Neuromuscular Unit 1 Exam Flashcards
(307 cards)
1
Q
used to screen patients presenting to therapy to determine if further neurologic evaluation is appropriate + determine body regions with deficits
A
neurological screen
2
Q
4 orientation questions
A
person, place, time, situation
3
Q
quick memory screen
A
3 words to remember
4
Q
normal level of arousal
A
conscious
5
Q
decreased level of arousal
A
hypoarousal
6
Q
increased level of arousal
A
hyperarousal
7
Q
mildly depressed level of consciousness
A
lethargic
8
Q
significantly diminished arousal, will respond to noxious stimuli but may be confused
A
obtund
9
Q
minimal arousal and requires vigorous noxious stimuli
A
stupor
10
Q
no arousal, unable to make purposeful response
A
coma
11
Q
conscious but unaware of their environment and no purposeful attention
A
minimally conscious vegetative state
12
Q
in a vegetative state for longer than 1 year following a traumatic brain injury
A
persistent vegetative state
13
Q
gold standard scale in acute brain injury
A
Glasgow coma scale (GCS)
14
Q
outcome measure for stroke severity
A
national institutes of health stroke scale (NIHSS)
15
Q
mild GCS score
A
12-15
16
Q
moderate GCS score
A
9-11
17
Q
severe GCS score
A
3-8
18
Q
2 noxious stimuli
A
sternal rub and nail bed pressure
19
Q
direction of awareness, necessary to perform a conscious task
A
attention
20
Q
5 categories of attention
A
focused
sustained
selective
alternating
divided
21
Q
category of attention when the patient can process specific information
A
focused
22
Q
category of attention when the patient is attentive continuously over time
A
sustained
23
Q
category of attention when the patient can perform with distractions
A
selective
24
Q
category of the attention when the patient shifts attention back and forth
A
alternating
25
category of the attention when the patient responds to multiple stimuli simultaneously
divided
26
outcome measure for attention that characterizes behavioral responses after brain injury
moss attention rating scale (MARS)
27
behaviors that describe mood or emotional state
affect
28
emotional dysregulation, uncontrolled and exaggerated laughing or crying
psuedobulbar affect
29
shallow or blunted emotional response
apathy
30
exaggerated feelings of well being
euphoria
31
poor perception of self and environment
depression
32
sorting, retrieving, and manipulating information
cognition
33
________ and fall risk are directly related
cognition
34
3 things to assess patient's alertness
arousal
attention
cognition
35
patients with dementia and cognitive impairments are at an increased risk of experiencing a _____
fall
36
giving a patient one minute to name as many animals as possible
animal fluency test
37
> 65 years old = ___ animals
12
38
< 65 years old = ___ animals
18
39
having a patient draw clock on a blank piece of paper with numbers 1-12 and then drawing hands to indicate a time
clock drawing
40
asking the patient to interpret a phrase
reasoning
41
giving a patient a list of words for them to remember and repeat back to you
retention
42
asking later in the screen for the patient to repeat the 3 words back to you
recall
43
exam used if issue is expected but not diagnosed; measures orientation, recall, short term verbal memory, calculation, language and construct ability
mini mental state exam (MMSE)
44
max score of a mini mental state exam
30
45
< ___ indicates cognitive impairment on the mini mental state exam
24
46
what does MOCA stand for?
montreal cognitive assessment
47
< ___ on the MOCA is indicative of dementia and further testing needed
26
48
outcome measure that is similar to the MOCA and mini mental exam but is used for lower level cognitive patients
SLUMS
49
what does SLUMS stand for?
St. Louis university mental status exam
50
outcome measure that is more sensitive to identifying dementia
SLUMS
51
why is it important to perform interventions even if patients cannot remember?
they can develop habits (learn by doing rather than remembering)
52
what form of practice is better to use as an intervention for this patient population?
blocked practice
53
less explicit information = better ability to ______ the task
learn
54
3 Ds
delirium
depression
dementia
55
disrupted consciousness, cognition, or perception that develops in a short period of time usually postoperatively
delirium
56
most common mental health disorder in adults 65 years of age and older
depression
57
medical diagnosis that are highly correlated with depression
stroke
cancer
chronic pain
multiple sclerosis
58
a good tool to catch depression and patients that are at risk
geriatric depression scale
59
as as PT, what should your interventions look like for a patient that is depressed?
