Neurology Flashcards

(168 cards)

1
Q

What triad of symptoms is associated with normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Urinary incontinence
Dementia
Gait abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the result of a third nerve palsy?

A

Down and out eye
Diplopia
Ptosis
Fixed dilated pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the result of a fourth nerve palsy?

A

Defective downward gaze —>vertical diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the result of a sixth nerve palsy?

A

Defective abduction—> horizontal diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the management of neuropathic pain?

A

Monotheraphy with Amitryptiline, pregabalin, gabapentin, or duloxetine

If doesn’t work then switch medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Triad for wernickes encephalopathy?

A

Gait ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia/Nystagmus
Confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the result of a common peroneal nerve palsy?

A

Weakness of foot Doris flexion and foot eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What marker can be used to differentiate a seizure form a pseudo seizure?

A

Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for a TIA?

A

Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by long term use of clopidogrel 75mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the acute management of a cluster headache?

A

High flow oxygen + SC/intra nasal triptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prophylaxis mix of cluster headache?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the management of an acute relapse of ms?

A

High dose steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What medication/s reduce risk of relapse in MS

A

Natalizumab
Fingolimod
Beta interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the medical management of myasthenia gravis

A

Acetylycholinesterase inhibitors- Pyradistigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the 1st line Ix for MG?

A

Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is syringomeylia?

A

Collection of CSF in spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the key features of syringomyelia/

A

Cape like distribution
— loss of sensation to temperature but preservation of light touch, proprioception and vibration
—classic- burn hands and don’t notice
Upgoing plantars
Autonomic features e.g. horners
Spastic weakness (predominantly Lower limbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does syringomyelia have a strong association with?

A

Chiari malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the ix and management for syringomyelia?

A

Ix- full spine and brain MRI

Ms- dependent on cause - possibly a shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a fixed dilated pupil and indication of?

A

Cn 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What would be the result of Neuro imaging in NPH?

A

Ventriculomegaly w/o sulcal enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of neurofibromatosis?

A

Autosomal dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What chr is affected in NF1 and list 3 features?

A

Chr 17

> =6, 15mm cafe au lair spots
Axillary/groin freckles
Iris hamatomas
Scoliosis
Phaechromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What chr is affected in NF2 and list prominent feature?

A

Chr 22

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
List 3 Sx of. An acoustic neuroma?
Unilateral hearing loss Reduced facial sensation Balance problems
26
What is the 1st line and GS Ix for acoustic neuromas? Also what sign will be present on GS to be diagnostic?
1st line- Audio gram GS- gondolinium enhanced MRI scan- will show 'absence of dural tail'
27
What is the Rx for prophylaxis of migraines?
Propranolol Topiramate- avoid in girls of bearing age Amitryptiline
28
What nerve is affected in a mid shaft humeus fracture and what happens?
Radial nerve --> Wrist drop
29
What is the mode of inheritance of charcot marie tooth syndrome?
autosomal dominant
30
What nerve is affected in amurosis fugax?
retinal/opthalmic artery (branch of ICA)
31
What is the key diagnostic test in GBS and what does it show?
Lumbar puncture (raised protein, with normal wcc)
32
How long can a person who suffered from their first unprovoked/isolated seizure with no evidence in imaging/EEG not drive for?
6 months
33
What is the associated effects of an anterior cerebral artery infarct?
Contralateral hemiparesis sesnoryt loss lower extremity > upper
34
What are the associated effects of a middle cerebral artery infarct?
Contralateral hemiparesis sensory loss greater in upper extremity contralateral homonymous heminanopia aphasia
35
What are the associated effects of a posterior cerebral artery infarct?
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing Visual agnosia
36
What is werbers syndrome?
Weber's syndrome is a form of midbrain stroke (posterior cerebral artery) characterised by the an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis
37
Wha are the characteristics of Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)?
postural instability, impairment of vertical gaze, parkinsonism, frontal lobe dysfunction
38
What is the tx of choice for an essential tremor?
Propranolol
39
What are sx and features of an acoustic neuroma?
vertigo sensorineural hearing loss unilateral tinnitus absent corneal reflex facial palsy
40
What classification can be used for an acute ischaemic stroke?
The Oxford stroke (Bamford) classification.
41
What medication should you give to someone within 4.5 hours of having an ischaemic stroke?
Thrombolysis - Alteplase (IV).
42
What are the contraindications for alteplase?
Haemorrhage. Suspected SAH. Active bleeding. Recent GI infection or UTI. Recent surgery. Malignancy.
43
List the signs of a ACA infarct?
LL weakness and loss of sensation Gait apraxia Incontinence Drowsiness Decrease in spintaneous speech
44
List the signs of a MCA infarct?
UL and LL weakness Contralteral homonymous hemianopia Aphasia Dysphasia Facial droop
45
List the signs of PCA infarct?
Speech impairment + dysphagaia Cerebellar dysfunction Visual disturbances (contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing) visual agnosia prospagnosia
46
What are the signs of Werber's syndrome and what artery is affected?
Branches of posterior cerebral artery that supply midbrian Ipsilaterla CN3 Palsy contralkaterla weakness of UL and LL
47
What is the signs of Wallenberg syndrome/lateral medulalry syndrome and what aretry is affected?
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery ipsialteral facial pain and temp loss Contralateral limb/torso pain and temp loss Ataxia, Nystagmus
48
Give 4 signs of UMN weakness.
Increased muscle tone. Hyperreflexia. Spasticity. Minimal muscle atrophy.
49
Give 5 signs of LMN weakness.
Decreased muscle tone. Hyporeflexia. Flaccid. Muscle atrophy. Fasciculations.
50
Give 3 signs of Myasthenia Gravis.
Generalised fatiguability: Proximal limbs. Neck/face - head drop, ptosis. Extra-occular - diplopia. Speech and swallowing problems. Risk of other auto-immune disorders.
51
Peripheral Neuropathy: describe mononeuritis multiplex.
A patchy process where individual nerves are picked off randomly. Often it has an inflammatory or immune mediated cause. Chronic, slow progression.
52
What are the 3 main components of the Glasgow Coma scale?
Best motor response. Best vocal response. Best eye-opening response.
53
What spinal tract is responsible for motor response?
Corticospianl tract
54
What signals does the spinothalamic tract carry?
Anterior- Crude touch, light touch, vibration. Lateral- pain, temperature,
55
Give 2 population groups who may be at increased risk of a subdural haematoma.
Elderly and alcoholics - due to cerebral atrophy.
56
Give 3 symptoms of a subarachnoid haemorrhage.
‘Thunderclap’, maximum severity headache within seconds. Photophobia. Neck stiffness. Nausea and vomiting.
57
What investigations might you do in someone who you suspect has a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
CT head (star shaped). Cerebral angiography. Lumbar puncture - xanthochromia.
58
How do you manage and treat a patient who has had a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Nimodipine (CCB). Early intervention, support and close monitoring is essential.
59
Give 3 symptoms of Cauda Equina syndrome.
Bilateral sciatica - pain radiates down leg to foot. Saddle anaesthesia. Bladder/bowel dysfunction. Erectile dysfunction. Leg weakness.
60
Define frailty.
A state of increased vulnerability resulting from an ageing associated decline in reserve and function across multiple physiologic systems; the ability to cope with everyday stressors is therefore compromised.
61
What is relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)?
It is observed during the swinging light test. The patient’s pupils dilate when the light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. The affected eye still senses the light and produces pupillary sphincter constriction to some degree, albeit reduced.
62
What is another name for RAPD?
Marcus Gunn pupil.
63
In what conditions might you see RAPD?
MS. Glaucoma. Severe retinal disease. Optic nerve lesion.
64
List 5 RF for stroke?
Smoking Alcohol HTN Hyperlipidaemia obeisty DM AF
65
What is syncope?
A transient loss of conciousness, loss of postural tone
66
List 5 differentials for blackouts?
Vasovagal syncope cardiac syncope migraine w/ aura Hypoglycaemia TIAs non-epileptic seizures Intermittent hydrocephalus
67
What ix couold be done for blackouts
12 lead ECG Brain imaging EEG Video telemtery Tilt Table Test
68
List 3 features of Multi System Atrophy?
parkinsonism autonomic disturbance - erectile dysfunction: often an early feature - postural hypotension - atonic bladder cerebellar signs classical history of poor response to levodopa, impotence, urinary retention and age group.
69
List features of PSP?
impaired balance and therefore being prone to many falls. vertical gaze palsy. symmetrical onset and is poorly responsive to levodopa
70
what should be suspected with a Painful third nerve palsy
Posterior communictaion artery aneurysm
71
What diagnosis should be suspected in a Obese, young female with headaches / blurred vision
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
72
which of the muscles are typically spared in MND
Ocular muscles
73
What is Brown-Sequard syndrome a result of and list the main feature
BSS is a result of lateral hemisection of the spinal cord ipsilateral weakness below lesion ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
74
What is the GS ix for suspected stroke?
Non contrast CT head
75
List 5 triggers for a migraine?
Chocolate Hangovers Orgasms Cheese Oral contraceptives Lie ins Alcohol Tumult Exercise
76
List the triad associated with Horners syndrome
Ptosis, Miosis and Anhidrosis
77
What is GCA and list 3 fetaures?
GCA is agrnaulamatous vasuclitis of medium sized arteries Temporal headaches Jaw claudication Sclap tenderness Amurosis fugax Aching and stiffness
78
What is the firts line and GS Ix of GCA?
1st line- Infammmatory markers- Raised ESR GS- Temporal artery biopsy- granulamatous inflammation
79
What is the 1st line medication for focal seizures
Lamotrigine or Leviteracetam
80
What is Charcots Neurological triad and list the 3 features?
Charcot's neurological triad refers to a set of three classic clinical features associated with the progression of multiple sclerosis (MS) 1) Nystagmus 2) Dysarthria 3) Intention tremor
81
What is MS?
A chronic cell mediated autoimmune disorder charcterised by demyelination of the CNS (a type 4 hsr)
82
What cells are reponsible for myelination in a) CNS B) PNS
A) Oligodendrocytes B) Schwann cells
83
What criteria is used to make a diagnosis of MS
McDonalds criteria
84
List 2 signs/phenemenoms found in MS?
Lhermittes phenemenom- Parsatehesia in limbs following neck flexion Uhertoffs phenemenom- Increase in temp causes worsening of sx
85
List 2 findings in someone with MS
White matter plaques disseminaated in space and time CSF- oligoclonal bands
86
What type of lesion if bells palsy
LMN lesion
87
list the clincial features in Parkinson's disease
Bradykinesia Pill rolling resting tremor Postural insatbility Rigidity
88
What is Parkinson's disease?
A neurodegenerative disorder characterised by the loss of dopiminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
89
Give 2 histopathological signs of Parkinson’s disease.
Lewy bodies. Loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra.
90
What class of medications are used to treat PD?
Levodopa Dopmaine agonist e.g. Bromocriptine, ropinerole, Cabergoline MAO-B Inhibitors- seleglline COMT inhibitors- entacapone
91
What lobe of the brain is affected in Alzheimer’s disease?
Temporal lobe
92
Give histopathological signs of Alzheimer's disease
Excess intraneuronal Amyloid plaques Aggregates of TAU proteins-- neurofibliray tangles
93
What medication can be used to manage the sx of alzheimers dementia
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g Rivastigmine or memnatine
94
Frontotemporal dementia is characterised by what?
Pick bodies
95
What is the tx for GBS?
IVIG 5 days and plasma exchange
96
What is MG?
(T2 Hypersensitivity reaction) Automimmune disorder resulting in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors
97
What antibodies are associated with MG?
Acetylchloline receptor antibodies MUSK antibodies
98
What is the mx of a myasthenic crisis?
Plasmapharesis and IVIG
99
What other conditions is LEMS asscoaited with?
Small cell lung cancer ** breast and ovarian cancer to a lesser extent
100
What is LEMS?
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
101
What antibody is associated with LEMS
Anti P/Q voltage gated calcium channel
102
What si the mx of LEMS?
- treat underlyimg cancer if indicated -sx management- AMIFAMPRIDINE
103
What are the subtypes of MND and list their key sx?
1) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis UMN and LMN affected Babinski +ve, Fasiculations on tongue, Dysphagia, Dysarthria 2) Progressive Bulbar plasy (Bulbar)-> Medulla so CN 9,10,11,12 affected Carries the WORST PROGNOSIS 3) Progressive Muscle atrophy 4) Primar lateral Sclerosis
104
What is the 1st line tx for MND?
Riluzole
105
List the RF for carpal tunnel syndrome and what nerve is repsonsible?
OPRAH Obesity Pregnancy RA Acromegaly Hypothyroidism Median nerve
106
What is the mx of carpal tunnel?
moderate 1st line- wrist splint 2nd line- corticosteroid injection severe 1st line- surgical release
107
What is the GS ix for carpal tunnel?
EMG
108
List the causes of Cauda equina syndrome
Lumbar disc hernaition (L4/5 AND L5/S1)- Most common cause Neoplasm Abscess Iatrogenic causes
109
List 5 sx of Cauda equina?
Back pain Saddle anaesthesia Loss of senstaion in bladder and rectum Bilateral sciatica Bilateral LMN weakness Sexual dysfunction Reduced anal tone on PR exam Absent ankle reflex
110
GS ix of cauda equina
urgent MRI of spine
111
WHat is the mx of cauda equina syndrome
Surgical decompression ideally witthin 48 hours if malignancy- give dexamethasone
112
What tracts are repsonsible for a) Temp and pain b) crude touch c) sensory info of lower limbs d) Sensory info of upper limbs
a) Lateral spinothalamic tract b) Anterior spinothalamic tract c) DCML- Fasiculus Gracillis (Medial) d) DCML- Fasiculus Cuneatus (Lateral)
113
What is Subacute combined degenertaion of the spinal cord
A neurological complication associated with vit b12 deficiency
114
List the causes of vit b12 deficiency that can cause SCDC
prenicious anemia malabsorbtion syndromes Dietary deficiencies Misuse of nitrous oxide (functional rather than true)
115
list the importance of vit b12 and how a deficiency of b12 may lead to sx of SCDC?
- B12 is essential to the syntheisis of myelin therefore in b12 deificiency the synthesis is compromised and leading to demyelination of nerve fibres - in the absence of b12, the metabolism of certain amino acids and fatty acids is disrupted thus leading to an acucmulation of HOMOCYSTEINE and METHYLYMALONIC ACID --> toxic metabolites lead to neuro sx of SCDC
116
What ix can be done for a diagnosis of SCDC?
Folate and B12 levels Homocysteine levels- rasied level despite normal B12 levels may indicated functional deficiency MRI of spine to exclude cervical myelopahy EMG
117
What is the managemnt of a brain abscess
surgery- abscess cavity is debrided Abx- 3rd gen cephalosporin + metronidazole Intracranial pressure mx- dexamethasone
118
What may be seen on imaging for brain abscess?
Ring enhancing lesion on CT
119
When should a refferal for Bells Palsy be made to ENT?
If no signs of improvement in 3 weeks
120
List sx of idiopathic intracranial htn
Blurred vision Headaches Papillooedema Enlarged blind spots may ahve 6th nerve palsy
121
What is the tx for trigeminal neuralgia?
1st line- Carbamazepine other include- Phenytoin Lamotrigine, Gabapentin
122
What is pituitary apoplexy?
Sudden enlargement of a pituitary tumour (usually non-functioning macroadenoma) secondary to haemorrhage or infarction.
123
What is the ix and mx of choice for pituitary apoplexy?
ix- MRI is diagnostic mx- urgent steroid replacement due to loss of ACTH surgery
124
What is wernickes aphasia and what lobe is compromised?
receptive aphasia- speech fluent, comprehension abnormal, repetition impaired Temporal lobe
125
What is Brocas aphasia and what lope in compromised?
Expressive aphasia- difficulty speaking fluently, and their speech may be limited to a few words at a time. Speech is halting or effortful.
126
What is the most common complication of meningitis?
Sensorineural Hearing loss
127
What are the signs of pontine haemorrhage?
Low GCS Paralysis Bilateral pinpoint pupils
128
What class of medication should be avoided in myasthenia gravis
Beta blockers
129
Where do secondary brain tumours arise from?
