Neurology Flashcards
What is the clinical pattern of a left MCA stroke?
Right hemiparesis (face/arm > leg),
Aphasia
Right sensory/visual inattention
Right hemianopia
What is the clinical pattern of a right MCA stroke?
Left hemiparesis (face/arm > leg)
Dysarthria
Left sensory/visual inattention
Left hemianopia
What are clinical features of a lacunar stroke?
Isolated face/arm/leg weakness OR numbness
Dysarthria
What are clinical features of basilar artery/brainstem stroke?
Diplopia
Vertigo
Dysarthria
Dysphagia
Ataxia
Hemi/tetraparesis
Ipsilateral face/contralateral body numbness or weakness
What are common causes of ischaemic stroke?
- Atherosclerotic carotid artery disease
- cardioembolic (Afib)
What is the risk of stroke in untreated TIA in the first week post event?
10%
What work up is indicated for TIA?
- CT Head
- ECG
- Carotid imaging
- DAPT (or DOAC if AFib)
- Anti-hypertensive
- high dose statin
What investigations are indicated for ischaemic stroke mechanism?
- Arterial pathology:
- CT-A (aortic arch to cerebral vertex) or carotid doppler USS - Cardiac source of embolism:
- ECG or holter
- ECHO: akinetic segment, endocarditis, bubble study if age < 60 and no other cause - Rare cause
- thrombophilia
- vasculitis
- Fabry’s disease
What investigations can be used to investigate mechanism for ICH?
- CT-A to exclude vascular malformation
- CT-V in patients with suspicion of venous sinus thrombosis
- Catheter angiography if high suspicion of AVM
- delayed MRI (8 weeks post stroke) to exclude underlying lesion or microangiopathy
What patients with ischaemic stroke are eligible for thrombolysis?
- last known well <4.5h
OR 4.5-9h from midpoint of sleep with favourable perfusion imaging - potentially disabling deficit
What are contraindications to thrombolysis for stroke?
-Haemorrhage on CT brain
-Extensive hypodensity on CT brain
- active systemic bleeding
- Recent GI/GU bleeding, surgery or trauma (relative)
- BP >185/105 or BSL < 2.7
- infective endocarditis
- Aortic dissection
- malignant brain tumour
- INR > 1.7
- PLT < 100
- DOAC < 48 hours ago unless Dabi reversed for low Xa level
What are risk factors for symptomatic ICH post tPA for ischaemic stroke seen on CT head?
CT hypodensity
Severe leukoaraiosis
Large core
Severe hypoperfusion
Delayed reperfusion
What is orolingual angiodema post tPA for stroke and how is it managed?
Swelling of lips and tongue, occurs in 2% of patients (up to 5% in those on ACEi)
Usually unilateral (contralateral to stroke side)
Occurs 15-105 minutes post stroke
Managed with hydrocortisone
Which sites of vessel occlusion are indications for consideration of thrombectomy in ischaemic stroke?
- ICA + M1
- tandem disease (cervical + intracranial)
- large proximal M2
- Basilar
Who should endovascular thrombectomy for ischaemic stroke be considered for?
- major vessel occlusion
- ICA or M1 in 0-24 hour window
- basilar in 0-24 hour window
- good premorbid function
What management strategies are used for ICH?
- Target SBP 140
- Reverse anticoagulants
- stroke unit
What is the indication for carotid endarterectomy?
Within 2 weeks of TIA or stroke in relevant territory with carotid stenosis 70-99%
When is warfarin indicated for stroke prophylaxis in Afib?
- mechanical heart valves
- Valvular AFib (moderate -severe MS or rheumatic MS)
- CrCl < 30 mL/min
What preventative care is indicated in patients with Afib with absolute contraindications to anticoagulation?
LAA closure
In what patients with TIA and stroke is DAPT indicated and for how long?
High risk TIA = ABCD2 >4
Minor stroke with NIHSS 0-3
Given for 21 days
What is the ABCD2 score for TIA?
Estimate of risk of stroke post TIA
Age: >60 = 1 pt
BP >140/90 = 1 pt
Clinical features of TIA:
- Unilateral weakness = 2pt
- Speech disturbance without weakness = 1 pt
- all others = 0 pt
Duration of symptoms
- <10 minutes =0
- 10-59 minutes = 1 pt
- >60 = 2 pt
Diabetes = 1 pt
What medications are indicated post ischaemic stroke and TIA?
- Antiplatelet or anticoagulant
- Antihypertensive aiming SBP < 130
- Statin or fibrate aiming LDL < 1.8
In which patients should PFO closure be considered?
Age < 60 years with embolic stroke without other cause for stroke seen with PFO seen on bubble study
What lifestyle modifications are recommended post stroke or TIA?
Smoking cessation
Alcohol reduction
Weight management
Diet adjustment
Physical activity
What is the underlying pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?
- Alpha-synuclein dysfunction affecting dopaminergic neurons in nigrostriatal and mesolimbic regions
- serotinergic in dorsal raphe (mood/sleep)
-noradrenergic in locus coeruleus (mood/sleep) - cholinergic in nucleus basalis (memory/sleep)
- structural in cortical lewy body (memory/hallucinations)
What environmental risk factors are associated with developing Parkinson’s disease?
Pesticides
Beta blocker use
What is the diagnostic criteria of Parkinsons disease?
Slowness and/or stiffness (cog wheel) and/or resting tremor
What feature distinguishes Parkinson’s from multiple systems atrophy?
ANS involvement
What is Levodopa and how does it treat symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?
Dopamine precursor with enzyme inhibitor
Effective for slowness and stiffness, less effective for tremor
What are examples of dopamine agonists used for Parkinsons disease? What are there side effects?
Pramipexole
Ropinirole
Sleepiness
Impulse control disorder: gambling, shopping, hypersexuality
What is the role of Selegiline, rasagiline and safinamide in Parkinson’s disease?
MAOI-B
Enzyme inhibition increases dopamine present in synapse
What are examples and the role of catechol-o-methyl transferase inhibitors in Parkinson’s disease?
Entecapone and opicapone
Prevent the methylation of levodopa to 3-O-methyldopa, thus increasing the bioavailability of levodopa in the GIT
Reduce the amount of “off” time
What is the mechanism of action and role of amantadine in Parkinson’s disease?
Weak antagonist of NMDA receptor to increase dopamine release and block dopamine re uptake
Reduces dyskinesia
What are the benefits of apo-morphine and deep brain stimulation over oral dopamine agents in Parkinson’s?
Overcome GI issues that impact absorption of oral meds
What is apomorphine and how is it given in Parkinson’s?
D1 and D2 receptor agonist
Metabolised by liver so given via continuous subcutaneous infusion
What are non-motor symptoms are Parkinson’s disease?
- constipation
- bladder dysfunction (alpha blockers)
- postural hypotension (fludrocortisone, pyridostigmine
- excess in inadequate saliva
- dysphagia
- speech
- Neuropsychiatric: impulse control, depression, anxiety,
- sleep disorder (clonazepam)
- cognitive impairment (rivastigmine)
- Psychosis (quetiapine, clozapine)
What are characteristics of frontal onset seizures?
Focal clonic motor
Hypermotor behaviour
What are characteristics of Temporal onset seizures?
Mesial: autonomic, dysmnesic, deja vu, jamais vu, gustatory, olfactory
Lateral/posterior neocortical: auditory, complex visual, dysphasia
What are characteristics of parietal onset seizures?
Somatosensory (positive symptoms help distinguish from neuropathy)
What are characteristics of occipital onset seizures?
Simple visual
What are the different types of generalised seizures?
- Absence: behavioural arrest, automatisms (childhood only)
- Myoclonic: limb jerks/twitching without loss of consciousness
- Tonic: co-contraction of agonist + antagonist muscles <15 secs +/- vocalisation
- Atonic: loss of muscle tone
- Clonic: repetitive jerking movements
- Generalised tonic-clonic: tonic posturing followed by clonic limb movements
What proportion of patients with PNES have epileptic seizures?
9-15%
What are the features of an absence seizure?
No Aura
Staring and automatisms lasting < 10 seconds
No post spell symptoms
What are the features of a focal seizure with loss of awareness (complex partial seizure)?
+/- aura or 10-30 sensory march
Staring and automatisms with preserved posture lasting 30-180 seconds
Followed by amnesia, aphasia, sleepiness, confusion, incontinence
What are the features of a tonic-clonic seizure?
+/- preceding aura
Brief tonic posturing followed by clonic movements lasting 1-3 minutes
Always followed by amnesia, sleep, incontinence, tongue biting
What are the features of psychogenic attack?
+/- aura
Variable responsiveness and nonstereotyped movements, last 5-10 minutes
Often no post seizure symptoms
What are the features of syncope?
Preceded by light headedness
Falling, with eye closure and variable movements, last 1-5 minutes
Often no post seizure symptoms
What are the features of migraine?