activities that are engaging and interesting to the patient
60
clinical syndrome of cognitive and functional decline that is chronic and progressive in nature
dementia
61
true or false: physical therapists can diagnose dementia
false
62
4 types of dementia
Alzheimer's disease
vascular dementia
dementia with Lewy bodies
frontotemporal dementia
63
altered cognition that fills the gap between normal and dementia
mild cognitive impairment
64
what are signs of a patient that has a mild cognitive impairment?
losing things
forgetting appointments
trouble finding words
increased forgetfulness of recent events
65
most common form of dementia that is associated with advanced age
Alzheimer's disease
66
predominant symptom of Alzheimer's
memory decline
67
pathological changes in the brain that cause Alzheimer's disease
amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, atrophy in the inferior prefrontal cortex, and inadequate levels of acetylcholine
68
mental disorder with the main feature of cardiovascular disease
vascular dementia
69
with vascular dementia, brain damage results from what type of stroke?
vascular strokes
70
result of multiple large or small infarcts that causes brain loss (mini strokes)
multi infarct dementia
71
rate of cognitive decline is similar to AD but the life expectancy is shorter for patients with what type of dementia?
multi infarct dementia
72
first noted symptoms of vascular dementia
slow processing speed
impaired judgement
impaired ability to make decisions + plan
73
slow gait and poor balance are associated with _______ dementia depending on where the ischemia is occurring
vascular
74
form of dementia characterized by early sleep disturbance and hallucinations
Lewy body dementia
75
pathological changes in the brain that cause Lewy body dementia
build up of Lewy bodies inside the neurons in the cortex that control memory and motor control
76
Parkinson's disease is marked by ____ systems and Lewy body dementia is marked by ____ impairments
motor, cognitive
77
______ _______ (Lewy bodies) linked to Parkinson's disease and multi system atrophy
alpha synuclein
78
progressive nerve cell loss in the brain's frontal and temporal lobes that causes deterioration in behavior, personality, language, and alterations in motor and muscle function
frontotemporal lobe dementia
79
2nd most common cause of dementia after Alzheimer's disease
frontotemporal lobe dementia
80
patients with what form of dementia are less oriented than AD but have more difficulty with executive function and problem solving
frontotemporal lobe dementia
81
sudden loss of neurologic function caused by interruption of blood flow to the brain
stroke
82
2 types of stroke
ischemic and hemorrhagic
83
type of stroke that occurs secondarily to thrombosis, embolism, or hypoperfusion
ischemic stroke
84
type of stroke that affects 80% of individuals who have strokes
ischemic
85
type of stroke that occurs when blood vessels rupture, causing leakage of blood in or around brain
hemorrhagic
86
which type of stroke has more severe complications?
hemorrhagic
87
deficits of a stroke must remain for at least how many hours?
24
88
spontaneous improvement that occurs as swelling in the brain goes down
reversible ischemic neurological deficit
89
3 etiologies of a stroke
thrombosis
embolus
hemorrhage
90
5th leading cause of death
stroke
91
leading cause of long term disability in the US
stroke
92
stroke incidence increases with ____
age
93
largest number of deaths come from what type of stroke?
hemorrhagic
94
what are some general risk factors for strokes?
hypertension
diabetes
high cholesterol
heart disease
95
what are some modifiable risk factors for strokes?
smoking
physical inactivity
obesity
diet
96
what does the BE FAST acronym stand for?
balance
eyes
face
arms
speech
time
97
what are some S&S of ACA stroke?
contralateral LE hemiparesis and hemisensory loss, urinary incontinence, apraxia, contralateral grasp and suck reflex, akinetic mutism, slowness, lack of spontaneity, and motor inaction
98
what are some S&S of MCA stroke?
contralateral UE + face hemiparesis and hemisensory loss, motor and receptive speech impairments, global aphasia, perceptual deficits, limb kinetic apraxia, contralateral homonymous hemianopsia, loss of conjugate gaze to the opposite side, and contralateral limb sensory ataxia
99
difficulty with planning and sequencing movements
apraxia
100
2 types of apraxia
ideational and ideamotor
101
inability of the patient to produce movement either on command or automatically and represents a complete breakdown in the conceptualization of the task
ideational apraxia
102
example of ideational apraxia
you tell the patient to brush their teeth and they don't know to pick up the tooth brush
103
when the patient is unable to produce a movement on command, but is able to move automatically
ideamotor apraxia
104
example of ideamotor apraxia
you hand the patient the tooth brush, and they know to start brushing their teeth
105
apraxia is more evident with what side hemisphere damage?
