neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Internuclear Ophthalmology pathophysiology

A

https://youtu.be/MWJz75R01s4

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2
Q

Pruritus

A

The table below lists the main characteristics of the most important causes of pruritus

Condition Notes
Liver disease History of alcohol excess
Stigmata of chronic liver disease: spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, gynaecomastia etc
Evidence of decompensation: ascites, jaundice, encephalopathy
Iron deficiency anaemia Pallor
Other signs: koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, angular stomatitis
Polycythaemia Pruritus particularly after warm bath
‘Ruddy complexion’
Gout
Peptic ulcer disease
Chronic kidney disease Lethargy & pallor
Oedema & weight gain
Hypertension
Lymphoma Night sweats
Lymphadenopathy
Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
Fatigue

Other causes:

    hyper- and hypothyroidism
    diabetes
    pregnancy
    'senile' pruritus
    urticaria
    skin disorders: eczema, scabies, psoriasis, pityriasis rosea
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3
Q

what is treatmet failure in osteoporosis

A

The patient’s bone mineral density has improved secondary to her treatment with alendronic acid. However, her recent back pain and abnormal thoracolumbar x-ray suggest she has suffered from a osteoporotic vertebral fracture. In one study, continuing alendronic acid from five to ten years treatment reduced the incidence of clinical vertebral fractures in all patients regardless of T score. Therefore, continuing alendronic acid treatment would be recommended for this patient.

Due to increased awareness of the potential complications of long-term bisphosphonate treatment, treatment breaks (or ‘drug holidays’) are now employed for some patients. Specifically, a treatment break should be considered for patients less than 75 years old, with femoral neck T score > - 2.5, no history of osteoporotic vertebral fracture and deemed low risk following assessment by WHO Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX) and National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) guidance. For such a patient, treatment would typically be suspended for two years with repeat DEXA scan at the end of that period, or sooner in the event of fragility fracture.

Parenteral osteroporosis treatments such as zoledronic acid or denosumab should be considered if patient is intolerant of oral bisphosphonates or in the event of treatment failure (defined as two or more fractures on treatment, or one fracture and a fall in bone mineral density)

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4
Q

osteoporosis management and guidelines

A

NICE guidelines were updated in 2008 on the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fractures in postmenopausal women.

Key points include

treatment is indicated following osteoporotic fragility fractures in postmenopausal women who are confirmed to have osteoporosis (a T-score of - 2.5 SD or below). In women aged 75 years or older, a DEXA scan may not be required 'if the responsible clinician considers it to be clinically inappropriate or unfeasible'
vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
alendronate is first-line
around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate (see treatment criteria below)
strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates (see treatment criteria below)

Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate

Unfortunately, a number of complicated treatment cut-off tables have been produced in the latest guidelines for patients who do not tolerate alendronate

These take into account a patients age, theire T-score and the number of risk factors they have from the following list:

parental history of hip fracture
alcohol intake of 4 or more units per day
rheumatoid arthritis

It is very unlikely that examiners would expect you to have memorised these risk tables so we’ve not included them in the revision notes but they may be found by following the NICE link. The most important thing to remember is:

the T-score criteria for risedronate or etidronate are less than the others implying that these are the second line drugs
if alendronate, risedronate or etidronate cannot be taken then strontium ranelate or raloxifene may be given based on quite strict T-scores (e.g. a 60-year-old woman would need a T-score < -3.5)
the strictest criteria are for denosumab

Supplementary notes on treatment

Bisphosphonates

alendronate, risedronate and etidronate are all licensed for the prevention and treatment of post-menopausal and glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis
all three have been shown to reduce the risk of both vertebral and non-vertebral fractures although alendronate, risedronate may be superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures
ibandronate is a once-monthly oral bisphosphonate

Vitamin D and calcium

poor evidence base to suggest reduced fracture rates in the general population at risk of osteoporotic fractures - may reduce rates in frail, housebound patients

