Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 4 - Special Senses > Neurology - Epilepsy & Headache > Flashcards

Neurology - Epilepsy & Headache Flashcards

1
Q

Conditions that have associations with epilepsy.

A
  • cerebral palsy
  • tuberous sclerosis
  • mitochondrial diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of seizures.

A
  • febrile convulsions
  • alcohol withdrawal
  • psychogenic non-epileptic seizures
  • epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are febrile convulsions?

A

Seizures provoked by fever in otherwise healthy children - typically occurring between the ages of 6 months and 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clinical features of febrile convulsions.

A
  • early in viral infection
  • seizures are brief <5 mins
  • tonic-clonic seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Features of simple febrile convulsion.

A
  • lasts <15 minutes
  • generalised seizure
  • no recurrence within 24 hours
  • complete recovery within an hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Features of complex febrile seizure.

A
  • lasts 15-30 minutes
  • focal seizure
  • may have repeat seizures within 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Features of febrile status epilepticus.

A
  • lasts >30 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management of febrile seizure.

A

Children who have had a first seizure OR any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

Ongoing management:
- call ambulance if seizure >5 minutes
- regular antipyretics
- benzodiazepines if recurrent convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prognosis of febrile seizures.

a) risk of further febrile convulsion

b) risk of epilepsy

A

a) 1 in 3

b) no increased risk in simple febrile seizure; increased risk if complex febrile seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathophysiology of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

A

Chronic alcohol consumption enhanced GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS.

Acute alcohol cessation leads to decreased inhibitory GABA, increasing the risk of seizure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are alcohol withdrawal seizures prevented?

A
  • weaning from alcohol
  • benzodiazepines given following cessation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are psychogenic non-epileptic seizures?

A

A patient who presents with epileptic-like seizures but do not have characteristic electrical discharges.

Patients may have a history of mental health problems or personality disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are focal seizures?

A

A seizure that starts in a specific area, on one side of the brain.

This leads to functional impairment.

Level of awareness can vary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Localising features of focal seizures.

Temporal lobe.

A
  • rising epigastric sensation
  • deja vu
  • hallucinations
  • lip smacking
  • lip grabbing
  • lip plucking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Localising features of focal seizures.

Frontal lobe.

A
  • head / leg movements
  • posturing
  • post-ictal weakness
  • Jacksonian march
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Localising features of focal seizures.

Parietal lobe.

A

Paraesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Localising features of focal seizures.

Occipital lobe.

A

Floaters / flashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are generalised seizures?

A

A seizure that involves networks on both sides of the brain at onset, causing immediate loss of consciousness.

Divided into motor (tonic-clonic) and non-motor (absence).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Signs and symptoms of siezures.

A
  • tonic / clonic
  • focal signs
  • bite tongue
  • urinary incontinence
  • post-ictal phase of around 15 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Investigating epilepsy.

A
  • EEG
  • MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NICE guidelines recommend starting antiepileptics after the first seizure when any of the following are present:

A
  • neurological deficit
  • brain imaging shows structural abnormality
  • EEG shows epileptic activity
  • patient preference
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug treatment for

Generalised tonic-clonic seizures.

A

Male: sodium valporate

Female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug treatment for

Focal seizures.

A

First line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

Second line: carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Drug treatment for

Absence seizures.

A

First line: ethosuximide

NB: Carbamazepine may exacerbate absence seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug treatment for

Myoclonic seizures.

A

Males: sodium valporate

Females: levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drug treatment for

Tonic / atonic seizures.

A

Males: sodium valporate

Females: lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What contraception is generally preferred for women taking anti-epileptics?

A

UKMEC1: depo-provera, IUD, IUS

UKMEC2: implant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How should women with epilepsy who want to have children be managed?

A

Risks of uncontrolled epilepsy during pregnancy generally outweighs the risk of medication to the fetus.

Advise to take folic acid 5mg per day well before pregnancy, to minimise neural tube defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which antiepileptics are preferred in pregnancy?

A

Carbamazepine and lamotrigine.

Studies to date show the rate of congenital malformations are low.

29
Q

Is breast feeding safe when taking antiepileptics?

A

Yes - apart from barbiturates (e.g. amobarbital).

30
Q

What advise is given to pregnant women taking phenytoin?

A

Prescription of vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

31
Q

What is essential tremor?

A

An autosomal dominant condition affecting both upper limbs, causing a benign tremor.

Features:
- worse if arms outstretched
- improved by alcohol and rest
- most common cause of head tremor

32
Q

Management of essential tremor.

A

First line: propranolol

Second line: primidone

33
Q

What is chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

3 or more months of disabling fatigue affecting mental and physical function, in the absence of other disease which may explain symptoms.

34
Q

Features of chronic fatigue syndrome.

A
  • fatigue
  • insomnia / hypersomnia
  • muscle and/or joint pain
  • headache
  • sore throat
  • general malaise
  • dizziness
  • nausea
  • palpitations
35
Q

Investigation of chronic fatigue syndrome.

A

Exclude other causes of fatigue:

  • FBC (?anaemia)
  • U&Es
  • LFTs
  • glucose
  • TFTs
  • ESR / CRP
  • calcium
  • CK
  • ferritin
  • coeliac screening
  • urinalysis
36
Q

Management of chronic fatigue syndrome.

A

Energy management with support from a healthcare professional / occupational therapy.

Refer to specialist CFS service.