L hemisphere
106
loss of language
aphasia
107
type of aphasia characterized by broken speech, limited vocabulary, and slow + hesitant speech
Broca's/non fluent aphasia
108
type of aphasia characterized by impaired auditory comprehension, fluent speech, and normal rate and melody
Wernicke's/fluent aphasia
109
type of aphasia characterized by nonfluent speech with poor comprehension
global aphasia
110
type of stroke caused by small vessel disease in the cerebral white matter that can be motor or sensory
lacunar strokes
111
why are there are deficits in consciousness, language, or visual fields NOT seen with lacunar strokes?
high cortical areas are preserved
112
occlusions of this artery can produce a wide variety of symptoms with both ipsilateral and contralateral signs + cerebellar and cranial nerve abnormalities are present
vertebrobasilar artery
113
why are there both ipsilateral and contralateral signs associated with vertebrobasilar artery syndrome?
some brainstem tracks have crossed over and some have not
114
syndrome where damage caused at PICA
lateral medullary syndrome
115
what is the other name for lateral medullary syndrome?
wallenburg's syndrome
116
what are some signs and symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome/wallenburg's syndrome?
ipsilateral face and contralateral body loss of pain and temperature, dizziness/vertigo, ataxia, diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria, Horner's syndrome
117
syndrome where damage is caused at the sympathetic trunk
Horner's syndrome
118
3 characterizations of Horner's syndrome
ipsilateral or contralateral side?
miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis
ON THE IPSILATERAL SIDE
119
drooping eyelid
ptosis
120
constricting pupil
miosis
121
loss of sweating on the face
anhidrosis
122
what are S&S of Horner's syndrome?
miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis, dysphagia, dysphonia, sensory impariment of the trunk and extremities, impaired pain and thermal sense
123
syndrome where damage is caused at the basilar artery affecting the ventral pons and S&S include bilateral cranial nerve palsy, coma, and leads to tetraplegia or quadriplegia
locked in syndrome
124
what two things are spared in locked in syndrome?
cognition and upward gaze
125
what are S&S of peripheral territory PCA stroke?
bilateral or contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (some degree of macular sparing), visual agnosia, prosopagnosia, dyslexia, memory deficit, and topographic disorientation
126
what are some S&S of central territory PCA stroke?
central post stroke thalamic syndrome, spontaneous pain and dysesthesias sensory impairments, involuntary movements, contralateral hemiplegia, and occulomotor nerve palsy
127
what syndrome is a result of a central territory PCA stroke?
central post stroke (thalamic) pain syndrome = LOTS of pain
128
neurological condition characterized by an inability to recognize or interpret visual stimuli (can see objects clearly but cannot identify them) but normal vision
visual agnosia
129
neurological condition known as face blindness that impairs the ability to recognize faces but normal vision
prosopagnosia
130
type of hemiplegia that results from a central territory PCA stroke? ipsilateral or contralateral
contralateral
131
sensory impairments can contribute to unilateral neglect and learned _______ of limbs
nonuse
132
located in the distal end of an afferent nerve fiber that give rise to perception of a specific sensation once stimulated
sensory receptors
133
3 divisions of sensory receptors
superficial, deep, and combined cortical
134
systems that mediate to higher centers
spinal pathways
135
sensory receptor that responds to mechanical deformation of the receptor or surrounding areas
mechanoreceptors
136
sensory receptor that responds to change in temperature
thermoreceptors
137
sensory receptor that responds to noxious stimuli and result in the perception of pain
nociceptors
138
sensory receptor that responds to chemical substances
chemoreceptors
139
sensory receptor that is electromagnetic and responds to light within visible spectrum
photic receptors
140
sensory receptors located at the terminal portion of the afferent fiber
cutaneous receptors
141
sensory receptors located in muscles, tendons, and joints
deep sensory receptors
142
information enters the spinal cord through the ______ ______, and sensory signals are carried to higher centers via ______ pathways
dorsal roots, ascending
143
2 ascending pathways
anterolateral spinothalamic system and dorsal column medial lemniscal system
144
spinal pathway of slow conducting fibers that initiates self protective reactions and responds to stimuli that are potentially harmful
anterolateral spinothalamic system
145
the ALS system is transmission of....
thermal and nociceptive information, pain mediation, temperature, crudely localized touch, tickle, itch, sexual sensations
146
spinal pathway of fast conducting fibers that is involved with responses to more discriminative sensations
dorsal column medial lemniscus system
147
the DCMLS mediates the sensations of...
discriminative touch and pressure sensations, vibration, movement, position sense, and awareness of joints at rest
148
projections to the sensory association areas allow for the perception and interpretation of what type of sensations?
combined cortical
149
the DCML tract carries discriminative sensations such as ____ and ______
kinesthesia and touch
150
the ALS tract carries _____ and _______
pain and temperature
151
the most complex processing of sensory information occurs where?
somatosensory cortex
152
3 main divisions of somatosensory cortex
primary (post central gyrus)
secondary
posterior parietal cortex
153
somatotopic map that represents either motor or sensory input and identifies the relative size of the cortex devoted to specific body parts as it relates to function
homunculus
154
information received from the external environment via the skin and subcutaneous tissue
superficial sensation
155
______ are responsible for superficial sensations
exteroceptors
156
4 superficial sensations
pain perception
temperature awareness
touch awareness
pressure perception
157
information received from muscles, tendons, ligaments, joints, and fascia
deep sensations
158
________ are responsible for deep sensations and position sense
proprioceptors
159
3 deep sensations
kinesthesia awareness
proprioceptive awareness
vibration perception
160
combination of both the superficial and deep sensory mechanisms
combined cortical sensations
161
combined cortical sensation information comes from both ________ and ________ receptors as well as intact function of cortical sensors association areas in the brain
exteroceptive and proprioceptive receptors
162
what 3 things does the Glasgow coma scale measure?
eye opening, verbal response, and motor response
163
combined cortical sensations
stereognosis perception
tactile localization
two point discrimination
double simultaneous stimulation
graphesthesia
recognition of texture
barognosis
164
route of the anterolateral spinothalamic tract
dorsal roots > immediate crossing to ascend the spinal cord through the medulla, pons, and midbrain > VPL of the thalamus > projections sent to the somatosensory cortex via the internal capsule
165
route of the dorsal column medial lemniscus tract
dorsal column > ascend to the medulla and synapse with dorsal column nuclei > cross to the opposite side and pass up to the thalamus via medial lemniscus to the VPL > somatosensory cortex
166
the ability of sharp vs dull discrimination, indicates function of protective sensation
pain perception
167
the ability to distinguish between warm and cool stimuli
temperature awareness
168
determines perception of tactile input
touch awareness
169
awareness of movement + direction through ROM
kinesthesia awareness
170
awareness of joint position sense at rest
proprioceptive awareness
171
the ability to recognize the form of objects by touch
stereognosis perception
172
the ability to localize touch sensation on the skin (topognosis)
tactile localization
173
the ability to perceive two points applied to the skin simultaneously
two point discrimination
174
the ability to perceive simultaneous touch stimuli
double simultaneous stimulation
175
term used to describe a situation in which only the proximal stimulus is perceived with "extinction" of the distal
extinction phenomenon
176
the ability to recognize letters, numbers, or designs "written" on the skin
graphesthesia
177
the ability to differentiate various textures
recognition of texture
178
the ability to recognize different weights of two objects that are the same size and shape
barognosis
179
normal adult respiratory rate
12-20 breaths per minute
180
normal adult blood pressure
120/80 mmHg
181
normal adult heart rate
60-100 bpm
182
normal adult O2 sats
100%
183
control center location for blood pressure
pons and upper medulla
184
hypertension
> 140/90
185
prehypertension
120-139/80-90
186
hypotension
systolic < 100
187
medical emergency blood pressure
> 180/110
188
slow heart rate < 60 bpm
bradycardia
189
fast heart rate > 100 bpm
tachycardia
190
pressure exerted by CSF inside the skull on the brain tissue
intracranial pressure (ICP)
191
normal ICP value
4-15 mmHg
192
if ICP is too high, the brain can _______
herniate
193
signs of high ICP
vomiting and headache
194
mild ICP hypertension value
20-30 mmHg
195
severe ICP hypertension
> 39 mmHg
196
in RBCs, transports O2 throughout the body
hemoglobin (Hb)
197
male hemoglobin value
14-17 g/dL
198
female hemoglobin value
12-16 g/dL
199
PT exercise indication for hemoglobin value of < 8 g/dL
no exercise
200
PT exercise indication for hemoglobin value of 8-10 g/dL
light exercise
201
PT exercise indication for hemoglobin value of > 10 g/dL
resistive exercise
202
percentage of RBCs throughout the body
hematocrit
203
male hematocrit percentage
40-51%
204
female hematocrit percentage
36-47%
205
PT exercise indication for hematocrit percentage of < 25%
no exercise
206
PT exercise indication for hematocrit percentage of > 25%
light exercise
207
PT exercise indication for hematocrit percentage of > 35%
resistive exercise
208
ratio of how well your blood clots
international normalizing ratio (INR)
209
normal INR value
.8-1.2
210
PT indication of 4 INR value
no increase in intensity
211
PT indication of 4-5 INR value
no resistance exercise
212
PT indication of 5-6 INR value
no exercise
213
PT indication of > 6 INR value
bed rest
214
the lower the INR value...