Raloxifene - selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

has been shown to prevent bone loss and to reduce the risk of vertebral fractures, but has not yet been shown to reduce the risk of non-vertebral fractures
has been shown to increase bone density in the spine and proximal femur
may worsen menopausal symptoms
increased risk of thromboembolic events
may decrease risk of breast cancer

Strontium ranelate

'dual action bone agent' - increases deposition of new bone by osteoblasts (promotes differentiation of pre-osteoblast to osteoblast) and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts
concerns regarding the safety profile of strontium have been raised recently. It should only be prescribed by a specialist in secondary care
due to these concerns the European Medicines Agency in 2014 said it should only be used by people for whom there are no other treatments for osteoporosis
increased risk of cardiovascular events: any history of cardiovascular disease or significant risk of cardiovascular disease is a contraindication
increased risk of thromboembolic events: a Drug Safety Update in 2012 recommended it is not used in patients with a history of venous thromboembolism
may cause serious skin reactions such as Stevens Johnson syndrome

Denosumab

human monoclonal antibody that inhibits RANK ligand, which in turn inhibits the maturation of osteoclasts
given as a single subcutaneous injection every 6 months
initial trial data suggests that it is effective and well tolerated

Teriparatide

recombinant form of parathyroid hormone
very effective at increasing bone mineral density but role in the management of osteoporosis yet to be clearly defined

Hormone replacement therapy

has been shown to reduce the incidence of vertebral fracture and non-vertebral fractures
due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer it is no longer recommended for primary or secondary prevention of osteoporosis unless the woman is suffering from vasomotor symptoms

Hip protectors

evidence to suggest significantly reduce hip fractures in nursing home patients
compliance is a problem

Falls risk assessment

no evidence to suggest reduced fracture rates
however, do reduce rate of falls and should be considered in management of high risk patients
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5
Q

colonoscopic surveillance

A

The guidance for colonoscopic surveillance is dependent on the patient’s risk profile and can be divided into low risk, intermediate risk, and high risk. A patient with 2 small adenomas <10mm in size is at a low risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore a repeat colonoscopy should be offered at 5 years.

Patients at intermediate risk should be offered a colonoscopy at 3 years and patients at high risk should be offered a colonoscopy at 1 year.

Link to the NICE guidance:
https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg118/chapter/1-Guidance

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6
Q

Sensitivity of the different investigations in MG

A

The patient is presenting with symptoms and signs consistent with myasthenia gravis. All of the above investigations would be appropriate in this context but have variable sensitivities for myasthenia gravis as listed below:

Single fibre electromyography: sensitivity 92-100 %
Repetitive nerve stimulation neurophysiology: sensitivity 70 %
Serum acetylcholine receptor antibodies: sensitivity 85 %
Serum muscle specific tyrosine kinase antibodies: sensitivity 40-70 %

The Edrophonium (Tensilon) test has a high sensitivity for myasthenia gravis but is no longer used due to risk of fatal cardiac arrhythmia. Around 10 % of patients with myasthenia gravis also have a thymoma and therefore CT scanning is an important part of assessment of these patients. However, this investigation will no yield a diagnosis

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7
Q

Indications and complications of plasma exchange

A

Indications for plasma exchange (also known as plasmapheresis)

Guillain-Barre syndrome
myasthenia gravis
Goodpasture's syndrome
ANCA positive vasculitis if rapidly progressive renal failure or pulmonary haemorrhage
TTP/HUS
cryoglobulinaemia
hyperviscosity syndrome e.g. secondary to myeloma

Complications of plasma exchange

    hypocalcaemia: due to the presence of citrate used as an anticoagulant for the extracorporeal system
    metabolic alkalosis
    removal of systemic medications
    coagulation factor depletion
    immunoglobulin depletion
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8
Q

Foods and medications that can affect results of 5HIAA 24hr urinary sample collection for carcinoid syndrome

A
False positives	False negatives
Paracetamol	Aspirin
Naproxen	Levodopa
Caffeine	Methyldopa
Fluorouracil	ACTH