Lung Colorectal Melanoma Breast Kidney
130
If clopidogrel is CI in the secondary managemnt of an ischaemic stroke what is the mx?
Aspirin 75mg + Dipyramidole
131
What is the mx of cervical myelopathy?
Surgery
132
If brain imaging is required in a TIA, what is the bets modality to use?
MRI Brain w/ diffuse weighted imaging
133
List 3 sx of Bells Plasy
Facial nerve palsy --> FOREHEAD AFFECTED Hyperacuisis Aletred taste Dry eyes Post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis)
134
What is the management of Bells Palsy
Oral prednisalone + eyecare
135
What is the inheritance pattern of Friedreich's ataxia
Autosomal recessive- trinucleotide repeat of GAA
136
From which cancers do secondary brain tumours arise from
Lung Breast Kidney Melanoma Colorectal
137
What medication can be used to treat Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
Acetazolamide- a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
138
What is the most common complication following meningitis infection
Sensorineural hearing loss
139
List 3 CI for a lumbar puncture?
Coagulopathy/bleeding disoreder Signs of raised ICP Sings of brain hernaition Skin infection of puncture site Focal neurology
140
What is the mos common caustive agent of encephalitis?
HSV1
141
List the rf for alzheimers
Downs syndrome Lonliness Depression
142
What is the ABCD2 score and list the contents?
Stratifes the risk ofstroke following a TIA Age >60 BP- >140/90 Clinical features- - unilateral wekaness- 2 - Speech, no wekaness- 1 Duration ->60 mins- 2 -10-59 mins- 1 Diabetes- 1
143
List 3 factors that favour pseduseizures compared to true epileptic seizures?
Gradual onset Doesnt occur when alone Pelvic thrusting More common in females Crying after seizures Family member with epeilepsy
144
List 5 RF of isachaemic stroke
Smoking HTN Obesity Diabetes Afib hypercholestraemia Male, Age
145
What is the difference between strokes and epileptical events?
Strokes present with negative sx and obey the vascular territory whereas epileptic events present with positive sx and do not obey vascualr territory
146
What ix can be done post acutely following an ischaemic stroke?
Carotid USS Echocardiogram CT/MRI angiogrpahy
147
What is the chronic mx of a ischaemic stroke?
HALTSS HTN Antiplatelet- clopidogrel 75mg Lipid lowering theraphy Tobacco cessation Sugar- get diabets under control Surgery- carotid endarectomy if stenosis >70% (can be 50%- varies according to orgs)
148
What is the main risk associated with thrombolysis
bleeding
149
List 4 causes of painelss monocular vision loss
Amurosis fugax retinal dettachemnt vitreous haemorrhage Anterior ischaemic optic neuritis
150
List 2 complications of epilepsy?
Status epilepticus depression suicide Sudden unexpected death in Epilepsy (SUDEP)
151
WHat is the GS Ix for carotid sinus thrombosis?
MR venogram
152
List 3 triggers of epilepsy?
Poor sleep drugs and alcohol stroke Intracranial haemorrhage
153
List 2 differential sof essential tremors
Parkinsons Hyperthyroidism Drug induced tremor
154
What is the rules of driving following a TIA
do not drive for a month- no need to inform DVLA
155
What is the MOA of triptans and list its CI for usage?
5HT Agonist CI- In ischaemic heart disease and cerebrovascular disease
156
What are the side effects associated with triptans?
Flushing, Tingling, Chest and throat tightness (may mimic angina)
157
What is Brudzinkis sign?
passive neck flexion elicits hip and knee flexion
158
What is kernigs sign?
Knee and hip flexed at 90. Extension of the knee is painful or limited in extension.
159
Definition of seizures?
Transient occurunces of symptoms due to abnormal excessive neuronal activiy in the brain
160
What is the definition of epilepsy?
Neurological disorder characterised by the recurrence of seizures
161
What is cushings triad for raised ICP?
HTN/wide pulse pressure Bradycardia Irregular breathing
162
List the 3 tracts that are affected in SCDC?
1. Dorsal Columns- distal tingling/numbness. Impaired propioception and vibration 2. Lateral corticospinal tracts- Muscle weakness, hypereflexia, UMN sigsn 3. Spinocerebellar tract- ataxia and romberg +ve
163
'hot potato' speech is indicative of what?
Pseudobulbar palsy
164
List sx of anterior inferior cerebellar artery leison?
SImilar to wallenburh but ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness
165
List the sx of thoracic outlet syndrome?
Painless muscle wasting of hand--> weakness in grasping Numbness and tingling Cold hands Swelling
166
In cn 3 palsy, what isn the sataus of the light and consensual reflex?
Absent light reflex Intact consensual reflex
167
What EEG findings are present in infantile spasms?
Hypsarrythmia - Poor prognosis Infantile spasms/west syndrome- characterised by salam attacks
168
What EEG findings are concurrent with Benign rolandic epilepsy?
Centerotemporal spikes