the faster blood will clot
215
the higher the INR value...
the slower blood will clot + greater risk for excessive bleeding
216
red flag O2 sat value
< 90%
217
condition of hemoglobin value < 8 g/dL
anemia
218
line that is inserted directly into the artery at hip or wrist and measures arterial blood pressure in real time
arterial line/catheter
219
line that measures ICP + drains CSF
external ventricular drain
220
line that measures ICP in real time through hole drilled into the skull
bolt
221
usually patients with these two lines have a low GCS score and are unable to participate in movement
EVD and bolt
222
line inserted into the neck and goes down large vein through the vena cava into the right atrium
Swan-ganz catheter
223
line that delivers medication directly into the circulatory system
central line (central venous catheter)
224
line that is peripherally inserted into the vein and goes directly into the heart, used with longer course antibiotics
PICC line (peripherally inserted central catheter)
225
patients usually get a ________ if on the vent for more than how many days?
tracheostomy, > 14-21 days
226
line that gives high amounts of oxygen to a patient without having to intubate
high flow nasal cannula
227
why is it important not to mobilize or push nasal cannula patients?
patient can desat and have to be intubated
228
collects fecal matter into a bag, often used with c-diff
fecal management system
229
urine collection that is gravity dependent
foley catheter
230
feeding tube through the nose to stomach, short term solution
NG tube (nasogastric tube)
231
feeding tube directly into the abdomen, long term solute common in patients with more severe brain injuries
PEG tube (percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy)
232
if a patient has a feeding tube and are NPO, what can the therapist not do?
give the patient food and water
233
helps determine if motor deficits are neurological (tone or paresis) or MSK (past or present injury)
motor screen
234
muscles, joints, and their sensory and motor nerve innervations
peripheral motor system
235
association areas (cortex and basal ganglia), motor cortex, cerebellum,
brain stem, and spinal cord
central motor system
236
additional positioning that may be required to fully assess a neurological patient during a motor screen
gravity minimized position
237
association areas are responsible for....
movement strategy to best achieve goal (cortex and basal ganglia)
238
motor cortex and cerebellum are responsible for...
sequence of contractions, arranged in space and time, smoothness to achieve goal
239
brain stem and spinal cord are responsible for...
execution and activation of the motor neurons to generate the movement
240
what 2 structures do not have direct output to the spinal cord?
cerebellum and basal ganglion
241
information comes directly from what three areas of the brain?
motor cortex
spinal cord
premotor areas
242
integration of the sensory input informs and guides the motor ______
response
243
main area of the brain that involves motor function
motor cortex
244
has the largest concentration of corticospinal neurons and requires a stimuli of low response to elicit a motor response
primary motor cortex
245
the primary motor cortex is anterior to the central sulcus and controls contralateral ________ movements
voluntary
246
anterior to the primary motor cortex, requires a higher intensity stimuli for motor response
supplementary and premotor areas (SMA and PMA)
247
axons from this area directly innervate motor units involved in initiation of movement, timing, sequential tasks, and action monitoring
SMA
248
area that innervates motor units that control trunk and proximal limb movements, plan and prepare the body for movement
PMA
249
the motor cortex receives information from what three things?
somatosensory cortex
cerebellum
basal ganglia
250
somatosensory information is relayed directly to the primary motor cortex from the __________
thalamus
251
relays information to the cerebellum and basal ganglia which allow integration and appropriate course of action
thalamus
252
regulates movement, postural control, and muscle tone
cerebellum
253
if input from the feedback system does not compare appropriately, the ______ gives a counteractive influence
cerebellum
254
what does it mean that the cerebellum is error correcting?