Foods causing false positive 5-HIAA urinary collection results:

    Banana
    Avocado
    Aubergine
    Pineapple
    Plums
    Walnuts
    Tomatoes
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9
Q

Differentiating between Bartters syndome and Gitelman

A

Both have normotesive hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis and autonomi recessive with Barthers associated with hypercalcluria and Gitelmans assocaited with hypocalciuria .
Gitelman’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder resulting in a normotensive hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria and is often accompanied with hypomagnesaemia. The defect is in the thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride symporter within the distal convoluted tubules, in contrast to Bartter’s syndrome which presents in the same way but with hypercalciuria owing to a defect within the ascending loop of Henle. Patients with both conditions are often asymptomatic or may complain of fatigue, cramps and weakness. Conn’s disease is associated with hypertension and in this instance the aldosterone level is normal with an elevated renin, making this diagnosis unlikely. Both Addison’s disease and laxative abuse are associated with a metabolic acidosis; in Addison’s serum potassium also tends to be elevated. The best answer is, therefore,

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10
Q

Multifocal motor neuropathy with conduction block

A

The answer here is the condition called multifocal motor neuropathy with conduction block (MMNCB). These patients are usually younger to middle-aged men who develop focal arm weakness in the distribution of a named nerve. It usually happens quite suddenly (e.g. over a week) and they are often mistaken as a stroke at first presentation. However, over several months additional named motor nerves become involved asymmetrically such that MMNCB may eventually look like motor neurone disease (MND) - the principle differential here (specifically the lower motor neurone progressive muscular atrophy form rather than the mixed upper/lower motor neurone ALS form). For exam purposes, the key difference between these two conditions is the nerve conduction studies. MMNCB shows conduction block. MND does not. MMNCB is a demyelinating condition, much in the same way Guillain Barré or chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) are. However, in MMNCB this demyelination is in segments of a nerve rather than affecting the whole nerve. Therefore, the action potentials (as well as being slowed because of demyelination) actually don’t get past the areas of conduction block. The importance of doing nerve conduction studies is to decide whether a motor neuropathy is axonal (i.e. the axon itself getting damaged) or demyelinating. The demyelinating ones tend to be more easily and similarly treatable. MMNCB, Guillain Barré, and CIDP are all good examples of demyelinating neuropathies, all of which therefore respond to intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG).

Note that the nerves involved in this particular case are the left radial nerve, right ulnar nerve, and right common perineal nerve.

Multifocal motor neuropathy

Acquired autoimmune demyelinating motor neuropathy

Associated with motor conduction block

Slowly progressive, distal motor neuropathy which progresses over many years

Anti-GM1 antibodies frequently raised

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11
Q

Usher’s syndrome

A

The leading cause of deafness and blindness .

Autosomal recessive condition and the blindness is due to Retinitis pigmentosa .

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12
Q

The different associations of Retinitis pigmentosa

A

Retinitis pigmentosa is the progressive degeneration of photoreceptor cells in the retina. It presents with peripheral vision loss and difficulty seeing in dim light (poor night vision as rod photoreceptors are affected first). There are lots of different mutations, and retinitis pigmentosa can be inherited in many different ways; autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked and mitochondrial.

It can be associated with a number of rare such as:

Usher's syndrome associated deafness
Refsum disease associated anosmia
Kearns-Sayre syndrome associated ophthalmoplegia
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13
Q

Above continued

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision

Features

night blindness is often the initial sign
tunnel vision due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision)
fundoscopy: black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium

Associated diseases

    Refsum disease: cerebellar ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, deafness, ichthyosis
    Usher syndrome
    abetalipoproteinemia
    Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
    Kearns-Sayre syndrome
    Alport's syndrome
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14
Q

Solitary nodule monitoring

A

BTS guidelines for lung nodules:

Nodule <5mm, or clear benign features, or unsuitable for treatment: can be discharged
Nodule =>8mm and high risk*: then CT-PET, and if CT-PET shows high uptake then biopsy
Nodule 5-6mm, or =>8mm and low-risk*: then CT surveillance
CT surveillance: if 5-6mm then at 1 year, if =>6 then in three months
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15
Q

When to use prasugrel or ticargrelor as per NICE guidelines

A

Most patients who’ve had an acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT). Clopidogrel was previously the second antiplatelet of choice. Now ticagrelor and prasugrel (also ADP-receptor inhibitors) are more widely used. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries now recommend:

post acute coronary syndrome (medically managed): add ticagrelor to aspirin, stop ticagrelor after 12 months
post percutaneous coronary intervention: add prasugrel or ticagrelor to aspirin, stop the second antiplatelet after 12 months
this 12 month period may be altered for people at a high-risk of bleeding or those who at high-risk of further ischaemic events
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16
Q

Special indication for Epeleronone

A

Post MI +Heart failure symptoms /signs +Left ventricular dysfunction .. can be commenced 14 days post MI , preferably after commencement of ACE

17
Q

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

A

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm (AIVR) is a benign ectopic rhythm of ventricular origin. It usually occurs following the reperfusion of an ischaemic myocardium. It has a rate of 50-110 beats per minute, which helps differentiate it from ventricular bradycardia or ventricular tachycardia.

Pathophysiology:

Reperfusion of ischaemic tissue, electrolyte abnormalities or drug toxicity leads to an increased depolarisation rate of ventricular myocytes.
When this depolarisation rate is faster than the rate produced by the sinoatrial node, it becomes the overriding rhythm. Therefore, sinus bradycardia by vagal excess or reduced sympathetic activity can precipitate AIVR.

AIVR has a rate of between 50 -110 beats per minute and, therefore, the patient tends to be haemodynamically stable. However, if the rate is fast or there is extensive damage to the myocardium, the patient can become unstable.

Causes:

Reperfusion following myocardial infarction – by far the most common cause
Beta-sympathomimetics (e.g. adrenaline)
Drug toxicity (digoxin/cocaine)
Electrolyte imbalance
Cardiomyopathy, congenital heart disease, myocarditis

AIVR is diagnosed based on electrocardiography (ECG) findings:

AIVR has a gradual onset and termination as the ventricular rate is only slightly faster than sinus rhythm. This may result in ventricular fusion beats on ECG.
Atrioventricular dissociation - P waves present but not associated with QRS complexes.
The ECG will show wide QRS complexes >120ms.
Rate between 50-110 beats per minute.

Treatment:

AIVR is usually self-limiting and therefore treatment is not necessary, however, occasionally atropine can be used to increase the sinus rate to overcome AIVR.
18
Q

Risks of transmission via needle stick injuries

A

HIV -0.3%
Hep B -20-30%
HCV- 0.5%

19
Q

Medications that may exacerbate Myasthenia gravis

A

IV Magnesium/penicillamine/phenytoin/aminoglycosides /beta blockers

20
Q

Differentiating SIADH and Hyponatremia from hypovolemia via urinary sodium

A

In SIADH -you re conserving water , so you want to lose salt -the urine sodium concentration would be high ..this is equally true in salt losing nephropathies
In Hyponatremia from hypovolemia - you want to conserve salt so the urinary sodium is low
Differentials for euvolaemic hyponatraemia would include hypothyroidism and SiADH. There are no clinical features suggestive of the former. Findings are consistent with community-acquired pneumonia with associated SiADH. This is confirmed by the presence of reduced serum osmolality and high urinary sodium. Measurement of urinary sodium concentration is an useful adjunct in helping to differentiate between hyponatraemia secondary to hypovolaemia and SiADH. With SiADH (and salt-wasting syndrome), the urinary sodium is high. With hypovolaemia, the urinary sodium is typically low.

21
Q

Hypercalcemia management

A

Alongside searching for the underlying cause, management initially involves aggressive rehydration, typically 4-6 L saline on the first day. Bisphosphonates act by interfering with osteoclastic bone resorption and typically IV pamidronate is used at a dose of 60-90mg over 2-4 hours
90mg of pamidronate in 250mls of solution over 2 hrs in patients with good renal function or 90mg of pamidronate in 500mls of solution over 4 hrs in patients with poor renal function .

22
Q

ASD

A

Both primum and secondum atrial septal defects result in RBBB. The axis can be of use in distinguishing between ostium primum ASDs (usually have a LAD) and ostium secondums (usually have RAD).
ASD presents with fixed splitting of the S2 and an ejection systolic murmur .
PR interval prolongation can be seen with ostium primum ,assoc,with RBBB and LAD- because ostium primum affects the atrioventricular valves .

23
Q

Management of Iron Overdose

A

Iron overdose is potentially very serious. Major complications that can occur include:

Metabolic acidosis
Erosion of gastric mucosa → GI bleeding
Shock
Hepatotoxicity and coagulopathy

Management is guided by the total amount of iron ingested (elemental iron/kg) and the presence/absence of symptoms (abdominal pain, diarrhoea, vomiting, lethargy).

Patients who have ingested less than 40mg/kg elemental iron and are asymptomatic can be observed at home.

Patients who have ingested > 40mg/kg elemental iron or who are symptomatic need medical assessment with serum iron levels measured 2-4 hours post-ingestion and abdominal x-ray.

Whole bowel irrigation is the decontamination procedure of choice and is performed on all patients presenting within 4 hours who have ingested > 60mg/kg elemental iron or have undissolved tablets on abdominal x-ray.

Activated charcoal is ineffective in iron poisoning.

Desferrioxamine is indicated in:

Patients with serum iron level > 90umol/l,
Patients with serum iron level 60-90umol/l, who are symptomatic or have persistent iron on abdominal x-ray despite whole bowel irrigation
Any patient with shock, coma or metabolic acidosis

Endoscopy or surgery may be required if whole bowel irrigation is not effective or iron is adhered to the gastric wall.
options for iron poisoning include whole bowel irrigation , desferrioxamine and endoscopy .
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24
Q

Drug therapy for Multiple sclerosis

A

The patient presents with a clear history of recurrent relapses of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS), isolated in time and location. In addition, NICE recommends that any patient experiencing more than two debilitating episodes of RRMS be considered for disease modifying therapies.

A number of 1st line disease modifying therapies are available and the choice is made on a patient-by-patient basis. Interferon beta 1a, beta 1b, glatiramer acetate, diethyl fumarate and teriflunomide are all valid choices. However, deranged liver function is contraindicated in the use of interferons, as in this case, where the patient has a cholestatic pattern of liver dysfunction secondary to primary sclerosing cholangitis. Glatiramer acetate is not contraindicated in liver dysfunction and hence the only suitable choice.

Fingolimod is a sphingosine 1 phosphate receptor modulator affecting lymphocyte migration that has been proven to reduce the number of relapses and slow the rate of number of new MRI lesions. However, it was also associated with increased incidence of varicella zoster, tumour formation and progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML), another demyelinating central nervous system condition. As a result, fingolimod is reserved for patients who fail 1st line therapies. Similarly, while natalizumab is effective in modifying multiple sclerosis progression, it is also associated with PML and not considered a 1st line treatment. Mitoxantrone is a chemotherapy agent that inhibits DNA synthesis and repair, associated with significant cardiotoxicity, reserved only for RRMS patients who have failed other therapies with rapidly progressive disease

25
Q

Managaement of gstric tumours

A

Endomucosal resection can be used to treat gastric cancer confined to the mucosa (T1a) provided it is less than 2 cm in diameter, of low or moderate differentiation and with no ulceration or lymphovascular involement.

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice for stage II and stage III gastric carcinoma prior to radical surgery. Extent of surgical resection depends on tumour location with subtotal gastrectomy feasible for some distal tumours. Radiotherapy is not used as a first-line treatment of gastric carcinoma.