Neuropathology 1,2,3 Flashcards
A 43-year-old South Asian man is brought
into the emergency department with general-
ized seizures and fever >38 (101F). CT head
does not show any abnormality. LP is per-
formed with an opening pressure of 22 cm
H2O and CSF analysis shows: WCC 748
(Polymorphs 113, Lymphocytes 635), RBC
28, normal protein and normal glucose.
Which one of the following is the most likely
cause?
a. Enterovirus
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Wegener’s granulomatosis
a. Enterovirus
A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden
onset headache and photophobia. CT head
is unremarkable and she undergoes a lumbar
puncture. CSF analysis shows WCC 3, RBC
15000 and subarachnoid hemorrhage cannot
be excluded due to the presence of oxyhemo-
globin. CSF xanthochromia is detected by
which one of the following assays
a. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
b. Immunoprecipitation
c. Light microscopy
d. Spectroscopy
e. Western blotting
a. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
b. Immunoprecipitation
c. Light microscopy
d. Spectroscopy
e. Western blotting
Which one of the following is the most appropriate marker for tumor proliferation?
a. GFAP
b. Ki-67
c. LDH
d. P53
e. S100
a. GFAP
b. Ki-67
c. LDH
d. P53
e. S100
MIB-1 antibody is directed against the cell cycleassociated antigen Ki-67 expressed in the nucleus of
cells that have entered the cell cycle (i.e. exited the
G0 (resting) phase). It aids assessment of mitotic figures in order to estimate the proliferative potential
and thus aggressiveness of a tumor. Generally grade
II gliomas have MIB-1 indices of 2-5% and
glioblastomas of >10%. However, tumors with
the highest proliferation index are PNETs (20-
60%) and high-grade lymphomas (40-90%).
Which one of the following pathologies is most likely to exhibit the finding shown?
a. Ataxia telangiectasia
b. Neurofibromatosis-1
c. Neurofibromatosis-2
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis
a. Ataxia telangiectasia
b. Neurofibromatosis-1
c. Neurofibromatosis-2
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis
Individuals with light irises tend to have orange or brown round Lisch nodules. In an individual with a dark iris, on slit-lamp examination reveals lightcolored nodules appear like splattered putty or white paint.
Which one of the following is most accurate
regarding tumors with 0-6-methylguanine-
DNA methyltransferase methylation?
a. More susceptible to alkylating agents
b. More susceptible to antimetabolites
c. More susceptible to antitumor antibiotics
d. More susceptible to topoisomerase
inhibitors
e. More susceptible to ribunucleotide reduc-
tase inhibitors
a. More susceptible to alkylating agents
b. More susceptible to antimetabolites
c. More susceptible to antitumor antibiotics
d. More susceptible to topoisomerase
inhibitors
e. More susceptible to ribunucleotide reductase inhibitors
Promoter methylation is a mechanism of genesilencing that occurs spontaneously in many
tumor types. MGMT is one of many DNA repair
enzymes and in a tumor with MGMT gene
silencing by promoter hypermethylation little
functional MGMT enzyme is produced. MGMT
is particularly effective in repairing DNA damage
induced by alkylating chemotherapeutic agents such as temozolomide (TMZ). The less functional MGMT is present in a rapidly proliferating
tumor such as GBM, the more effective alkylating
agents are likely to be in killing cells off by inducing irreparable cytotoxic DNA damage. Therefore, MGMT methylation status can be used to
stratify tumors into likely TMZ-responders and
non-responders. It has been shown that GBM
patients with a good performance score and
MGMT methylation benefit from post-operative
combined TMZ and radiotherapy treatment
(Further reading Hegi ME, Diserens AC, Gorlia
T. MGMT gene silencing and benefit from temozolomide in glioblastoma, N Engl J Med. 2005 Mar
10;352(10):997-1003), resulting in a significant
survival benefit.
Which one of the following genetic muta-
tions are associated with improved brain
tumor prognosis?
a. Loss of 1p/19q
b. Loss of 1p/22q
c. Loss of 1p/10q
d. Loss of 1p/10q
e. Loss of 1p/10q
a. Loss of 1p/19q
b. Loss of 1p/22q
c. Loss of 1p/10q
d. Loss of 1p/10q
e. Loss of 1p/10q
This is the signature genetic defect in classical oligodendrogliomas (WHO grade II and III). They
often occur together and can be the result of a translocation of 1p and 19q [t(1,19)(q10;p10)]. The presence of these mutations typically indicates an
improved prognosis particularly for patients with
WHO grade III anaplastic oligodendrogliomas
(irrespective of treatment). It was also thought that
this genetic signature (particularly LOH 1p) was
associated with a good response to early PCV chemotherapy resulting in overall improved survival.
1p/19q loss can also occur in mixed oligoastrocytomas. If it is the main genetic abnormality in these tumors, it usually also indicates a somewhat improved prognosis. There are presumed oligodendroglioma tumor-suppressor genes on 1p and 19q, but their specific identity remains unclear.
Which one of the following types of cerebral
edema is seen in malignant hypertension?
a. Cytotoxic
b. Hydrostatic
c. Interstitial
d. Osmotic
e. Vasogenic
a. Cytotoxic
b. Hydrostatic
c. Interstitial
d. Osmotic
e. Vasogenic
Cerebral ischemia is usually seen when global
cerebral blood flow is below:
a. 60 ml per 100 g tissue per min
b. 50 ml per 100 g tissue per min
c. 40 ml per 100 g tissue per min
d. 30 ml per 100 g tissue per min
e. 20 ml per 100 g tissue per min
a. 60 ml per 100 g tissue per min
b. 50 ml per 100 g tissue per min
c. 40 ml per 100 g tissue per min
d. 30 ml per 100 g tissue per min
e. 20 ml per 100 g tissue per min
Normal global cerebral blood flow is 55-60 ml
per 100 g of brain tissue per min (i.e. 700 ml/min
or 15% of resting cardiac output); more
precisely about 70-80 ml per 100 g per min in
gray matter and 20-45 ml per 100 g per min
in white matter
Which one of the following descriptions sug-
gest WHO grade II astrocytoma?
a. Microcystic change
b. Nuclear atypia and hyperchromasia
c. >10 mitoses per high power field
d. Numerous mitoses and anaplasia
e. Microvascular proliferation or necrosis
a. Microcystic change
b. Nuclear atypia and hyperchromasia
c. >10 mitoses per high power field
d. Numerous mitoses and anaplasia
e. Microvascular proliferation or necrosis
WHO grade is an independent prognostic factor
and currently particularly used in determining
need for adjuvant therapies (usually indicated in
WHO III/IV lesions). Grade I lesions (pilocytic
astrocytomas, meningiomas) are tumors with a
low proliferation rate which often can be cured
by surgery alone. Grade II lesions are often infiltrative, and in the glioma categories, tend to rec or progress to higher grade lesions (survival generally >5 years). Grade III is generally reserved
for tumors with histological anaplasia and brisk
mitotic activity; recurrence and progression is
the rule (survival 2-3 years). Grade IV lesions
are highly aggressive tumors prone to necrosis
and relentless progression to within a year if left
untreated (note that treatment of some WHO IV
lesions such as medulloblastoma and germinoma
can be quite successful).
Which one of the following best describes the finding below?
a. Ash-leaf (macule)
b. Café-au-lait spot
c. Plexiform neurofibroma
d. Port wine stain
e. Shagreen patch
a. Ash-leaf (macule)
b. Café-au-lait spot
c. Plexiform neurofibroma
d. Port wine stain
e. Shagreen patch
Tuberous sclerosis. Several lance-ovate (ash-leaf)
and thumbprint white macules are noted on this
infant’s back.
Image with permission from Paller AS, Mancini AJ. Hurwitz Clinical Pediatric Dermatology, 4th ed., Saunders,
Elsevier, 2011
Which one of the following best describes
the finding below?
a. Cowden syndrome
b. Gorlin syndrome
c. MEN1
d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. Von Hippel Lindau
d. Tuberous sclerosis
Facial angiofibromas (“adenoma sebaceum”) are
typically 1-4 mm, skin-colored to red, domeshaped papules with a smooth surface
Which one of the following genetic mutations
is most likely seen with the finding below?
a. 9q34/16p13
b. 3p25
c. 17p13
d. 9q22
e. 5q21
a. 9q34 (TSC1)/16p13 (TSC2)
The shagreen patch is characteristically found at
the lumbosacral area and has a peau d’orange
texture.
Image with permission from Paller AS, Mancini AJ,
Hurwitz Clinical Pediatric Dermatology, 4th ed., Saunders,
Elsevier, 2011
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Angiofibroma
b. Collagenoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Neuroma
e. Periungual fibroma
e. Periungual fibroma
Tuberous sclerosis. Periungual and subungual
fibromas on the fourth finger of this adolescent
boy
Which one of the following findings are most
likely associated with the clinical feature below?
a. Brainstem arteriovenous malformation
b. GI polyps
c. Optic glioma
d. Retinal hamartoma
e. Sensorineural deafness
e. Sensorineural deafness
Waardenburg syndrome is a group of four autosomal dominant disorders characterized by a
white forelock (hair depigmentation), heterochromia irides, cutaneous depigmentation and congenital sensorineural deafness. Individuals
with the commonest type I have characteristic
facial features—broad nasal root, lateral displacement of the medial canthi and lacrimal punctua of the lower lids (dystopia canthorum).
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Cowden syndrome
b. McCune-Albright syndrome
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
d. Neurofibromatosis type 2
e. Rhabdoid tumor syndrome
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
The presence of six or more café-au-lait spots
>0.5 cm in diameter in children and 1.5 cm in
adolescents suggests the possibility of NF1, although having café-au-lait spots alone does
not allow for definitive diagnosis.
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Acanthosis nigricans
b. Legius syndrome
c. Muenke syndrome
d. Neurofibromatosis type 2
e. Pfeiffer syndrome
b. Legius syndrome
Legius syndrome (Neurofibromatosis type 1-like
syndrome) is an autosomal dominant RASopathy
often mistaken for NF-1. Patients show multiple
café-au-lait spots, axillary freckling, lipomas,
macrocephaly, learning disabilities among others.
It lacks Lisch nodules, bone abnormalities, neurofibromas, optic pathway gliomas and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors. Axillary freckling (Crowe’s sign) is present in 20-50% of individuals with NF1 and commonly appears between 3 and 5 years of age
Which one of the following best describes
the finding shown?
a. Cowden syndrome
b. Legius syndrome
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
d. Rhabdoid tumor syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis complex
c. Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 1. Dermal and subcutaneous neurofibromas are rarely found before adolescence. These tumors, which originate from Schwann cells, increase in number progressively thereafter.
Which one of the following is most likely in
the image shown?
a. Basal cell naevus syndrome (Gorlin)
b. Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia
c. Neurofibromatosis type 2
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
e. Tuberous sclerosis
c. Neurofibromatosis type 2
Plexiform neurofibromas are commonly present
at birth and can resemble giant café-au-lait spots,
although borders are often more irregular. With
advancing age, plexiform neurofibromas may
enlarge and become more elevated with a firm
or “bag of worms” consistency.
Which one of the following is most likely in the image shown?
a. Crouzon syndrome
b. Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
c. Gardener’s syndrome
d. Gorlin syndrome
e. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
d. Gorlin syndrome
Gorlin (basal cell nevus) syndrome. Shallow erythematous depressions on the plantar surface of an adult female with BCNS (acral pits).
Which one of the following CNS manifesta-
tions are associated with the condition sug-
gested below?
a. Aqueduct stenosis
b. DNET
c. Leptomeningeal angiomatosis
d. Skull base meningioma
e. Sphenoid wing dysplasia
c. Leptomeningeal angiomatosis
Port-wine stain (PWS) (nevus flammeus). This
lesion involves both the V1 and V2 trigeminal
dermatomes in this infant with Sturge-Weber
syndrome (SWS). Nevus flammeus, or PWS, is
a congenital capillary malformation that may
occur as an isolated lesion or in association with
a variety of syndromes (e.g. SWS, KlippelTrenauny syndrome, Von Hippel Lindau syndrome, Wyburn-Mason syndrome, amongst
others). It is often, but not always, unilateral
and the most common site of involvement is
the face, although they may occur on any cutaneous surface. SWS (encephalofacial or encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis) is a neuroectodermal
syndrome characterized by a PWS in the distribution of the first (ophthalmic) branch of the
trigeminal nerve (V1) in association with leptomeningeal angiomatosis (presenting usually with
seizures) and glaucoma. Central nervous system
disease in SWS: seizures are the most common
CNS feature, and often have their onset during
the first year of life. The seizures of SWS may
be difficult to control, and both early onset and
increased seizure intensity are associated with
future developmental and cognitive delay. Headaches (including migraines), stroke-like episodes,
focal neurologic impairments, cognitive deficits
and emotional and behavioral problems, including depression, violent behavior, and selfinflicted injury, are also more common in SWS.
Leptomeningeal angiomatosis is a classic component of the syndrome, and lesions are frequently
ipsilateral to the cutaneous vascular stain. Cerebral atrophy is a frequent radiologic finding, as
is enlargement of the choroid plexus and venous
abnormalities. Magnetic resonance imaging is the
modality of choice for identifying these changes,
although computed tomography scans are better at detecting the classic cortical calcifications,
which are also seen. These calcifications follow
the convolutions of the cerebral cortex and are
characterized by double-contoured parallel
streaks of calcification (“tram lines”). Ocular
involvement occurs in around 60% of patients
with SWS. Glaucoma is the most frequent ocular
finding, and it may present at any time between
birth and the fourth decade. It may be unilateral
or bilateral, with the latter being more common
in patients with bilateral facial PWS. Vascular
malformations of the eye in patients with SWS
may involve the conjunctiva, episclera, choroid,
and retina. Other eye findings include nevus of
Ota, buphthalmos, and blindness. Dermatologic,
neurologic, and ophthalmologic follow-up is
indicated and the primary care provider must
provide anticipatory guidance and support.
Although the primary management for seizures
is with pharmacologic agents, surgical therapy
may become necessary. Visually guided lobectomy with excision of the angiomatous cortex is
considered the primary surgical approach in
patient with focal lesions. Hemispherectomy is
often advised for patients with intractable seizures
and unihemispheric involvement. This radical
therapy is often successful, with decreased seizure
activity and, in some patients, cognitive and
behavioral improvement.
Molecular assays of NS tumors:
a. B-cell and T-cell receptor gene rearran-
gement
b. BRAF-KIAA1549 gene fusion/
duplication
c. Chromosome 1p/19q loss
d. EGFR gene amplification/10q loss
e. EWSR1 gene rearrangement
f. MGMT promotor methylation status
g. Monosomy chromosome 6
h. MYC gene amplification
i. SMARCB1 gene loss/INI1 protein absent
j. Wnt signaling pathway upregulation
For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Diagnosis of atypical teratoid/rhabdoid
tumor
2. Response to alkylating agents in high grade
glioma
3. Found in most pilocytic astrocytomas
1—i, 2—f, 3—b
Tumor syndromes:
a. APC
b. MEN1
c. NF-1
d. NF-2
e. PTCH
f. PTEN
g. SMARCB1
h. TP53
i. TSC1/TSC2
j. VHL
For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Gliomas and medulloblastoma
2. AT/RT
3. Hemangioblastoma
1—a: APC (Turcot syndrome), 2—g: SMARCB1 (Rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome),
3—j: VHL (Von Hippel Lindau)
Tumor markers:
a. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
b. Beta-2-microglobulin
c. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin
d. CA-125
e. CA15-3/CA27.29
f. CA19-9
g. Calcitonin
h. CEA
i. Chromogranin-A
j. Cytokeratin fragment 21-1
k. HE-4
l. LDH
m. PSA
For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Neuroendocrine tumors
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Liver and germ cell cancers
1—i: Chromogranin A, 2—b: Beta-2-microglobulin, 3—a: Alpha-fetoprotein
Cytopathology of neurones and glia:
a. Central chromatolysis
b. Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions
c. Flexner Wintersteiner rosette
d. Hirano Bodies
e. Homer-Wright rosette
f. Inclusion bodies
g. Lewy bodies
h. Negri bodies
i. Neurofibrillary tangles
j. Perivascular pseudorosette
k. Pick Bodies
l. Pick Cells
m. Schiller-Duval bodies
n. Verocay bodies
For each of the following descriptions, select the
most appropriate answers from the list above.
Each answer may be used once, more than once
or not at all.