Prolonged sensory march
Presence of positive symptoms (paraesthesia)
Last 20-60 minutes
Followed by headache
What are the features of TIA?
Rapid sensory march 1-10 seconda, followed by negative symptoms (weakness) lasting < 60 minutes
No symptoms post attack
What are the features of parasomnia?
No aura
Vocalisation, confusion, ambulation lasting minutes
Followed by amnesia, confusion
What are the features of cataplexy?
Emotional provacation
Muscle atonia with preserved consciousness or sleep attack lasting seconds to minutes
No following symptoms
What is the value of EEG in seizure work up?
For work up of specific disorders:
- Genetic General Epilepsy
- potentially treable/benign disease
- localisation of seizure focus in surgical candidates
- non-convulsive status epilepticus
- non epileptic attack disorders
- brain death
High specificity, low sensitivity - sensitivity increased with serial EEGs
What is the most common interictal EEG finding for adult patients with focal seizures?
Anterior temporal lobe spike discharge
What electric potentials on EEG have a high eliptogenic potential?
- anterior temporal lobe spikes
- vertex spikes
- generalised paroxysmal fast activity
- generalised slow spike and wave
- hypsarrhythmia
What electric potentials on EEG have a moderate eliptogenic potential?
- frontal lobe spikes
- central-midtemporal spikes
- occipital spikes
- generalised atypical spike and wave
- photoparoxysmal discharge
What electric potentials on EEG have a no eliptogenic potential?
- benign variants
- normal sleep activity
- photic driving
- hyperventilation induced changes
- drowsy bursts
What is the role and goal of AEDs in seizures?
Only indicated for seizure prophylaxis in epilepsy with risk of recurrent seizure > 60%
Treatment goal: no seizure, no side effects, no lifestyle limitations
What AEDs are contraindicated in HLA-B*1502 allele (Chinese descent)?
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Phenytoin
What AEDs interfere with OCP?
- topiramate reduces estradiol
- carbamazepine reduces estradiol and progestin
- lamotrigine reduces progestin
- Phenytoin reduces estradiol and progestin
What AEDs are affected by OCP?
- Lamotrigine reduced by OCP
- valproate reduced by OCP
What AEDs have no effect on OCP?
- levetriacetam
- lacosamide
What AEDs should be used for the treatment of partial epilepsy?
Sodium channel antagonists:
- carbamazepine
- phenytoin
- lamotrigine
- oxcarbazepine
- lacosamide
- zonisamide
- parampanel
What AEDs should be used for the treatment of Generalised Genetic epilepsy?
- valproate
- levetiracetam
- topiramate
- lamotrigine
- ethyl succinamide
- Phenobarbitol
- zonisamide
- perampanel
What AEDs should be avoided in each of these situations:
- mycolonus
- hepatic disease
- renal disease
- Myoclonus: avoid sodium channel blockers and lamotrigine
- Hepatic disease: sodium valproate
- renal disease: levetiracetam
Which AEDs should be avoided in the following co-morbidities?
- behavioural disorders
- PCOS
- Insomnia
- Tremors
- cognitive issues
- nephrolithiasis
- pancytopenia
- behavioural disorders: levetriacetam
- PCOS: valproate
- Insomnia: lamotrigine
- Tremors: valproate
- cognitive issues: topiramate, phenobarbitol
- nephrolithiasis: topiramate, zonisamide
- pancytopenia: carbamazepine
Which AEDs should be considered in the following co-morbidities?
- behavioural disorders
- migraines
- Chorea
- Diabetes Mellitus
- behavioural disorders: valproate, lamotrigine
- migraines: topiramate, valproate
- Chorea: carbamazepine
- Diabetes Mellitus: topiramate, gabapentin
Which AEDs should not be combined?
-Typically those that share the same mechanism of action e.g levetiracetam with brivaracetam
- Phenytoin with carbamazepine (induce metabolism of each other)
- Phenobarbital with valproate (valproate increase phenobarbitol, phenobarbital reduces valproate)
- rufinamide with valproate
What AEDs are sodium channel blockers?
-Phenytoin
- carbamazepine
- oxcarbazepine
- eslicarbazepine
- lamotrigine
- lacosamide (slow channels only)
- rufinamide
- zonisamide
- topiramate
- felbamate
What AEDs are GABA enhancers?
- phenobarbital
- primidone
- clobazam
- clonazepam
- valproate
- topiramate*
- vigabatrine*
- tiagabine*
- felbamate*
*multiple mechanisms of action