Neurology (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A

A chronic, relapsing-remitting demyelinating disorder caused by autoimmune destruction of myelin and oligodendrocytes in the CNS, leading to multiple transient neurological defects separated in space and time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Summarise the aetiology of multiple sclerosis

A

Aetiology is unknown
Genetic factors - female, HLA-DR2
Environmental factors - infection, vitamin D deficiency
Autoimmune-mediated damage to myelin sheaths results in impaired axonal conduction

Risk factors:
EBV exposure
Prenatal vitamin D levels
Autoimmune Disease 
Female 
Smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis

A

Most common in women

Age of presentation usually 20-40 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A

Multiple transient neurological symptoms spread over space and time
Symptoms depend on where is affected
Charcot’s neurological triad - dysarthria, nystagmus, intention tremor

Optic neuritis:
Acute onset unilateral loss of visual acuity and colour perception with RAPD, preceded by pain

Sensory:
Parasthesia
Numbness
Burning

Motor:
Ataxia
Muscle weakness
Spasm
Stiffness
Heaviness

ANS:
Constipation
Urinary incontinence

Depression
Psychosis

Lhermitte’s sign - electric shock down back and radiates to limbs when bending neck forwards

Uhthoff’s Sign: worsening of neurological symptoms as the body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, saunas, hot tubs etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of multiple sclerosis?

A

Optic Neuritis:
Impaired Visual Acuity
Loss of colour vision
Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect - Both pupils contract (unaffected side) and both pupils dilate (affected side)

Fundoscopy: Swollen Optic Head (active disease) & Optic Atrophy (chronic disease)

Visual Field Testing: 
Central scotoma (blind sport in normal visual field if optic nerve is affected 
Field defects if optic radiations are affected 

Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia:
Lateral horizontal gaze causes failure of adduction of the contralateral eye
Indicates lesion of the contralateral medial longitudinal fasciculus

Sensory: Paraesthesia
Motor: UMN signs
Cerebellar: Limb ataxia (intention tremor, past-pointing, dysmetria), dysdiadochokinesia, ataxic wide-based gait and scanning speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for multiple sclerosis?

A

McDonald criteria = 2 or more CNS lesions with corresponding symptoms, separated in time and space

MRI head - paraventricular plaques (hyperintensities)

MRI spinal cord - demyelinating lesions

CSF - increased IgG, electrophoresis shows unmatched oligoclonal bands

Evoked Potentials - Visual, auditory and somatosensory evoked potentials may show delayed conduction velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define encephalitis

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma leading to acute neurological dysfunction such as seziures, coma, personality changes, cranial nerve palsies, speech and motor problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Summarise the aetiology of encephalitis

A
Viruses most common:
HSV - most common
Enterovirus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Measles
Mumps
EBV
Adenovirus
Coxsackie
HIV

Bacteria:
Listeria monocytogenes
Mycobacteria

Non-Viral causes (RARE): Syphilis, Staphylococcus aureus

In immunocompromised patients: CMV, Toxoplasmosis, Listeria
AI or Paraneoplastic: Associated with certain antibodies (e.g. anti-NMDA, anti-VGKC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of encephalitis

A

No gender predominance

Age bimodal distribution - under 1 year old and over 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of encephalitis?

A
SUBACUTE ONSET - HOURS TO DAYS
Fever
Headache
Seizure
Coma
Drowsiness
Fatigue
Malaise
Confusion
Altered consciousness
Altered brain function - personality changes
Vomiting 
Meningism: Neck stiffness, photophobia 
Focal neurological symptoms (e.g. dysphagia, hemiplegia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of encephalitis?

A
Reduced consciousness 
Deteriorating GCS 
MMSE may reveal cognitive/psychiatric disturbance 
Seizures
Pyrexia/fever

Signs of Meningism:
Neck stiffness
Photophobia
Kernig’s test positive - lie supine, flex hip and extend knee causes pain

Signs of raised ICP:
Cushing’s Response: triad - hypertension, bradycardia, irregular breathing
Papilledema
Focal neurological signs (e.g. dysphagia, hemiplegia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for encephalitis?

