Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y3 Revision Points > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the nerve roots for ankle, knee, brachial and triceps reflexes?

A

Ankle - S1,2
Knee - L3,4
Brachial - C5,6
Triceps - C7,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the afferent and efferent nerves of the corneal reflex?

A

Afferent - ophthalmic nerve (CNV1)

Efferent - facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the rubrospinal tract do?

A

Excites flexors and inhibits extensors of the upper body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the innervation of the first dorsal web space?

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do microglia do?

A

Phagocytes of the CNS (cause reactive gliosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do astrocytes do?

A

Provide physical support and maintain the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name frontal lobe functions

A
  • Precentral gyrus – primary somatomotor cortex
  • Broca’s area – expressive speech (in dominant hemisphere)
  • Executive functioning – personality, decision making, planning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name parietal lobe functions

A
  • Postcentral gyrus – primary somatosensory cortex

- Reading, writing, R and L orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name temporal lobe functions

A
  • Primary auditory cortex – in superior temporal gyrus
  • Wernicke’s area – receptive speech
  • Hearing, speech, identity, emotion, memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name occipital lobe functions

A

Primary visual cortex - in calcarine sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name components of the limbic system and their functions

A
  • Memory, perception, learning
  • Cingulate gyrus
  • Hippocampus (in medial temporal lobe) – spatial perception
  • Amygdala (in medial temporal lobe) – emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name parts of the brainstem and their functions

A
  • Midbrain – auditory and visual reflexes, red nucleus, substantia nigra
  • Pons – CN V, VI, VII, VIII, connects to cerebellum
  • Medulla oblongata – CN IX, X, XI, XII, respiration, cardiac control, vomiting centre
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the basal ganglia pathways

A
  • Direct pathway (excitatory) – cerebrum – striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen) – internal globus pallidus – thalamus – cerebrum
  • Indirect pathway (inhibitory) – cerebrum – striatum – external globus pallidus – subthalamic nucleus – thalamus
  • Dopamine – produced in substantia nigra – excites direct pathway and inhibits indirect pathway – increases movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name side effects of opioids

A

Apnoea - decreased medullary response to CO2
Orthostatic hypotension - H1-mediated vasodilatation, decreased sympathetic tone
Constipation and increased biliary pressure - increased SM tone, reduced motility via enteric neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name opioids and give indications for each

A

Heroin - severe post-op pain
Methadone - opioid replacement therapy, chronic cancer pain
Pethidine - labour
Buprenorphine - patient-controlled injection systems
Note - tramadol contraindicated in epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are medications used in each type of epilepsy?

A

Tonic-clonic/atonic/tonic - sodium valproate, lamotrigine
Absence - sodium valproate, ethusoximide
Focal - carbamazepine/lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do triptans work?

A

Serotonin receptor agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Eye Response in the GCS

A
  • 4 – open spontaneously
  • 3 – open to voice
  • 2 – open to pain
  • 1 – do not open
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe Verbal Response in the GCS

A
  • 5 – orientated
  • 4 – confused
  • 3 – inappropriate words
  • 2 – incomprehensible
  • 1 – none
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe Motor Response in the GCS

A
  • 6- Obeys commands
  • 5 - Localises pain
  • 4 - Withdraws from pain
  • 3 - Flexes to pain
  • 2 - Extends to pain
  • 1 - No response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name contraindications to LP

What should be done first?

A

GCS<12
Papilloedema
Seizure
DIC

Do CT first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)

A
  • Proximal muscle weakness with improvement on movement, dry eyes
  • Associated with SSLC
  • Antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How may temporal lobe seizures present?

A

Deja vu

Sensory aura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Do absence seizures have an aura?

A

No

25
Q

What lobe does HSV encephalitis affect?

A

Temporal

26
Q

Name a fungal cause of meningitis. Who does it affect?

A

Cryotpcoccus (fungal encapsulated organism)

People with HIV - subacute presentation

27
Q

What is the first line imaging for SAH? What is the definitive investigation?

A

CT

CT angiogram

28
Q

Does cauda equina syndrome cause UMN or LMN symptoms in the legs?

A

LMN - below conus medullaris so no UMNs

29
Q

How does CJD present? What are the investigations?

A

Rapid cognitive decline

EEG and LP

30
Q

How is NF1 inherited?

A

AD

De novo mutations common

31
Q

How does Wilson’s disease present? How is it investigated?

A

Cerebellar signs due to copper deposition

Ix - 24h urine collection

32
Q

What nerve palsy can cause hyperacusis?

A

Facial - innervates stapedius

33
Q

What is Wernicke’s Encephalopathy caused by?

A

Thiamine Deficiency - Vitamin B1

34
Q

What is pseudobulbar palsy? Why does it happen?

A

UMN lesion of nerves involved with speech and swallowing
Usually vascular cause
‘Donald Duck voice’

35
Q

Describe speech of someone with cerebellar disease

A

Slurred Staccato speech

36
Q

What is the management of tension headache?

A

Reduce psychological stress

Amitriptylline or dothiepin if severe

37
Q

What is the management of migraine?

A

Acute - aspirin/naproxen/NSAId and anti-emetic or triptan

Prophylaxis - propanolol first line, then topiramate, amitryitylline, gabapentin, botox

38
Q

What is the management of Cluster headache?

A

Acute - high flow oxygen, SC sumatriptan

Prophylaxis - 2 week reducing course of steroids

39
Q

What is the management of paroxysmal hemicrania?

A

Indomethacin

40
Q

What is the management of SUNCT?

A

Lamotrigine

41
Q

What is the management of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

Surgical ablation/decompression

42
Q

How is Wilson’s disease inherited?

A

Autosomal Recessive

43
Q

How are Becker’s and Duchenne’s muscular dystrophies inherited?

A

X-linked recessive

44
Q

How is myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres inherited?

A

Mitochondrial

45
Q

How does nominal aphasia arise?

A

Disease in angular gyrus

46
Q

What happens to GABA in withdrawal from sedatives?

A

Levels reduce

47
Q

Which CN can a pituitary adenoma damage?

A

CNII

48
Q

What is the first area affected in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Nucleus basalis of meynert

49
Q

How may duchenne/becker’s musclar dystrophy present?

A

Woody muscle swelling

50
Q

What can a posterior communicating artery aneurysm cause?

A

Painful CNIII palsy

51
Q

How does myotonic dystrophy present?

A

Frontal balding
Weakness
Cataracts
Ptosis

52
Q

What do Meissner corpuscles do?

A

Detect fine touch and texture in hairless skin - fingertips

53
Q

What do pacinian corpuscles do?

A

Detect deep pressure and vibration

54
Q

How do oligodendroglial tumours present on MRI?

A

Calcification

55
Q

List side effects of carbamazepine

A 
Rash
Leucopenia
Hyponatraemia
Sedation
Nausea
Diarrhoea
56
Q

What is pseudobulbar affect?

A

Emotional response of involuntary laughing or crying - indicates brain injury or neurological disorder

57
Q

How is hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy diagnosed?

A

EMG and nerve conduction studies

58
Q

What artery supplies the vestibular and cochlear nuclei?

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

Y3 Revision Points (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions