epilepsy is sodium valproate not the first line in?
Focal seizures
53
What is the action of sodium valproate?
Increases the activity of GABA, which has a relaxing effect on the brain
54
What are the key side effects of sodium valproate ?
Teratogenic Liver damage Hair loss Tremor
55
In which patients should sodium valproate be avoided and why?
Girls because it is severely teratogenic
56
What is the first line medication for focal seizures?
Carbamazepine
57
What are the notable side effects of carbamazepine?
Agranulocytosis Aplastic anaemia Many drug interactions
58
What are the notable side effects of Phenytoin?
Folate & vitamin D deficiency Megaloblastic anaemia Osteomalacia
59
What are the notable side effects of Ethosuximide?
Night terrors | Rashes
60
What are the notable side effects of Lamotrigine?
Stevens-Johnson syndrome DRESS syndrome Leukopenia
61
How should you manage someone having a seizure?
Safe position Put something soft under head Remove obstacles/ danger Make note of start and end
62
When do you call an ambulance with a seizure?
If it lasts more than 5 minutes or is their first seizure
63
What is status epilepticus?
Medical emergency- seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or 2 or more seizures without regaining consciousness
64
How is status epilepticus managed in hospital?
ABCDE IV lorazepam IV phenytoin if seizure persists
65
What are simple febrile convulsions?
Generalised tonic, clonic seizures caused by a high fever
66
How long do simple febrile convulsions last?
Less than 15 minutes
67
What are complex febrile convulsions?
Partial or focal seizures, lasting more than 15 minutes or occurring multiple times during the same febrile illness
68
What are the differential diagnoses of a febrile convulsion?
``` Epilepsy Meningitis/ encephalitis Intracranial space occupying lesions (brain tumour/ haemorrhage) Syncopal episode Electrolyte abnormalities Trauma ```
69
What is the typical presentation of a febrile convulsion?
18 month year old child presenting with 2-5 minute tonic clonic seizure during high fever
70
How are febrile convulsions managed?
Identify underlying source of infection | Paracetamol/ ibuprofen
71
What are breath holding spells?
Involuntary episodes during which a child holds their breath
72
What usually triggers breath holding spells?
Something upsetting or scary
73
In what age range do breath holding spells usually occur?
6-18 months
74
What are the two types of breath holding spells?
Cyanotic breath holding spells | Pallid breath holding spells
75
What are cyanotic breath holding spells?
When the child gets really worked up, lets out a long cry, then stops breathing, becomes cyanotic and loses consciousness
76
What are reflex anoxic seizures?
When the child is startled, the vagus nerve sends strong signals to the heart that causes it to stop beating/
77
What happens after a cyanoti breath holding spell?
The child regains consciousness and starts breathing within a minute
78
What happens during a reflex anoxic seizure?
The child goes pale, loses consiousness and may have some muscle twitching
79
How long do reflex anoxic seizures typically last?
30 seconds
80
How are breath holding spells managed?
Exclude other pathology Treat any iron deficiency anaemia Educate and reassure
81
What are the causes of headaches in children?
``` Tension headaches Migraines ENT infection Analgesic headache Vision problems Raised ICP Brain tumours Meningitis Encephalitis Carbon monoxide poisoning ```
82
What is the main cause of headaches in children?
Tension headaches
83
What are tension headaches?
Common type of headache producing mild ache across forehead (band- like pressure)
84
What may trigger tension headaches?
Stress, fear or discomfort Skipping meals Dehydration Infection
85
How are tension headaches managed?
``` Reassurance Analgesia Regular meals Avoid dehydration Reduce stress ```
86
How long do tension headaches typically last in children?
30 minutes
87
What are the different types of migraine?
Migraine with or without aura Silent migraine Hemiplegic migraine Abdominal migraine
88
What is a silent migraine?
Migraine with aura but without headache
89
What is a hemiplegic migraine?
Migraine that causes temporary weakness down one side of the body
90
What are the common presenting features of a migraine?
``` Unilateral, severe, throbbing pain Often photo/ phonophobia Visual auras N&V Abdominal pain ```
91
How are migraines in children managed supportively?
Rest/ Fluids Low stimulus environment
92
What medications can be used to manage migraines in children?
Paracetamol Ibuprofen Sumatriptan Antiemetics
93
What medications can be used as migraine prophylaxis?
Propanolol Pizotifen Topiramate
94
What are abdominal migraines?
Central abdominal pain lasting more than 1 hour. Tend to occur in young children before developing traditional migraines when they get older
95
What is cerebral palsy?
Permanent neurological problems resulting from damage to the brain around the time of birth
96
What are the antenatal causes of cerebral palsy?
Maternal infections | Trauma during pregnancy
97
What are the perinatal causes of cerebral palsy?
Birth asphyxia | Pre-term birth
98
What are the different types of cerebral palsy?
Spastic Dyskinetic Ataxic Mixed
99
What is spastic CP?
Hypertonia and reduced function
100
What is dyskinetic CP?
Problems controlling muscle tone (both hyper and hypotonia), causing athetoid movements and oro-motor problems
101
What causes spastic CP?
Damage to upper motor neurones
102
What causes dyskinetic CP?
Damage to basal ganglia
103
What is ataxic CP?
Problems with coordinated movement resulting from damage to the cerebellum
104
What is spastic CP also known as?
Pyramidal CP
105
What is dyskinetic CP also known as?
Athetoid or extrapyramidal CP
106
What are the different patterns of spastic cerebral palsy?
Monoplegia Hemiplegia Diplegia Quadraplegia
107
What is hemiplegia?
One side of the body affected
108
What is diplegia?
When all four limbs are affected, but mostly the legs
109
What are the signs and symptoms of CP during development?
``` Failure to meet milestones Increased/ decreased tone *Hand preference before 18 months Problems with coordination, speech or walking Feeding/ swallowing problems Learning difficulties ```
110
What gait may you find on examination of a child with CP?
``` Hemiplegic/ diplegic Ataxic High stepping Waddling Antalgic gait (limp) ```
111
What may be found on neurological examination of a patient with an upper motor neurone cerebral palsy?
Hemipledic/ diplegic gate Hypertonia Slightly reduced power Brisk reflexes
112
What may be found on neurological examination of a patient with a lower motor neurone cerebral palsy?
``` High stepping gate Reduced muscle bulk with fasciculations Hypotonia Dramatically reduced power Reduced reflexes ```
113
What is a hemiplegic/ diplegic gait?
When there is increased muscle tone and spasticity in the legs, caused them to be extended with plantar flexion. This means they must swing leg around in a large semicircle.
114
What are the complications/ conditions associated with cerebral palsy?
``` Learning disability Epilepsy Kyphoscoliosis Muscle contractures Hearing/ visual impairment GORD ```
115
How is cerebral palsy managed?
``` MDT: Physiotherapy OT SALT Dieticians Paediatricians Social workers Orthopaedic surgeons ```
116
What is strabismus?
Misalignment of the eyes
117
What will a person with strabismus experience?
Double vision
118
What is amblyopia?
Lazy eye (affected eye has reduced function compared to dominant eye)
119
What is esotropia?
Inward positioned squint
120
What is exotropia?
Outward positioned squint
121
What is hypertropia?
Upward moving affected eye
122
What is hypotropia?
Downward moving affected eye
123
What are the causes of strabismus?
``` Idiopathic Hydrocephalus Cerebral palsy Space occupying lesion Trauma ```
124
What investigations do you do into strabismus?
``` General inspection Eye movement Fundoscopy Visual acuity Hirschberg's test Cover test ```
125
What is Hirschberg's test?
Shine pen-torch at patient from 1 meter away. When they look at it, observe reflection of light source on their cornea (should be central and symmetrical)
126
What is a cover test?
Cover one eye and ask patient to focus on an object in front of them. Move the cover across the opposite eye and watch movements of previously covered eye. (Will show exotropia and esotropia)
127
How is strabismus managed?
``` Earlier the better Occlusive patch Atropine drops (blurs vision in good eye) Glasses Surgery Botox ```
128
What is hydrocephalus?
Abnormal build up of CSF in the brain and spinal cord
129
What causes hydrocephalus?
An overproduction of CSF or a problem with draining or absorbing it
130
How many ventricles are there in the brain and what are they?
4 | Two lateral ventricles, third and fourth
131
What do the brain ventricles contain?
CSF
132
Where is CSF created?
In the four choroid plexuses (in each ventricle) and by the walls of the ventricles
133
Where is CSF absorbed?
Into the venous system by the arachnoid granulations
134
What is the most common cause of hydrocephalus?
Aqueductal stenosis, leading to insufficient drainage
135
What is the cerebral aqueduct?
Passage connecting the third and fourth ventricle
136
What happens in aqueductal stenosis?
There is stenosis of the aqueduct connect the third and fourth ventricle, blocking the normal flow of CSF out of the third ventricle, causing it to build up in the lateral and third ventricles
137
What are other congenital causes of acqueductal stenosis?
Arachnoid cysts Arnold-Chiari malformation Chromosomal abnormalities Congenital malformations
138
What is an Arnold-Chiari malformation?
Where the cerebellum herniates downwards through the foramen magnum, blocking the outflow of CSF
139
At what age do the cranial sutures fuse?
2 years
140
How does hydrocephalus present in babies?
``` Enlarged and rapidly increasing head circumference Bulging anterior fontanelle Poor feeding/ vomiting Poor tone Sleepiness ```
141
What is the mainstay of treatment for hydrocephalus?
VP shunt
142
What is a VP shunt?
Catheter placed into ventricle and drains CSF into another body cavity (usually peritoneal)
143
Why is the peritoneal cavity the most commonly used to drain CSF?
There is plenty of space and it is easily reabsorbed
144
What are the complications of a VP shunt?
``` Infection Blockage Excessive drainage Intraventricular haemorrhage Outgrowing shunt ```
145
How often do VP shunts need replacing?
Every 2 years
146
What is craniosynostosis?
When the skull sutures close prematurely
147
What does craniosynostosis cause if left untreated?
Raised intracranial pressure Abnormal head shapes Restriction in brain growth
148
What is the main presenting feature of craniosynostosis?
Abnormal head shape | small head in proportion to body, anterior fontanella closure before 1
149
What is the head shape in saggital synostosis?
Long and narrow from front to back
150
What is the head shape in coronal synostosis?
Bulging on one side of forehead
151
What is the head shape in Metopic synostosis?
Pointy triangular forehead
152
What is the head shape in lambdoid synostosis?
Flattening on one side of the occiput
153
What investigations are done for suspected craniosynostosis?
Skull Xray | CT head
154
How are mild cases of craniosynostosis managed?
Monitored and followed up over time
155
How are more severe cases of craniosynostosis managed?
Surgical reconstruction of the skull
156
What is plagiocephaly?
Flattening in an area of the baby's head
157
What is brachycephaly?
Flattening at the back of the head resulting in a short head from back to front
158
What causes plagio/brachycephaly?
Positional plagiocephaly: When a baby has a tendency to rest their head on a particular point, so the bones and sutures mould with gravity
159
When and how do babies usually present with How are mild cases of plagiocephaly?
3-6 months with abnormal head shape
160
What must be excluded when diagnosing plagiocephaly?
Craniosynotosis | Congenital muscular torticollis
161
What is congenital muscular torticollis?
Shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle on one side
162
How is plagiocephaly managed?
Encourage baby to avoid resting on flattened area | Plagiocephaly helmets
163
What is muscular dystrophy?