A

FBC - elevated WCC
Viral serology

MRI brain - increased intensities in frontotempr=oral region suggests HSV
CT - check for raised ICP
If no raised ICP - Lumbar puncture
CSF culture - high lymphocytes, increased monocytes and protein, normal glucose, elevated RBCs
Blood cultures
CSF PCR can show viral causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define stroke

A

An acute, permanent neurological deficit lasting >24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Summarise the aetiology of stroke

A

Ischaemic stroke - most common
Acute blockage of artery or critical stenosis of artery, preventing blood flow to brain
Thromobotic - atherosclerosis, fibromuscular dysplasia
Embolic - AF, atheroembolic, DVT passing through patent foramen ovale
Hypoxic - sepsis, infants, drowning
Hypotension

Haemorrhagic stroke:
Burst blood vessel
Intracerebral haemorrhage
SAH - due to ruptured berry aneurysm
Hypertension
Amyloid angiopathy
Arteriovenous Malformation
Charcot Bouchard microaneurysm rupture (aneurysms within the brain vasculature that occur in small blood vessels)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the risk factors of stroke?

A
Ischaemic stroke RF:
Hypertension
Smoking
Dislipidaemia
Family history
Increased age
Diabetes
AF
Carotid artery stenosis
Haemorrhagic stroke RF:
Increased age
FHx
Haemophilia
Anticoagulation
Hypertension
Male
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of stroke

A

Common
3rd most common cause of death in industrialised countries
Age 70+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of stroke?

A
Sudden onset
Numbness
Muscle weakness
Visual disturbance
Sensory or cognitive impairment
Impaired coordination and/or consciousness
Head or neck pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of stroke?

A

Anterior Cerebral:
Lower limb weakness & Confusion

Middle Cerebral: 
Arms and face more than lower limbs
Facial weakness
Hemiparesis
Hemisensory loss
Apraxia
Hemineglect (parietal lobe)
Receptive or expressive dysphasia (Wernicke's and Broca's areas respectively)
Quadrantopia (if superior or inferior optic radiations are affected) 

Posterior Circulation: hemianopia, vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, deafness, facial weakness

Intracerebral: headache, meningism, focal neurological signs, nausea/vomiting, signs of raised ICP, seizures

Initially: flaccid paralysis
Later: hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for stroke?

A
Bloods: 
FBC
U&E’s
Glucose
Clotting profile (check if thrombophilia especially in young patients)
Lipids
Cardiac enzymes 

ECG: Check for arrhythmias that may be the source of the clot (AF)
CT Head Scan: Distinguish between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke
MRI-Brain: Higher sensitivity for infarction but less available
Echo: Identify cardiac thrombus, endocarditis and other cardiac sources of embolism
Carotid Doppler Ultrasound: Check for carotid artery disease (e.g. atherosclerosis)
CT Cerebral Angiogram: Detect dissections or intracranial stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the management of stroke?

A

Ischaemic:
<4.5 hours - CT head to exclude haemorrhage, thrombolysis with IV tissue plasminogen activator

> 4.5 hours:
Aspirin 300mg and clopidogrel - prevent further thrombosis
Swallow assessment
GCS monitoring

Heparin anticoagulation considered if there is a high risk of emboli recurrence or stroke progression (carotid dissection, recurrent cardiac emboli)
Thromboprophylaxis
Secondary Prevention - Aspirin and dipyridamole, Warfarin anticoagulation (AF)

Control risk factors:
Hypertension
Hyperlipidaemia
Treat carotid artery disease

Haemorrhagic stroke:
Surgery - clip or coil to block bleed
Craniotomy to reduce increased ICP
Nimodipine CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the possible complications of stroke?

A
Cerebral oedema (increased ICP)
Immobility 
Infections
DVT 
Cardiovascular events
Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Summarise the prognosis of stroke

A

10% mortality in the 1st month
Up to 50% survivors will be dependent
10% recurrence 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define motor neurone disease

A

Progressive neurodegenerative disease involving the motor cortex, anterior horn and cranial nerves, causing selective death and loss of neurones. It causes a combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs but NO sensory changes, sphincter disturbance or eye movement changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the types of motor neurone disease?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - most common (80%)
Affects anterior horn and lateral corticospinal tract
LMN and UMN signs present
Muscle weakness, hyperreflexia, fasciculations, upgoing plantars, muscle atrophy

Progressive bulbar palsy
Affects cranial nerves IX - XII
Dysarthria, dysphagia, brisk jaw reflex, wasting and fasciculation of tongue

Progressive muscular atropy
LMN signs
Weakness, wasting, fasciculations, foot drop
Distal muscles affected first

Progressive lateral sclerosis
UMN signs
Spastic leg weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Summarise the aetiology of motor neurone disease
Unknown Thought to be free radical damage and glutamate excitotoxicity Genetic predisposition - SOD1 mutation on chromosome 21 Motor neurone degeneration
26
Summarise the epidemiology of motor neurone disease
Men affected more (3:2) Average age of presentation 60 years old 5-10% have family history in autosomal dominant inheritence
27
What are the presenting symptoms of motor neurone disease?
``` Muscle weakness Muscle fasciculation Dysarthria Dysphagia Weak grip - difficulty turning door handle Weak shoulder abduction - difficulty washing hair Foot drop Proximal myopathy Stumbling spastic gait ```
28
What are the signs on physical examination of motor neurone disease?
UMN signs - hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis, weakness, upgoing plantars LMN signs - weakness, fasciculations, atrophy, absent reflexes
29
What are the appropriate investigations for motor neurone disease?
No diagnostic investigation EMG - denervation features Nerve conduction - normal Brain/spine MRI - exclude structural cause Lumbar puncture - exclude infectious aetiology Bloods - CK, ESR, anti-GMI ganglioside antibodies elevated
30
Define epilepsy
A tendency to recurrent, unprovoked and unpredictable seizures (a transient occurrence of signs and/or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous activity in the brain) Types of seizures: Partial - only affect part of the brain Simple partial seizure - consciousness not affected Complex partial seizure - consciousness affected ``` Generalised - affect both hemispheres and consciousness Atonic Tonic-clonic Myoclonic Absence Tonic Clonic ```
31
Summarise the aetiology of epilepsy
Increased excitation Decreased inhibition ``` Idiopathic Secondary: Tumour Stroke Infection Injury Inflammation (MS, vasculitis) Toxic/Metabolic (sodium imbalance) Drugs (alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepine) Vascular (haemorrhage, infarction) Malignant HTN or eclampsia Congenital abnormalities (cortical dysplasia) Neurodegenerative disease (Alzheimer's disease) ```
32
What are the risk factors of epilepsy?
``` Age (young & elderly) Family History Head Injury Stroke & Other vascular diseases Dementia Brain Infections Seizures in Childhood ```
33
Summarise the epidemiology of epilepsy
Common - 1% of population | Occurs in children and elderly
34
What are the presenting symptoms of epilepsy?