1. Schwannoma
2. Ependymoma
3. Retinoblastoma
4. Rabies virus
5. Alzheimer’s disease
1—n: Verocay, 2—j: Pseudorosette, 3—c: Flexner Wintersteiner rosette, 4—h: Negri bodies, 5—i:
Neurofibrillary tangles
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Congestive edema
b. Diffuse cytotoxic edema
c. Focal cytotoxic edema
d. Interstitial edema
e. Vasogenic edema
e—Vasogenic edema secondary to GBM. Widened gyri, narrowing of sulci, compression of ventricles may be focal or diffuse. Vasogenic edema often associated with focal lesions, tumors, abscess.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Arachnoid granulations
b. Calcification
c. Dural metastasis
d. Meningitis
e. Venous thrombosis
a—Arachnoid granulations
These whitish granular structures are located at the superior medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres near the sagital sinus. They function in resorption of CS.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Subfalcine herniation
c. Tonsillar herniation
d. Transtentorial herniation
e. Upwards herniation
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Subfalcine herniation
c. Tonsillar herniation
d. Transtentorial herniation
e. Upwards herniation
In this image, a lesion, not visible in this image (at
least the lesion is not), causing significant mass
effect in the right frontal lobe has caused right
cingulate gyrus herniation under the falx
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Brain stem compression
b. Demyelination
c. Infarction
d. Primary brainstem hemorrhagic stroke
e. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
a. Brain stem compression
b. Demyelination
c. Infarction
d. Primary brainstem hemorrhagic stroke
e. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Duret (secondary) hemorrhage. Hemorrhages of
the basis pontis may result from brain stem compression secondary to downward mass effect and herniation from above.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Alobar holoprosencephaly
b. Arhinencephaly
c. Lobar holoprosencephaly
d. Semilobar holoprosencephaly
e. Syntelencephaly
a. Alobar holoprosencephaly
b. Arhinencephaly
c. Lobar holoprosencephaly
d. Semilobar holoprosencephaly
e. Syntelencephaly
Two distinct cerebral hemispheres have formed,
but there is fusion of inferior-medial structures
including the thalamus and mammillary bodies.
There is no septum pellucidum. Holoprosencephaly represents a spectrum of
midline patterning defects that involve the forebrain and midline facial structures; brain malformation results from failure of prosencephalon to develop into two telencephalic vesicles. Rare 1 per 10,000 live births (but 1 in 250 spontaneous
abortions);
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Chiari I malformation
b. Chiari II malformation
c. Dandy-Walker Malformation
d. Joubert syndrome
e. Rhombencephalosynapsis
b—Chiari II malformation—small cerebellum with marked tonsillar and vermian herniation
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Chiari malformation III
b. Craniospinal rachischisis
c. Dandy-Walker malformation
d. Semilobar holoprosencephaly
e. Syntelencephaly
c—Dandy-Walker malformation
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Focal cortical dysplasia
b. Lissencephaly type 1
c. Lissencephaly type 2
d. Pachygyria
e. Pick’s disease
d—Pachygyria—enlarged gyri adjacent to
sylvian fissure.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cortical dysplasia
b. Periventricular nodular heterotropias
c. Polymicrogyria
d. Ventriculitis
e. X-linked lissencephaly
b—Periventricular nodular heterotropias.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Germinal matrix hemorrhage
b. Kernicterus
c. Periventricular leukomalacia
d. Wilson’s disease
e. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
a—Germinal matrix hemorrhage (16-18
weeks of gestation)
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Acute diffuse hypoxia
b. Canavan disease
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
d. Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
e. Pachygyria
a. Acute diffuse hypoxia
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Huntington’s disease
b. Intraventricular hemorrhage
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Multiple system atrophy
e. Periventricular leukomalacia
e—Periventricular leukomalacia (hemorrhagic). Areas of periventricular necrosis
may undergo extensive hemorrhage
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Left ACA infarct
b. Left pericallosal infarct
c. Left SCA infarct
d. Right PCA infarct
e. Right pericallosal infarct
d—Right PCA infarct. Remote infarct in
region of right posterior cerebral artery
appears as a depressed, cavitated area.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Brain contusion
b. CNS lymphoma
c. Malignant infarction
d. Non-accidental injury
e. PRES
c—Malignant infarction. A massive
right cerebral infarct (recent) resulted in
hyperemia, swelling, and right cingulate gyrus
herniation.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cerebral Toxoplasmosis
b. HSV encephalitis
c. Mycotic aneurysm
d. Rosenthal fibers
e. Tuberculous meningitis
c—Mycotic aneurysm. Vasoinvasive fungi
are revealed by Gomori methenamine silver
(GMS) stain
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Arteriovenous malformation
b. Capillary telangiectasia
c. Caverous hemagioma
d. Developmental venous anomaly
e. Dural arteriovenous fistula
d—DVA—congenital venous malformation
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Contrecoup contusion
c. Hemorrhagic stroke
d. Ischemic stroke
e. Vasculitis
b—Contrecoup contusions.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Kernicterus
b. Multicystic encephalopathy
c. Pontosubicular necrosis
d. Status marmoratus
e. Ulegyria
a—Kernicterus
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Germinal matrix hemorrhage
b. Hydrancephaly
c. Lissencephaly
d. Multicystic encephalopathy
e. Porencephalic cyst
e—Porencephaly cyst
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Agyria
b. Cobblestone cortex
c. Pachygyria
d. Porencephaly
e. Schizencephaly
e—Schizencephaly
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Astrocytoma
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Cerebral abscess
d. Cerebral metastasis
e. Tumefactive demyelination
a—Astrocytoma
Which one of the following is most likely in a patient where the findings shown affect multiple (3 or more) lobes of the brain?
a. Cerebral infarct
b. Gliomatosis cerebri
c. Kernicterus
d. Periventricular leukomalacia
e. Primary CNS lymphoma
b—Gliomatosis cerebri
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
b. NF-1
c. Retinal detachment
d. Retinoblastoma
e. Terson’s syndrome
a. Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
b. NF-1
c. Retinal detachment
d. Retinoblastoma
e. Terson’s syndrome
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Diffuse astrocytoma
b. Germinal matrix hemorrhage
c. Perventricular heterotopia
d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. Von Hippel-Lindau
d—Tuberous sclerosis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Fourth ventricular subependymoma
b. Duret hemorrhage
c. Infarct of cerebellar vermis
d. Myxopapillary ependymoma
e. Tanycytic ependymoma
a—Fourth ventricular subependymoma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor
b. Cerebral abscess
c. Choroid plexus papilloma
d. Intraventricular meningioma
e. Mesial temporal sclerosis
a—Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Ependymoma
b. Glioblastoma multiforme
c. Meningioma
d. Oligodendroglioma
e. Supratentorial PNET
c—Meningioma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Arteriovenous malformation
b. Choroid plexus papilloma
c. Glioma
d. Intracranial aneurysm
e. Meningioma
e—This intraventricular meningioma arose from the choroid plexus on the left side. It had histologic features of a fibrous meningioma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Abscess
b. Aneurysm
c. Arachnoid cyst
d. Glioma
e. Schwannoma
e—Schwannoma.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Dermoid cyst
b. Diffuse astrocytoma
c. Hemorrhagic stroke
d. Intraventricular meningioma
e. Primary CNS lymphoma
e—Primary CNS lymphoma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cerebral abscess
b. Cystic Meningioma
c. Ex-vacuo dilatation
d. Germinoma
e. Hemangioblastoma
e—Hemangioblastoma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Colloid cyst
b. Optic glioma
c. Pineal cyst
d. Pituitary adenoma
e. Sheehan’s syndrome
d—Large soft tan-brown pituitary adenoma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Arachnoid cyst
b. Dermoid cyst
c. Epidermoid cyst
d. Pineal cyst
e. Rathke’s cleft cyst
e—Rathke’s cleft cyst
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Colloid cyst
b. Craniopharyngioma
c. Epidermoid cyst
d. Pituitary adenoma
e. Teratoma
a—Colloid cyst of third ventricle
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cerebral vasculitis
b. Multifocal glioma
c. Multiple abscesses
d. Multiple metastasis
e. Neurofibromatosis
d—Multiple metastasis.
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Epidermoid
b. Hemangioblastoma
c. Lhermitte-Duclos disease
d. Melanoma
e. Teratoma
d—Melanoma
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Arachnoid villus
b. Choroid plexus
c. Ecchordosis physaliphora
d. PICA aneurysm
e. Schwannoma
c—Ecchordosis physaliphora
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cerebral malaria
b. Cysticercosis
c. Herpes encephalitis
d. Purulent meningitis
e. Subdural empyema
d—Purulent meningitis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cavum septum pellucidae
b. Periventricular leukomalacia
c. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
d. Subependymal heterotopia
e. Ventriculitis
e—Ventriculitis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
b. Pseudomonas
c. Spirochetes (Lyme disease)
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
a—Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Aspergillosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Cryptococcosis
d. Cystercicosis
e. Toxoplasmosis
c—Cerebral cryptococcosis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Aspergillosis
b. Cerebral abscess
c. Cerebral malaria
d. Hyatid disease
e. Listeria encephalitis
a—Aspergillosis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Cavernoma
b. Cerebral metastasis
c. Developmental venous anomalies
d. Neurocysticercosis
e. Neuronal migration disorder
d—Neurocysticercosis
Which one of the following is most likely
based on the image shown below?
a. Amoebic meningoencephalitis
b. Diffuse subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Meningeal carcinomatosis
d. Post-radiotherapy change
e. Tuberculous meningitis
a—Amoebic meningoencephalitis.