the cerebellum sends signals to the cortex to modify the movement
255
where are basal ganglia located?
cerebral cortex
256
main basal ganglia nuclei
caudate
putamen
globus pallidus
257
subcortical basal ganglia
subthalamic nucleus
substancia nigra
258
why do Parkinson's patients get rigid?
because basal ganglia maintains normal background muscle tone and is disrupted/diseased in Parkinson's patients
259
maintains normal background muscle tone
basal ganglia
260
what are some functions of basal ganglia?
initiation and regulation of intentional movement, planning and executing motor responses, postural adjustments
261
the ability to generate sufficient tension in a muscle for posture and movement
strength
262
_______ results from musculoskeletal properties of the muscle and neural activation
strength
263
inability to generate normal levels of force
weakness
264
very common impairment in those with UMN lesions
weakness
265
decreased voluntary motor unit recruitment or difficulty recruiting motor units to generate movement (still SOME recruitment)
paresis
266
absence of muscle recruitment and inability to generate movement
paralysis
267
what is the order of ROM when the patient cannot move through the full range?
AROM > AAROM > PROM
268
muscle grade for no contraction
0
269
muscle grade for a visible muscle twitch but no movement of the joint
1
270
muscle grade for a weak contraction that is unable to overcome gravity
2
271
muscle grade for a weak contraction that is able to overcome gravity but not able to take additional resistance
3
272
muscle grade for a weak contraction that is able to overcome gravity and take some resistance
4
273
muscle grade for a strong contraction that is able to overcome gravity and full resistance
5
274
muscle's resistance to passive stretch
muscle tone
275
is muscle tone velocity dependent?
no
276
muscle tone is causes by output from what two types of motor neurons?
alpha and gamma
277
velocity dependent increase in tonic stretch reflex (exaggerated tendon jerk from hyperexcitability)
spasticity
278
spasticity is a dysfunction of what tract?
corticospinal
279
spasticity is common in UMN or LMN?
UMN lesions
280
increased resistance to passive movement but is not velocity dependent
rigidity
281
disruption or disease of ______ ________ causes rigidity
basal ganglia
282
type of rigidity, consistent resistance to movement through entire range
lead pipe rigidity
283
type of rigidity, alternating episodes of resistance to movement throughout the range (catching)
cogwheel rigidity
284
reduced stiffness of the muscle when lengthened or moved through the range (loose and floppy)
hypotonia
285
_______ beating is a type of spasticity
clonus
286
scale used to assess alterations in muscle tone
modified ash worth scale
287
muscle bulk can be ______ (too much) or _________ (wasting)
hypertrophic or atrophic
288
small wavelike movements under the skin that indicate denervation of the muscle
fasciculations
289
rhythmic movements common in patients with Parkinson's disease
tremors
290
quick, large, piano like playing movement
chorea
291
slower, writhing like movement that is a medication side effect of Parkinson's
dystonia
292
quick, jerky moving of a joint or limb
myoclonus
293
multiple joints and muscles are activated at the appropriate time and force
coordination
294
coordination deficits are commonly seen with lesions in what 3 areas?
motor cortex
basal ganglia
cerebellum
295
abnormal patterns of movement secondary to lack of ability to move a single joint without simultaneously generating movement in other joints
synergy
296
MOST common synergy pattern
flexion of the UE
297
UE flexion synergy pattern
scapular retraction + elevation
shoulder abduction + ER
elbow flexion
forearm supination
wrist and finger flexion
298
LE extension synergy pattern
hip extension, adduction, and IR
knee extension
ankle plantarflexion + inversion
toe plantarflexion
299
problems judging distance or range of movement, therefore an inability to scale forces to meet certain tasks
dysmetria
300
dismetria is a ________ problem
coordination
301
coordination deficits are common in patients with what type of dysfunction?
cerebellar
302
overestimation of the force or range of movement needed for a specific task
hypermetria
303
underestimation of the required force of range to complete a task
hypometria
304
inability to perform rapid alternating movements (random)
dysdiadochokinesia
305
common coordination tests
finger to nose
alternating finger to nose
pronation/supination
rebound test
heel to shin
306
how do therapists treat coordination deficits?
repetition of functional task specific movements and WB activities
307
therapist applies manual resistance for an isometric elbow flexion contraction, resistance is sudden released and the triceps should contract to keep from having rebound
rebound test