Partial Seizure Presentation: Frontal Lobe Focal Motor Seizure: Motor convulsions, post-ictal flaccid weakness (Todd's paralysis), Jacksonian March (spasm spreading from mouth/digit to ipsilateral side of face) Temporal Lobe Seizures: Aura (visceral or psychic symptoms), Hallucinations (usually olfactory or affecting taste) Frontal Lobe Complex Partial Seizure: Loss of consciousness, Involuntary actions/disinhibition, Rapid recovery Generalised Seizures: Tonic - sudden muscle stiffness, patient falls backwards Atonic - sudden relaxation of muscles, patient falls forwards Tonic-Clonic (Grand Mal): Vague symptoms before attack (e.g. irritability), Tonic phase (generalised muscle spasm), Clonic phase (repetitive synchronous jerks), Faecal/urinary incontinence, Tongue biting, Post-ictal phase: impaired consciousness, lethargy, confusion, headache, back pain, stiffness Absence (Petit Mal): Onset in CHILDHOOD, Loss of consciousness but MAINTAINED POSTURE, patient appears stop talking, stares into space, NO post-ictal phase Non-Convulsive Status Epilepticus: Acute confused state, often fluctuating, Difficult to distinguish from dementia
35
What are the signs on physical examination of epilepsy?
Tongue biting marks | Patients normal in between seizures
36
What are the appropriate investigations for epilepsy?
Bloods: FBC, U&E, LFT’s, Glucose, Calcium, Magnesium, ABG, Toxicology Screen, Prolactin (shows a transient increase shortly after ‘true’ seizure) EEG: helps to confirm diagnosis & classify the epilepsy 3Hz waves - absence Ictal EEGs are particularly useful CT/ MRI shows structure, space occupying or vascular lesions Other investigations: if suspected to be a secondary seizure i.e. due to infection – LP, HIV serology
37
What is the appropriate management of epilepsy?
STATUS EPILEPTICUS MX: Seizure lasting >5 minutes of continuous seizure activity or repetitive seizures without regaining consciousness ABC approach: resuscitate & protect airway, breathing and circulation Check GLUCOSE (give glucose if hypoglycaemic) and consider thiamine FIRST LINE = IV lorazepam OR IV/PR diazepam (benzodiazepine) REPEAT again after 10 minutes if seizure doesn’t stop If no response - IV phenytoin If this also fails, consider general anaesthesia (e.g. thiopentone) – intubation and mechanical ventilation required Treat the CAUSE (e.g. hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia) Check plasma levels of anticonvulsants (status epilepticus is often caused by lack of compliance with anti-epileptic medications) Treatment of newly diagnosed epilepsy: Start anti-convulsant treatment after > 2 unprovoked seizures FOCAL Seizure 1st Line: lamotrigine or carbamazepine GENERALISED Seizure 1st Line: sodium valproate Absence = ethosuximide Other anti-convulsant: phenytoin, levetiracetam, clobazam, topiramate, gabapentin, vigabatrin Patient Education: Avoid triggers (lack of sleep, stress, alcohol, changes in medication) Use seizure diaries Consideration for women of child-bearing age as AED’s can have teratogenic effects Surgery may be considered for refractory epilepsy
38
What are the possible complications of epilepsy?
Fractures from tonic-clonic seizures Behavioural problems Sudden death in epilepsy Complications of anti-epileptic drugs: Gingival hypertrophy (phenytoin) Neutropoenia and osteoporosis (carbamazepine) Stevens-Johnson syndrome (lamotrigine)
39
Summarise the prognosis of epilepsy
50% Remission after 1 year | Mortality: 2 in 100,000/year directly related to seizure or secondary to injury
40
Define neurofibromatosis
An autosomal dominant condition affecting neural crest cells, resulting in multiple neurocutaneous tumours. Neurofibromatosis type I - manifests with cafe-au-lait spots, painless cutaneous nodules, Lisch iris nodules, scoliosis, optic nerve gliomas Neurofibromatosis type II - characterized by bilateral acoustic neuromas, bilateral juvenile cataracts and meningiomas
41
Summarise the aetiology of neurofibromatosis
Autosomal dominant condition causing defiency in tumour suppressor gene Type I: Mutation in NF1 gene of chromosome 17 Type II: Mutation in NF2 gene of chromosome 22
42
Summarise the epidemiology of neurofibromatosis
Neurofibromatosis type I is more common | No gender or race predilection
43
What are the presenting symptoms of neurofibromatosis?
``` Type I: Multiple painless, mobile lumps under the skin (neurofibromas) Patches of milk-coffee coloured skin on back, buttocks and thigh Pain - peripheral nerve neurofibromas Learning difficulties Headache Visual changes - optic glioma Precocious puberty ``` ``` Type II: Acoustic neuroma: Dizziness Bilateral tinnitus Bilateral gradual hearing loss ``` Catarcts: Blurring of vision Facial pain and Numbness
44
What are the signs on physical examination of neurofibromatosis?
Type I: 5 Cafe-au-lait spots >15mm diameter (>5mm in children) Multiple small nodules under the skin (neurofibromas) Lisch nodules - tan bumps on iris Scoliosis Freckling in armpit or groin Type II: Decreased sensorineural hearing Catarcts Facial nerve palsy/cerebellar signs (if schwannoma is large)
45
What are the appropriate investigations of neurofibromatosis?
MRI brain and spinal cord: for vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas and nerve root neurofibromas PET: may demonstrate features compatible with optic pathway gliomas, other brain tumours, hydrocephalus, paraspinal neurofibromas, MPNST Biopsy: histological features of a neurofibroma or MPNST (malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour) Genetic testing to confirm NF1 mutation Ophthalmological assessment Audiometry Skull X-ray (sphenoid dysplasia in NF1)
46
Define subdural haemorrhage
Intracranial bleeding below the dura mater with slow bleeding, often following head trauma ACUTE: < 72 hrs SUBACUTE: 3- 20 days CHRONIC: > 3 weeks
47
Summarise the aetiology of subdural haemorrhage
Rupture of branching veins in subdural space Trauma due to rapid acceleration and deceleration of the brain Rare: rupture of cerebral aneurysm OR vascular malformation ``` Risk factors: Elderly due to brain atrophy Children due to thin walled veins Alcohol abuse Trauma Anticoagulants ```
48
Summarise the epidemiology of subdural haemorrhage
More common than extradural haemorrhage Acute cases = younger patients Chronic cases = elderly
49
What are the presenting symptoms of subdural haemorrhage?
``` Usually delayed symptom onset due to low pressure veins Constant headache Trauma Vomiting Focal neurological symptoms Loss of consciousness Dementia-like symptoms ``` Acute: History of TRAUMA with head injury AND reduced conscious level Subacute: Worsening headache 7-14 days after injury AND Altered mental state Chronic: Headache, Confusion, Cognitive impairment, Psychiatric symptoms, Gait deterioration, Focal weakness, Seizures
50
What are the signs on physical examination of subdural haemorrhage?
Acute: Reduced GCS Ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (if a large haematoma causes a midline shift) Pressure on brainstem - reduced consciousness + bradycardia Chronic: Neurological examination may be NORMAL Focal neurological signs (e.g. 3rd nerve palsy) ``` Cushing's signs of raised ICP: Bradycardia Hypotension Irregular respiration Papilloedema ```
51
What are the appropriate investigations of subdural haemorrhage?
CT head: Crescent shaped hyperdensity that crosses suture lines Hyperdensity = acute Hypodensity or isodensity = chronic Midline shift and ventricular compression when chronic MRI scan: Subdural fluid collection. Higher sensitivity than CT especially for isodense or smaller subdural haematomas. Plain skull x-ray: Not specific or sensitive for intracranial haematomas. Useful to identify possible skull fracture or presence of intracranial shrapnel.
52
What is the appropriate management for subdural haemorrhage?
ACUTE: Advanced life support (ALS) protocol - cervical spine control & ABC If signs of raised ICP: head elevation, osmotic diuresis (mannitol) and/or hyperventilation Children: Younger children may be treated with percutaneous aspiration via an open fontanelle Small (<10mm), no neurological signs, minimal midline shift (<5mm)- observation Large and neurological signs - decompression surgery eg craniotomy
53
What are the possible complications of subdural haemorrhage?
``` Raised ICP Cerebral oedema Herniation Coma Stroke Neurological deficit Epilepsy ``` ``` Post-Operation: Seizures (relatively common) Subdural haemorrhage Recurrence (up to 33%) Intracerebral haemorrhage Brain abscess Meningitis Tension pneumocephalus ```
54
Summarise the prognosis of subdural haemorrhage
Acute: Underlying brain injury will affect function Chronic: Better outcome than acute subdural haemorrhages Reflects Lower incidence of underlying brain injury Good outcomes in 75% of those treated with surgery
55
Define extradural haemorrhage
Bleeding between the skull and external dura mater
56
Summarise the aetiology of extradural haemorrhage
Trauma resulting in fracture of the temporal bone, resulting in rupture to the middle meningeal artery Rarely: spontaneous Risk factors: - Bleeding tendency i.e. haemophilia or anticoagulant therapy (warfarin)
57
Summarise the epidemiology of extradural haemorrhage
Common in adolescents and young adults following trauma, falls, assaults, RTAs 10% of severe head injuries
58
What are the presenting symptoms of extradural haemorrhage?
``` Loss of consciousness Period of lucency - asymptomatic Headache Vomiting Lethargy Neurological deficits Progressive deterioration in conscious level ```
59
What are the signs on physical examination of extradural haemorrhage?
``` Hypertension Wide pulse pressure Bradycardia Irregular respirations Scalp trauma or fracture to temporoparietal aspect of skull Headache Deteriorating GCS Signs of raised ICP i.e. dilated, unresponsive pupil on side of injury ```
60
What are the appropriate investigations for extradural haemorrhage?
Head CT: | Biconvex hyperdensity which does not cross suture lines, fracture, midline shift
61
Define spinal cord compression
Injury to the spinal cord with neurological symptoms depending on the site and extent of the injury and is a medical emergency
62
Summarise the aetiology of spinal cord compression and cauda equina syndrome
Spinal trauma - RTA, gunshot or knife wound, falls Vertebral fracture - low energy fracture due to weakened bone Disc herniation Tumour - primary or metastatic Infection - TB, discitis, epidural abscess ``` Cauda Equina: Lumbar disc herniation most common Spinal stenosis - congenital, ankylosing spondylitis Spondylolisthesis Tumour, cyst, abscess in spinal canal ``` ``` Risk factors: Trauma Tumour Osteoporosis Metabolic Bone Disease Vertebral Disc Disease High Risk Occupation - construction workers, bricklayers High Risk Recreational Activities - vehicle racing, horse-riding IV Drug Use Immunosuppression ```
63
Summarise the epidemiology of spinal cord compression
``` Most common cause is trauma COMMON Trauma most common 16-30 Malignancy most common 40-75 Disc disease most common 30-50 Cauda equina: male aged 40-60 years ```
64
What are the presenting symptoms and signs on physical examination of spinal cord compression and cauda equina syndrome?
``` Spinal cord compression: Back pain Weakness Spastic paralysis Numbness or parasthesia Bladder or bowel incontinence Decreased anal sphincter tone Hyper-reflexia Sensory loss at lesion Priapism ``` ``` Cauda equina syndrome: Saddle anaesthesia Weakness Flaccid paralysis Bladder and bowel incontinence Reduced or absent reflexes Decreased sexual function Back pain Sciatic pain Paraplegia ```
65
What are the appropriate investigations for spinal cord compression?
Radiology - Lateral radiographs of spine to look for loss of alignment, fractures MRI or CT ``` FBC - raised WBC if infectious cause U&Es Calcium - bone mets ESR - raised if infectious cause Immunoglobulin electrophoresis (multiple myeloma) ``` Urinalysis - look for Bence Jones proteins (multiple myeloma)
66
Define meningitis
Inflammation of the leptomeninges (pia and arachnoid mater) most commonly caused by infection, resulting in a triad of headache, fever and nuchal rigidity.
67
Summarise the aetiology of meningitis
``` Bacterial: Neonates: Group B strep - long labour, infection in previous pregnancy E. coli - late neonatal infection Listeria monocytogenes ``` Children and teens: Neisseria meningitides Haemophilus influenzae - unvaccinated Streptococcus pneumoniae Elderly: Streptococcus pneumoniae Listeria monocytogenes - unpasteurised cheese/milk Viral: coxsackie, enterovirus, HIV, HSV Fungal: cryptococcus in immunocompromised eg HIV patients ``` Risk factors: Close communities (e.g. college halls) Basal skull fractures Mastoiditis Sinusitis Inner ear infections Alcoholism Immunodeficiency Splenectomy Sickle cell anaemia CSF shunts ```
68
Summarise the epidemiology of meningitis
Common in extremes of age
69
What are the presenting symptoms of meningitis?
``` Headache Fever Photophobia Phonophobia Neck pain/stiffness Non-blanching rash - only if caused by neisseria meningitides Vomiting ``` ``` Infants: Lethargy Irritability Poor feeding Hypothermia High pitched crying ``` Confusion, mental state changes, change in consciousness, seizures if develops to meningoencephalitis
70
What are the signs on physical examination of meningitis?
Kernig's sign - lie flat, lift leg and flex knee to 90 degrees, passive straightening of the leg causes back pain Brudzinski's sign - lie flat, passive flexion of the neck causes hips or knees to flex Fever Photophobia Neck stiffness Tachycardia Hypotension Buldging fontanelle in infants
71
What are the appropriate investigations for meningitis?
Blood culture - 2 sets FBC - leukocytosis, anaemia CRP - elevated CT head to exclude raised ICP before LP Lumbar puncture and CSF collection: CSF glucose - decreased in bacterial and fungal CSF protein - increased in all causes, largest increase in bacterial CSF WBC - heavily elevated in bacterial with neutrophils, elevated with lymphocytes in viral and fungal CSF PCR CSF bacterial gram stain and culture
72
What is the management of meningitis?
IMMEDIATE IV Antibiotics (before LP) First choice: 3rd generation cephalosporin - cefotaxime or ceftriaxone Empiric for neonates - cefotaxime and ampicillin Empiric teens - ceftriaxone, ampicillin, vancomycin Benzylpenicillin may be used as an initial blind therapy Dexamethasone IV - shortly before or with the first dose of antibiotics (reduces risk of complications)
73
What are the possible complications of meninigitis?
``` Septicaemia Shock DIC Renal failure Seizures Peripheral gangrene Elevated ICP Hearing loss Brain abscess Cerebral oedema Cranial nerve lesions Cerebral venous thrombosis Hydrocephalus Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome (bilateral adrenal haemorrhage caused by severe meningococcal infection) ```
74
What is the prognosis of meningitis?
Mortality rate from bacterial meningitis: 10-40% with meningococcal sepsis Viral meningitis is self-limiting With prompt appropriate antimicrobial and supportive therapy good outcome 15% of children develop severe sequelae
75
Define raised intracranial pressure
Pressure inside the cranium exceeding 15mmHg, due to an increase in contents of the cranium due to the fixed volume
76
Summarise the aetiology of raised intracranial pressure
``` Primary or metastatic tumours Head injury Haemorrhage - subdural, extradural, subarachnoid Infection - meningitis, encephalitis, brain abscess Hydrocephalus Cerebral oedema Status epilepticus Idiopathic intracranial hypertension ```
77
Summarise the epidemiology of raised intracranial pressure
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension mainly in overweight women on childbearing age
78
What are the presenting symptoms of raised intracranial pressure?
Headache - worse in morning, on lying down, on coughing, straining, sneezing etc Nausea and vomiting Visual change - bilateral loss of vision momentarily on bending down, loss of peripheral fields Seizures Coma Irritability Drowsiness
79
What are the signs on physical examination of raised intracranial pressure?
Hypertension Bradycardia Cheyne-Stokes abnormal breathing - fast, deep breathing followed by period of apnoea Decreased GCS - coma, irritability, seizures, drowsiness Pupil constriction followed by dilation
80
What are the appropriate investigations for raised intracranial pressure?
FBC - infection Glucose Blood cultures - check for systemic infection Toxicology screen - cause of decreased GCS CXR - look for source of infection CT head - may see haemorrhage, tumour, abscess, hydrocephalus etc LP if no evidence of space occupying lesion