Umbrella term for genetic conditions that cause gradual weakening and wasting of muscles
164
What is the main type of muscular dystrophy?
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
165
What are other types of muscular dystrophy?
``` Beckers Myotonic Facioscapulohumeral Oculopharyngeal Limb-girdle Emery-Dreifuss ```
166
What sign will be present in children with proximal muscle weakness?
Gower's sign
167
What is Gower's sign?
When standing up from sitting, they get on their hands and knees, then push their hips up and backwards, before transferring weight backwards and transferring hands to knees
168
How is muscular dystrophy managed?
MDT: OT, PT, equipment (wheelchairs) Surgical/ medical management of complications (e.g. scoliosis, heart failure)
169
What kind of inheritance pattern is duchennes muscular dystrophy?
X-linked recessive
170
What causes Duchennes muscular dystrophy?
Defective gene for dystrophin on X-chromosome
171
What is Dystrophin?
Protein that helps hold muscles together at the cellular level
172
In which patients does Duchennes muscular dystrophy pretty much solely present and why?
Boys- girls have a spare X chromosome
173
At what age does Duchennes usually present?
3-5
174
How does Duchennes usually first present?
With weakness in muscles around pelvis
175
What is the prognosis of Duchennes?
Progressive disease and eventually all muscles will be affected Wheelchair bound by teenager Life expectancy of 25-35 years
176
What can be used to slow the progression of muscle weakness in Duchennes?
Oral steroids | Createnine can improve muscle strength
177
How does Beckers muscular dystrophy differ from Duchenens?
Dystrophin gene is less severely affected and maintains some function Presents later and less predictable
178
What are the typical features of myotonic dystrophy?
Progressive muscle weakness Prolonged muscle contractions Cataracts Cardiac arrhythmias
179
What is the key feature of myotonic dystrophy to remember?
Prolonged muscle contraction- e.g. may be unable to let go after shaking hands or opening doorknob
180
What kind of condition is myotonic dystrophy and when does it typically present?
Genetic disorder | Presents in adulthood
181
What is facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?
Weakness around face, progressing to shoulderns and arms
182
When and how does facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy usually present?
In childhood with child sleeping with eyes slighlty open and weakness in pursing lips
183
What is oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy?
Weakness of ocular muscles and pharynx
184
When and how does oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy usually present?
Bilateral ptosis, restricted eye movements and swallowing problems in late adulthood
185
What is limb-girdle muscular dystrophy?
Progressive weakness around the limb girdles (hips and shoulders) presenting in teenage years
186
What is Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy?
Dystrophy presenting in childhood with contractures in elbows and ankles, as well as progressive muscle weakness and wasting
187
What is spinal muscular atrophy?
Rare genetic condition causing progressive loss of motor neurones, leading to progressive muscular weakness
188
What kind of genetic condition is spinal muscular atrophy?
Autosomal recessive
189
What neurones does SMA affect?
Lower motor neurones in spinal cord
190
What lower motor neurone signs will you get in SMA?
``` Fasciculations Reduced muscle bulk Reduced tone Reduced power Reduced/ absent reflexes ```
191
What are the 4 categories of spinal muscular atrophy?
SMA type 1, 2 4 & 4
192
What is SMA type 1?
Onset in first few months of life and progresses to death within 2 years
193
What is SMA type 2?
Onset within first 18 months of life. Most never walk but survive into adulthood
194
What is SMA type 3?
Onset after first year of life. Most walk without support but lose ability. Life expectancy close to normal
195
What is SMA type 4?
Onset in 20s. Most retain ability to walk short distances but everyday tasks can lead to significant fatigue
196
How is spinal muscular atrophy managed?
Supportive with MDT
197
What may be required to prevent respiratory failure in those with SMA?
Non-invasive ventilation | Tracheostomy with mechanical ventilation (SMA T1)