Exercise programme overseen by CFS specialist team.

Cognitive behavioural therapy - supportive rather than curative.

37
Q

Risk factors for cluster headaches.

A
  • male sex
  • smoking
  • alcohol
38
Q

Features of cluster headache.

A
  • intense sharp, stabbing pain around one eye
  • occurring once or twice a day
  • episodes 15 minutes to 2 hours
  • nasal stuffiness
  • miosis / ptosis in some
39
Q

Investigations of cluster headaches.

A

MRI with gadolinium contrast is imaging of choice.

Some patients will have underlying brain lesions even if the clinical symptoms are typical of a cluster headache.

40
Q

Acute management of cluster headache.

A
  • 100% oxygen (80% response rate in 15 mins)
  • subcutaneous triptan (75% response rate in 15 mins)
41
Q

Prophylaxis of cluster headaches.

A

Verapamil

Emerging evidence to support a tapering dose of prednisolone.

42
Q

What is fibromyalgia?

A

A syndrome of widespread pain throughout the body, with tender points at specific anatomical sites.

The cause is unknown.

43
Q

Features of fibromyalgia.

A
  • chronic widespread pain
  • lethargy
  • cognitive impairment
  • sleep disturbance
  • headaches
  • dizziness
44
Q

Management of fibromyalgia.

A
  • explanation of condition
  • aerobic exercise
  • cognitive behavioural therapy
  • medications (e.g. pregabalin, duloxetine, amitriptyline)
45
Q

Features of a tension headache.

A
  • tight band around the head
  • bilateral sensation of pressure
  • may be related to stress
46
Q

Management of tension headache.

A

First line:
- aspirin
- paracetamol
- NSAID

Can use low-dose amitriptyline for prophylaxis.

47
Q

What is temporal arteritis?

A

A vasculitis of unknown cause that affects medium and large sized vessels.

Usually affects the temporal artery.

48
Q

Associations of temporal arteritis.

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

49
Q

Complications of temporal arteritis.

A
  • visual loss (permanent)
50
Q

Features of temporal arteritis.

A
  • headache
  • jaw claudication
  • visual changes / visual loss
  • tender, palpable temporal artery
  • lethargy
51
Q

Vision testing in temporal arteritis.

A

Occlusion of the posterior cilliary artery results in ischaemia of the optic nerve head.

Fundoscopy shows a swollen pale disk and blurred margins.

52
Q

Investigations of temporal arteritis.

A
  • raised inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP)
  • temporal artery biopsy
  • CK and EMG normal
53
Q

Treatment of temporal arteritis.

A

Immediate high-dose prednisolone* with tapering dose.

Urgent opthalmology review.

*co-prescribe PPI and bisphosphonates.

54
Q

Features of a migraine.

A
  • severe, unilateral, throbbing headache
  • associated with nausea, photophobia and phonophobia
  • precipitated by an aura
55
Q

Triggers for a migraine attack.

A
  • tiredness
  • stress
  • alcohol
  • COCP
  • lack of food / dehydration
  • cheese, chocolate, red wine, citrus fruits
  • menstruation
  • bright lights
56
Q

What is a hemiplegic migraine?

A

A variant of migraine in which motor weakness if a manifestation of aura.

57
Q

Acute management of migraines.

A

First line: triptans and paracetamol.

58
Q

Prophylaxis of migraines.

A

Prophylaxis given if migraines have a significant impact on quality of life and daily function.

First line: propranolol or amitriptyline

NB: possibly a role for acupuncture.

59
Q

Management principles of a migraine during pregnancy.

A
  • paracetamol 1g is first-line
  • NSAIDs can be used second-line in the first and second trimester
  • avoid aspirin and opioids such as codeine during pregnancy
60
Q

Management principles of a migraine associated with menstruation.

A

SIGN recommends that women are treated with:
- mefanamic acid
- combination of aspirin, paracetamol and caffeine

Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation

61
Q

Features of medication overuse headache.

A
  • present for >15 days per month
  • developed or worsened while taking regular symptomatic medication
  • patients using opioids and triptans most at risk
62
Q

Management of medication overuse headache.

A
  • simple analgesics and triptans should be withdrawn abruptly
  • opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn
63
Q

Causes of secondary headaches.

A
  • infections
  • obstructive sleep apnoea
  • pre-eclampsia
  • head injury
  • carbon monoxide poisoning
64
Q

Headache differentials.

A
  • meningitis
  • encephalitis
  • subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • head injury
  • sinusitis
  • glaucoma
  • Paget’s disease
  • space occupying lesion
65
Q

Red flags of headache.

A
  • fever, photophobia or neck stiffness
  • new neurological symptoms
  • visual disturbance
  • ‘thunderclap’ headache
  • worse on cough or straining
  • vomiting
  • history of trauma
  • history of cancer
  • pregnancy
66
Q

Examination of any patient with a headache.

A

Always do fundoscopy to look for papilloedema.

67
Q

Define status epilepticus.

A
  • seizure lasting more than 5 minutes
  • multiple seizures without regaining consciousness in the interim
68
Q

Management of status epilepticus.

A
  1. Benzodiazepine, repeated after 5 minutes
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Barbital or general anaesthesia
69
Q

Options for benzodiazepines in status epilepticus.

A
  • buccal midazolam (10mg)
  • rectal diazepam (10mg)
  • IV lorazepam (4mg)

Year 4 - Special Senses (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions