Neuropathology Flashcards

(157 cards)

1
Q

What primary CNS neoplasm is associated with eosinophilic
granular bodies ?
A. Anaplastic astrocytoma
B. Oligodendroglioma
C. Gemistocytic astrocytoma
D. Pilocytic astrocytoma
E. Germinoma

A

A. Anaplastic astrocytoma
B. Oligodendroglioma
C. Gemistocytic astrocytoma
**D. Pilocytic astrocytoma **
E. Germinoma

Pilocytic astrocytomas typically have a biphasic appearance. They usually consist of regions of elongated cells
arranged in compact fascicles intermixed with regions of
stellate cells that encompass microcysts. Pilocytic astrocytomas can exhibit some nuclear pleomorphism and hyperchromasia , but mitoses and necrosis are absent. These
tumors are classically associated with Rosenthal fibers
and intracellular eosinophilic globules (granular bodies).
Intracellular eosinophilic conglomerations can also be observed in pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma but not anaplastic
astrocytoma or oligodendroglioma. Gemistocytic astrocytoma is characterized by large, plump astrocytes with
diffuse , glassy cytoplasm (Ellison, pp. 630- 634; WHO, pp. 25,
45-54,56- 64).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is associated with deposition of
phosphorylated tau protein ?
A. Hirano bodies
B. Neurofibrillary tangles
C. Diffuse amyloid plaques
D. Lewy bodies
E. Granulovacuolar degeneration

A

A. Hirano bodies
**B. Neurofibrillary tangles **
C. Diffuse amyloid plaques
D. Lewy bodies
E. Granulovacuolar degeneration

Neurofibrillary tangles (NFTs) are cytoplasmic, basophilic structures that are prevalent in neurons in patients
with Alzheimer’s disease (AD). NFTs contain large amounts
of paired helical filament protein, which largely consists of
hyperphosphorylated tau. Tau protein is also phosphorylated in normal brain; however, these phosphate groups are
easily removed by phosphatases. The hyperphosphorylated
tau of NFTs is largely resistant to phosphatases, which may
be a key feature in its deposition in AD. Other key features of
AD include Hirano bodies (which are composed of actin),
amyloid plaques, and granulovacuolar degeneration (which
primarily affects hippocampal neurons). AmylOid plaques
are extracellular deposits of amyloid and preamyloid material, which are easily demonstrated with silver stains and
immunohistochemical stains for A~ peptide. Diffuse plaques
contain normal neuronal processes and lack tau protein.
Classic (mature) plaques often consist of dense core regions
with a peripheral halo and may stain positive for tau protein
( Ellison, pp. 550-565).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph (H&E section)
A. Lymphoma
B. Fibrillary astrocytoma
C. Glioblastoma
D. Medulloblastoma
E. Meningioma

A

A. Lymphoma
B. Fibrillary astrocytoma
**C. Glioblastoma **
D. Medulloblastoma
E. Meningioma

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is characterized by
cellular pleomorphism and a diversity of histologic appearances. Regardless of the predominant histologic pattern of
a particular GBi'I, cytologic pleomorphism, nuclear hyperchromasia, and frequent mitoses are often observed. By
definition, tumor necrosis and/or microvascular proliferation is present. Pseudopalisading of neoplastic cells around a
central necrotic region (pseudopalisading necrosis), as depicted here, is characteristic of GBMs. These features easily
distinguish GEM from low-grade astrocytomas; medulloblastomas exhibit a more homogenous population of small blue cells that lack pseudopalisading necrosis. Lymphomas are
characterized by sheets of neoplastic lymphocytes that often
surround blood vessels and occaSionally exhibit necrosis
(Ellison, pp. 628- 630; WHO, pp. 27-28, 29-39, 129-132,
199- 201).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What chromosome abnormality is associated with neurofibromatosis type I?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 17
E. 20

A

A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D.17
E. 20

Neurofibromatosis type 1 is associated with abnormalities of the neurofibromin gene, which is located on chromosome l7qll. NFl exhibits autosoma l inheritance with almost
complete penetrance; however, approximately 50% of all cases
are secondary to spontaneous mutations. Neurofibromin
is a guanosine triphosphatase-activating protein that is
important for cell proliferation and differentiation (Ellison,
pp. 695-696; WHO, pp. 216-218).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Congenital CMV infection is characterized by all of the
following EXCEPT?
A. Peri ventricular calcifications
B. Microglialnodules
C. Chorioretinitis
D. Mega lencephaly
E. I-Iydrocephalus

A

A. Peri ventricular calcifications
B. Microglialnodules
C. Chorioretinitis
**D. Mega lencephaly **
E. I-Iydrocephalus

Congenital CMV infection represents the most common intrauterine viral infection, affecting 0.5 to 2.0% of all
births. Macroscopically, CMV infection is characterized by
microcephaly, periventricular and basal ganglial calcifications, and hydrocephalus. Microscopically, CMV infections
exhibit microglial nodules, cytomegalic inclusion cells, ventriculoencephalitis, and gliosis. Infants with congenital CMV
infections can also exhibit mental retardation, seizures,
chorioretinitis, optic atrophy, sensorineural hearing loss,
and death in 30% of acute infections (Ellison, pp. 284- 286).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following disorders is associated with
Opalski cells on microscopic examination?
A. I-Iallervorden-Spatz disease
B. We rdnig-HoffmHn disease
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
E. Gaucher’s disease

A

A. I-Iallervorden-Spatz disease
B. We rdnig-HoffmHn disease
**C. Wilson’s disease **
D. Tay-Sachs disease
E. Gaucher’s disease

Opalsld cells are round, with a small central nucleus
and prominent granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. These cells
are most commonly observed in the globus pallidus in patients with Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration)
and acquired hepatic encephalopathy (Ellison, pp. 429- 432).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following proteins compose the Lewy body?
A. Ubiquitin
B. Neu rofilamen ts
C. (Y,- Synuclein
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above

A

A. Ubiquitin
B. Neu rofilamen ts
C. (Y,- Synuclein
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above

Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson’s disease
and are composed of neurofiJament proteins (form the cytoskeleton of the inclUSion), ubiquitin (involved in cytosolic
proteolYSiS), o:B crystallin (neurofilament chaperone protein), and o:-synuclein (catalyze phosphorylation of neurofilaments). Immunohistochemical stains for ubiquitin are
among the most sensitive methods of identifying Lewy
bodies (Ellison, pp. 511- 513).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Canavan’s disease results from deficiencies of which of
the following enzymes?
A. Aspartoacylase
B. Aryl sulfatase A
C. Glucocerebrosidase
D. I-Iexosaminidase A
E. Iduronidase

A

**A. Aspartoacylase **
B. Aryl sulfatase A
C. Glucocerebrosidase
D. I-Iexosaminidase A
E. Iduronidase

Canavan’s disease (spongiform leukodystrophy) is an
autosomal recessive disorder characterized by extensive
vacuolation of the white matter due to the widespread loss of
myelin at the gray-white junction. Although cortical neurons
are normal, there are numerous Alzheimer type II astrocytes within the gray matter. Cortical changes include enlarged
pale astrocytes in the deeper cortical layers that contain
abnormally long mitochondria with ladder-like cristae, an
abnormality unique to Canavan’s disease. Canavan’s disease
does not spare the subcortical U fibers and is a result of
deficiencies of the enzyme aspartoacylase (Ellison, pp.
121-122,125).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is depicted in the following photomicrograph?
A. Fibrillary astrocytoma
B. Reactive astrocytosis
C. Anaplastic astrocytoma
D. Clear cell meningioma
E. Yolk sac tumor

A

**A. Fibrillary astrocytoma **
B. Reactive astrocytosis
C. Anaplastic astrocytoma
D. Clear cell meningioma
E. Yolk sac tumor

Fibrillary astrocytoma is characterized by atypical
astrocytes in a loose fibrillary matrix. The neoplastic cells
lack visible cytoplasm and show features of mild nuclear
atypia, such as hyperchromasia, elongation, or angulation.
As in this case, microcysts are often prominent. J\Htoses,
necrosis, and endothelial proliferation are not observed.
Reactive astrocytosis can occasionally be confused with a
fibrillary astrocytoma; however, astrocytosis is characterized by an even distribution of slightly enlarged astrocytic
nuclei with abundant cytoplasm and long, tapering processes. There is usually no significant hypercellularity in
reactive astrocytosis. Microcysts are also not observed with
reactive astrocytosis (Ellison, pp. 623-628; WHO, pp. 24-
25).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following neoplasms is not associated with
neurofibromatosis type 2?
A. Ependymoma
B. SchwalUloma
C. Meningioma
D. Glioma
E. Plexiform neurofibroma

A

A. Ependymoma
B. SchwalUloma
C. Meningioma
D. Glioma
E. Plexiform neurofibroma

NF-2 is an autosomal dominant condition that is most
commonly associated with bilateral schwannomas of the
eighth cranial nerve and multiple intracranial meningiomas.
NF-2 is also associated with schwannomas of other cranial
nerves, spinal meningiomas, astrocytomas (spinal, brainstem, and cerebellar), and spinal ependymomas. Spinal
schwannomas are occasionally observed with l\TF-2, although
spinal neurofibromas and plexiform neurofibromas are not
(WHO, pp. 219- 222; Ellison, pp. 696-699; Kaye and Laws,
pp. 71- 76).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most likely clinical history associated with
the following photomicrograph?
A. Seizures and progressive hypotonia in infancy
B. Rapidly progressing dementing illness of an adult
C. Gradually progressive focal neurologic deficit
D. Asymptomatic lesion that can often be treated with
antibiotics alone
E. Asymptomatic lesion that typically responds favorably
to surgery alone

A

A
B
C
D
E

The photomicrograph illustrates the classic spongiform change that is associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). CJD usually affects adults in the sixth to eighth
decades of life. Approximately 85% of all cases of CJD are
sporadic and 10% are familial. Microscopically, CJD is characterized by neuronal loss, astrocytosis, spongiform change
(fine vacuolation of the neuropil), and a lack of inflammation. Clinically, CJD is characterized initially by subtle
motor signs and ataxia , followed by a rapidly progressive
dementing illness that culminates in severe myoclonus,
akinetic mutism, and death within 1 year from initial symptom onset. The prion diseases, including CJD, GerstmannStraussler-Scheinker disease , fatal famili al insomnia, and
kuru, are believed to have a common molecular pathology
that involves the conversion of a normal cellular protein
(encoded on human chromosome 20), called prion protein
(PrP), into an abnormal isoform that is resistant to protease
degradation (Prpre,). This abnormal isoform is believed to
accumulate within cells, and also outside of cells in the form
of amyloid . Although inul1unostaining for Prpre, is diagnostic
for CJD, the CSF immunoassay for protein 14-3-3 has 96% sensitivity and specificity for detecting CJD among patients
with dementia. The characteristic EEG findings include
bilateral, symmetric, and periodic bi- or triphasic synchronous sharp-wave complexes (periodic spikes, 0.5 to 2/s),
which have 70% sensitivity and 86% specificity for CJD. Fully
effective and recommended operating room procedures for
instrument sterilization includes steam autoclaving for
1 hour at 132°C or immersion in IN sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) for 1 hour at room temperature. Partially effective
procedures include steam autoclaving at either 121 or 132°C
for 15 to 30 minutes, immersion in IN NaOH for 15 minutes,
or immersion in sodium hypochlorite (household bleach)
undiluted or up to 1:10 dilution (0.5%) for 1 hour. Ineffective sterilization procedures include boiling, UV light,
ionizing radiation, ethylene oxide, ethanol, formalin , betapropiolactone, ammonium compounds, iodine, or acetone
(Ellison, pp. 585- 598; Greenberg, pp. 228-231).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

i'Iatch the following items with their appropriate
inclusion body: Marinesco bodies
A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

A

A
B
C
D
E

Marinesco bodies are small
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions that are prominent in
neurons of the substantia nigra and are composed largely
of ubiquitin and intermediate filaments. Lafont bodies
are composed of polysaccharide polyme rs (polyglucosans)
and have a round core that is strongly PAS-positive. Bunina
bodies are small eosinophilic inclusions that are observed in
motor neuron diseases such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Hirano bodies are brightly eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
that are prominent in hippocampal neurons in Alzheimer’s
disease. Hirano bodies are composed of actin and actinassociated proteins. Pick bodies are slightly basophilic
neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in all
layers of the cerebral cortex and some subcortical nuclei in
patients with Pick’s disease. Pick bodies consist of ubiquitin,
tubulin, tau, and chromogranin-A (Ellison, pp. 7-10, 504-
505,552,566-567,570- 572).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

i'Iatch the following items with their appropriate
inclusion body: Lafora bodies
A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

A

A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
**C. Polyglucosans **
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

Marinesco bodies are small
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions that are prominent in
neurons of the substantia nigra and are composed largely
of ubiquitin and intermediate filaments. Lafont bodies
are composed of polysaccharide polyme rs (polyglucosans)
and have a round core that is strongly PAS-positive. Bunina
bodies are small eosinophilic inclusions that are observed in
motor neuron diseases such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Hirano bodies are brightly eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
that are prominent in hippocampal neurons in Alzheimer’s
disease. Hirano bodies are composed of actin and actinassociated proteins. Pick bodies are slightly basophilic
neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in all
layers of the cerebral cortex and some subcortical nuclei in
patients with Pick’s disease. Pick bodies consist of ubiquitin,
tubulin, tau, and chromogranin-A (Ellison, pp. 7-10, 504-
505,552,566-567,570- 572).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

i'Iatch the following items with their appropriate
inclusion body: Bunina bodies
A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

A

A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

Marinesco bodies are small
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions that are prominent in
neurons of the substantia nigra and are composed largely
of ubiquitin and intermediate filaments. Lafont bodies
are composed of polysaccharide polyme rs (polyglucosans)
and have a round core that is strongly PAS-positive. Bunina
bodies are small eosinophilic inclusions that are observed in
motor neuron diseases such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Hirano bodies are brightly eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
that are prominent in hippocampal neurons in Alzheimer’s
disease. Hirano bodies are composed of actin and actinassociated proteins. Pick bodies are slightly basophilic
neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in all
layers of the cerebral cortex and some subcortical nuclei in
patients with Pick’s disease. Pick bodies consist of ubiquitin,
tubulin, tau, and chromogranin-A (Ellison, pp. 7-10, 504-
505,552,566-567,570- 572).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

i'Iatch the following items with their appropriate
inclusion body: Hirano bodies
A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

A

A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

Marinesco bodies are small
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions that are prominent in
neurons of the substantia nigra and are composed largely
of ubiquitin and intermediate filaments. Lafont bodies
are composed of polysaccharide polyme rs (polyglucosans)
and have a round core that is strongly PAS-positive. Bunina
bodies are small eosinophilic inclusions that are observed in
motor neuron diseases such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Hirano bodies are brightly eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
that are prominent in hippocampal neurons in Alzheimer’s
disease. Hirano bodies are composed of actin and actinassociated proteins. Pick bodies are slightly basophilic
neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in all
layers of the cerebral cortex and some subcortical nuclei in
patients with Pick’s disease. Pick bodies consist of ubiquitin,
tubulin, tau, and chromogranin-A (Ellison, pp. 7-10, 504-
505,552,566-567,570- 572).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

i'Iatch the following items with their appropriate
inclusion body: Pick bodies
A. Actin
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-Synuclein

A

**A. Actin **
B. Ubiquitin
C. Polyglucosans
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E. a-SynucleinA. Actin

Marinesco bodies are small
eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions that are prominent in
neurons of the substantia nigra and are composed largely
of ubiquitin and intermediate filaments. Lafont bodies
are composed of polysaccharide polyme rs (polyglucosans)
and have a round core that is strongly PAS-positive. Bunina
bodies are small eosinophilic inclusions that are observed in
motor neuron diseases such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Hirano bodies are brightly eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
that are prominent in hippocampal neurons in Alzheimer’s
disease. Hirano bodies are composed of actin and actinassociated proteins. Pick bodies are slightly basophilic
neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in all
layers of the cerebral cortex and some subcortical nuclei in
patients with Pick’s disease. Pick bodies consist of ubiquitin,
tubulin, tau, and chromogranin-A (Ellison, pp. 7-10, 504-
505,552,566-567,570- 572).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What pathologic condition is depicted in the following
photomicrograph?
A. Capillary telangiectasia
B. Cavernous malformation
C. Venous angioma
D. Arteriovenous malformation
E. Angiomatous meningioma

A

A. Capillary telangiectasia
B. Cavernous malformation
C. Venous angioma
D. Arteriovenous malformation
E. Angiomatous meningioma

Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) are characterized by clusters of dilated vessels of varying diameters with
abnormally thick or thin walls and occasional intervening
brain parenchyma. AVMs often contain calcification, and
the surrounding brain parenchyma may exhibit prominent
astrocytosis. Capillary telangiectasias consist of much smaller,
uniformly thin-walled vascular channels without evidence
of hemorrhage or surrounding astrocytosis. Cavernous malformations are characterized by tightly packed hyalinized
vascular channels without elastic tissue . There is usually no
intervening brain parenchyma. Venous angiomas are composed of thin-walled , dilated vascular channels interspersed
among normal brain parenchyma (Ellison, pp. 226- 233)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What feature of chronic subdural hematomas is most
likely to lead to progressive expansion in size over time ?
A. Reinjury of bridging veins
B. Osmotic migration across the dura into the subdural space
C. Hemorrhage in the granulation tissue of the pseudomembrane
D. Breakdown of the blood-brain barrier in adjacent brain parenchyma
E. None of the above

A

A. Reinjury of bridging veins
B. Osmotic migration across the dura into the subdural space
C. Hemorrhage in the granulation tissue of the pseudomembrane
D. Breakdown of the blood-brain barrier in adjacent brain parenchyma
E. None of the above

Chronic subdural hematomas (SDH) are usually
initiated from the tearing of bridging veins, which can
often be precipitated by minimal trauma in patients with
significant cerebral atrophy. After the initial hemorrhagiC
event, a pseudomembrane organizes immediately beneath
the fibrous dura along the surface of the hematoma. This
pseudomembrane develops dense granulation tissue with
prominent neovascularization. Large-caliber vessels in this
granulation tissue are initiaIJy unstable and tend to bleed
spontaneously, which leads to progressive, stepwise enlargement of the SDH (Ellison, pp. 210-211).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

\Vhat is the most likely etiology of the lesion depicted
below in this gross specimen?
A. Direct contusion
B. Shearing injury
C. Herniation
D. Arterial dissection
E. .Arterial rupture

A

A. Direct contusion
B. Shearing injury
**C. Herniation **
D. Arterial dissection
E. .Arterial rupture

This specimen exhibits a prominent pontine hemorrhage , known as a Duret hemorrhage. Duret hemorrhages
occur when internal herniation (usually transtentorial
herniation) results in compression or stretching of pontine
perforating vessels. This leads to ischemic damage in the
pons, which then undergoes secondary hemorrhagic conversion. This type of hemorrhage is not a direct result of trauma
and occurs only after prolonged elevations in intracranial
pressure with concomitant herniation (Ellison, pp. 257-259).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most cOl11mon organism isolated from
intracranial abscesses?
A. Staphylococcus au-reus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus pneu/11oniae
D. Streptococcus m’illeri
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

A. Staphylococcus au-reus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus pneu/11oniae
D. Streptococcus m’illeri
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Streptococcus milleri. is the most common isolate
from intracranial abscesses. Many intracranial abscesses are
polymicrobial, however. Infants are particularly susceptible
to developing abscesses in association with the development
of meningitis from infections by CitrobClcter diversus
or Proteus mi:ra.bilis. Brain abscesses often result from
hematogenous seeding in a septic pati ent (25%), or direct
spread from infections of the middle ear, paranasal sinuses,
or dental roots (50%) (Ellison, pp. 330-335; Greenberg,
p.218).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph?
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Yolk sac tumor
C. Secretory meningoma
D. Germinoma
E. Ependymoma

A

A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Yolk sac tumor
C. Secretory meningoma
D. Germinoma
E. Ependymoma

Germinomas are characterized by groups of round
neoplastic cells that contain clear cytoplasm with interspersed regions of lymphocytic infiltrates. It is the presence
of chronic inflammation in this specimen that distinguishes
this tumor from the other choices and is characteristic of
germinomas. Choriocarcinoma exhibits a bilaminar pattern
of syncytiotrophoblastic giant ceIJs interspersed among smaller
neoplastic cells, which is often associated with necrosis
and hemorrhage. Yoll, sac tumor is characterized by a loose
arrangement of clea r cells and occasional Schiller-Duval
bodies. Secretory meningiomas exh ibit typical meningothelia I or transitional patterns with occasional intracellular
eosinophilic globules. Ependymomas are characterized by
uniform neoplastic cells with higher nuclear-cytoplasmic
ratios arranged in pseudorosettes, with the rare observance
of true rosettes (Ellison, pp. 645- 647, 667- 670, 680- 683,
710; WHO, pp. 72-77, 129- 137, 179, 208-214).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cranial nerve affected by
neurosarcoidosis?
A. Optic
B. Oculomotor
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens
E. Facial

A

A. Optic
B. Oculomotor
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens
E. Facial

The facial nerve is by far the most commonly involved
cranial nerve with neurosarcoidosis. In fact, the most common clinical presentation of neurosarcoidosis is unilateral
facial nerve palsy. Other neurologic manifestations may
include deafness, vertigo, aseptic meningitis, hydrocephalus,
diabetes inSipidus, or hypothyroidism. Intracranial disease is
quite commonly associated with peripheral nervous system
and muscle involvement (Ellison, pp. 346-348; Greenberg,
pp.79-80).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following regions of the brain exhibit
prominent atrophy with Alzheimer’s disease?
1. Hippocampus
2. Occipital lobe
3. Frontal lobe
4. Primary motor cortex

A. 1,2, and3 are correct
B. 1 and3 are correct
C. 2 and 4 are correct
D. Only 4 is correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

A. 1,2, and3 are correct
**B. 1 and3 are correct **
C. 2 and 4 are correct
D. Only 4 is correct
E. All of the above are correct

The gross brain of patients with Alzheimer’s disease
usually exhibits prominent atrophy of the medial temporal
lobes, anterior frontal lobes, and the parietal lobes. The hippocampus is particularly affected, whereas the motor cortex
and oCcipital lobes are usually spared (Ellison, pp. 550- 565).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bilirubin deposition in the brain of a neonate with
kernicterus is commonly observed in which of the following
regions ?
1. Subthalamic nucleus
2. Globus pallidus
3. Dentate nucleus
4. Red nucleus

A. 1,2, and3 are correct
B. 1 and3 are correct
C. 2 and 4 are correct
D. Only 4 is correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

A
B
C
D
E

Bilirubin deposition with kernicterus is evidenced by
yellow staining of several deep gray structures in the gross
specimen. The most commonly involved regions include the
lateral thalamus, globus pallidus, and subthalamic nucleus.
The hippocampus, colliculi, substantia nigra pars reticulata,
dentate nucleus, inferior olives, brainstem reticular formation, and cranial nerve nuclei are also affected. It is the unconjugated form of bilirubin that is toxic, and its accumulation
leads to neuronal necrosis with subsequent gliosis (Ellison,
pp.50-52).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A 58-year-old male presents with focal seizures anel is founel to have a large frontal lobe mass originating from the gray-white junction on MRI. The patient underwent a diagnostic biopsy of this lesion, and the specimen was CD45- nega tive, vimentin-positive, cytokeratin-AE1I3 positive, and ElvIA-negative. This is most consistent with which of the following neoplasms? A. Lymphoma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Glioblastoma D. I-Iemangiopericytoma E. J'I'Ieningioma
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Glioblastoma multiforme exhibits staining for both vimentin and S-100. GBMs are usually focally positive for GFAP as well. With small tissue biopSies, it can be difficult to distinguish GBM from metastatic carcinoma and lymphoma. Metastatic carcinoma exh ibits staining for epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) and cytokeratins, while lymphoma is CD45-positive, which distinguishes these neoplasms from GBM. GBM, however, occaSionally exhibits cross reactivity with some keratin stains (e.g., AE1I3). IIemangiopericytoma is vimentin-positive and ElvIA-negative; however, it does not exhibit AE1/3 cross-reactivity (Ellison , pp. 628- 632, 689-694, 732- 735, 745- 750; WHO, pp. 29- 39, 190, 198-203, 250-253).
26
Which of the following meningioma variants is depicted in this photomicrograph? A. Meningothelial B. Fibrous C. Transitional D. Secretory E. Choreloid
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Meningothelial meningiomas exhibit sheets or lobules of cells with oval nuclei and indistinct cell borders. Rudimentary whorls are often present. Fibrous meningiomas exhibit streaming of elongated (spindle-shaped) nuclei with prominent surrounding colJagen deposition. Transitional meningiomas contain elements of both meningothelial and fibrous variants. Transitional variants exhibit whorls or lobules as well as a fascicular (streaming) pattern of neoplastic cells, as depicted here. Secretory meningiomas can exhibit a transitional or meningothelial pattern; however, many cells contain prominent eosinophilic (PAS-positive) globules. Chordoid meningiomas exhibit columns of cells surrounded by a mucoid matrix, thus resembling a chordonut (WHO, pp. 176-184; Ellison , pp. 703- 716).
27
Which of the following meningioma variants is associated with more aggressive clinical behavior? A. Papillary B. Angioma tous C. Chordoid D. Clear cell E. Metaplastic
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Papillary meningiomas are unique variants that exhibit a high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio, prominent mitoses, metastasis throughout the CNS via CSF pathways, and occasional metastasis outside the CNS. Other meningioma variants are considered atypical if they exhibit prominent mitoses, increased cellularity, sheet-like growth patterns, and necrosis. Anaplastic meningiomas are frankly malignant lesions that exhibit prominent cellular pleomorphism and necrosis. Atypical and anaplastic meningiomas are more likely to exhibit local invasion and recur after resection; however, distant metastasis is usually confined to papillary meningiomas (Ellison, pp. 711- 715; WHO, pp.179-180).
28
Which of the following disorders can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion via mutations in the superoxide dismutase (SOD1) gene? A. Refsum's disease B. Sanfilippo syndrome C. Zellweger syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis E. None of the above
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a neurodegenerative disorder that results in the loss of upper and lower motor neurons. Although the cause of ALS is unknown, 5 to 10% of all cases of ALS are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. Approximately 25% of these familial cases of ALS are secondary to mutations of the copper/zinc superoxide dismutase (SOD1) gene located on chromosome 21q . Refsum's disease results from deficiencies of the enzyme phytanoyl CoA hydroxylase, which results in the accumulation of phytanic acid. Clinical manifestations of Refsum's disease include ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, and retinitis pigmentosa. Sanfilippo syndrome is one of the mucopolysacchari doses and results from defective glycosaminoglycan (heparan sulfate) metabolism. Zellweger syndrome is a peroxisomal disorder that is associated with pachygyria, polymicrogyria, and various heterotopias (Ellison, pp. 93, 445 447,452 454,501-507;Me~tt,pp.539 540).
29
Which of the following major histocompatibility complexes is associated with the development of multiple sclerosis? 1. I-ILA-DR15 2. I-ILA-DR2 3. I-ILA-B7 4. I-ILA-DR4 A. 1,2, anel3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above are correct
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Multiple sclerosis (MS) is classically associated with the I-ILA-DR2 allele, and I-ILA-DR15 is common in Northern Europeans with MS . The I-ILA alleles A3, B7, and DR3 are also overrepresented in the MS population. The incidence and prevalence of MS vary with latitude, increasing with greater distance from the equator. If, however, an individual migrates to a higher-risk latitude after the teen years, that individual's risk of developing MS is no greater than the risk associated with the original region (Ellison, pp. 389- 404).
30
Match the following neoplasms with the most common prote in/stain llsing each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Lymphoma A. Vimentin B. CD45 C. CD34 D. S-100 E. Synaptophysin
A **B** C D E ## Footnote I-Iemangiopericytoma is vimentinpositive, with focal reactivity to CD34 as well. The sustentacular cell of paragangliomas exhibits immunoreactivity for S-100, while chief cells exhibit chromogranin-A and synaptophysin positivity. Meningiomas are vimentin-positive, with occasional focal reactivity for EMA, S-100, and cytokeratins. Notably, meningiomas are GFAP-negative. Central neurocytoma exhibits immunoreactivity for synaptophysin, GFAP, and neurofilament proteins. Primary CNS T -cell lymphomas are CD 45- and CD 3-positive, while B-celllymphomas usually show immunoreactivity to CD 79a and CD 20 (Ellison, pp. 656-659, 691- 692,703- 716,732-735).
31
Match the following neoplasms with the most common prote in/stain llsing each answer once, more than once, or not at all: I-Iemangiopericytoma A. Vimentin B. CD45 C. CD34 D. S-100 E. Synaptophysin
A B **C** D E ## Footnote I-Iemangiopericytoma is vimentinpositive, with focal reactivity to CD34 as well. The sustentacular cell of paragangliomas exhibits immunoreactivity for S-100, while chief cells exhibit chromogranin-A and synaptophysin positivity. Meningiomas are vimentin-positive, with occasional focal reactivity for EMA, S-100, and cytokeratins. Notably, meningiomas are GFAP-negative. Central neurocytoma exhibits immunoreactivity for synaptophysin, GFAP, and neurofilament proteins. Primary CNS T -cell lymphomas are CD 45- and CD 3-positive, while B-celllymphomas usually show immunoreactivity to CD 79a and CD 20 (Ellison, pp. 656-659, 691- 692,703- 716,732-735).
32
Match the following neoplasms with the most common prote in/stain llsing each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Sustentacular cell of paraganglioma A. Vimentin B. CD45 C. CD34 D. S-100 E. Synaptophysin
A B C **D** E ## Footnote I-Iemangiopericytoma is vimentinpositive, with focal reactivity to CD34 as well. The sustentacular cell of paragangliomas exhibits immunoreactivity for S-100, while chief cells exhibit chromogranin-A and synaptophysin positivity. Meningiomas are vimentin-positive, with occasional focal reactivity for EMA, S-100, and cytokeratins. Notably, meningiomas are GFAP-negative. Central neurocytoma exhibits immunoreactivity for synaptophysin, GFAP, and neurofilament proteins. Primary CNS T -cell lymphomas are CD 45- and CD 3-positive, while B-celllymphomas usually show immunoreactivity to CD 79a and CD 20 (Ellison, pp. 656-659, 691- 692,703- 716,732-735).
33
Match the following neoplasms with the most common prote in/stain llsing each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Meningioma A. Vimentin B. CD45 C. CD34 D. S-100 E. Synaptophysin
**A** B C D E ## Footnote I-Iemangiopericytoma is vimentinpositive, with focal reactivity to CD34 as well. The sustentacular cell of paragangliomas exhibits immunoreactivity for S-100, while chief cells exhibit chromogranin-A and synaptophysin positivity. Meningiomas are vimentin-positive, with occasional focal reactivity for EMA, S-100, and cytokeratins. Notably, meningiomas are GFAP-negative. Central neurocytoma exhibits immunoreactivity for synaptophysin, GFAP, and neurofilament proteins. Primary CNS T -cell lymphomas are CD 45- and CD 3-positive, while B-celllymphomas usually show immunoreactivity to CD 79a and CD 20 (Ellison, pp. 656-659, 691- 692,703- 716,732-735).
34
Match the following neoplasms with the most common prote in/stain llsing each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Central neurocytoma A. Vimentin B. CD45 C. CD34 D. S-100 E. Synaptophysin
A B C D **E** ## Footnote I-Iemangiopericytoma is vimentinpositive, with focal reactivity to CD34 as well. The sustentacular cell of paragangliomas exhibits immunoreactivity for S-100, while chief cells exhibit chromogranin-A and synaptophysin positivity. Meningiomas are vimentin-positive, with occasional focal reactivity for EMA, S-100, and cytokeratins. Notably, meningiomas are GFAP-negative. Central neurocytoma exhibits immunoreactivity for synaptophysin, GFAP, and neurofilament proteins. Primary CNS T -cell lymphomas are CD 45- and CD 3-positive, while B-celllymphomas usually show immunoreactivity to CD 79a and CD 20 (Ellison, pp. 656-659, 691- 692,703- 716,732-735).
35
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Clear cell meningioma B. Medulloblastoma C. Fibrillary astrocytoma D. Oligodendroglioma E. I-Iemangiopericytoma
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Oligodendrogliomas are characterized by uniform cells, arranged back to back, and interspersed prominent branching capillaries ("chicken-wire" vasculature). Artifactual clearing of the cytoplasm ("fried-egg" appearance), as depicted here, results from delayed formalin fixation and is not always observed. The neoplastic cells of oligodendrogliomas contain monomorphic round nuclei. Oligodendrogliomas frequently exhibit loss of hete rozygosity on chromosome 1p and 19q and rarely contain ])53 mutations. Very few cells in these neoplasms exhibit immunoreactivity for GFAP. Clear cell meningiomas resemble oligodendrogliomas microscopically, but like other meningiomas, clear cell meningiomas contain bands of collagen . They also lack the chicken-wire vasculature of oligodendrogliomas (Ellison, pp . 641- 644; WHO, pp. 56- 64).
36
What abnormality is depicted in the following photo micrograph? A. Gemistocytic astrocytoma B. Reactive astrocytosis C. Acute infarction D. Viral encephalitis E. Bacterial meningitis
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Microscopically, acute cerebral infarcts (after 8 to 12 hours) exhibit neuronal eosinophilia, pylmosis, and vacuolation of the neuropil. Subacute infarcts (2 to 4 days) also exhibit neuronal eosinophilia; however, they may also contain neutrophil infiltrates, occasional necrotic microvessels, and scattered foamy histiocytes. Chronic infarcts exhibit foamy macrophages, reactive astrocytosis, thin-walled blood vessels (neovascularization), and ferrugination of residual neurons surrounding a cystic (acellular) cavity. Gemistocytic astrocytomas exhibit large plump eosinophilic cells with glassy cytoplasm and are hypercellular. Viral encephalitis can exhibit neuronal eosinophilia , especially in the early stages; however, inclusion bodies are usually observed in conjunction with prominent lymphocytic infiltrates. Bacterial meningitis exhibits prominent infiltrates of neutrophils and lymphocytes, often with infiltration of leptomeningeal and cortical vessels. The above photomicrograph illustrates neuronal eosinophilia and pylmosis with vacuolation of the surrounding neuropil and a paucity of inflammation. This is most consistent with an acute cerebral infarction (Ellison, pp. 197-203, 627; WHO, p. 25).
37
Which of the following is not observed with acute spinal cord injury microscopically? A. A.\:onal spheroids B. Hemorrhagic necrosis C. Cavitation D. Inflammatory infiltrates E. Edema
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Acute spinal cord injury is characterized by axonal swellings (spheroids), hemorrhagic necrosis of gray and white matter, and variable amounts of surrounding edema. Over the following weeks there is infiltration of macrophages and a gradual removal of myelin and neuronal debris. Posttraumatic syrinx formation, or cavitation, is a relatively late feature of spinal cord injury, often occurring months to years after the original injury. The gray matter often shows prominent fibroblastic proliferation and associated collagenous fibrosis, as well as hyaline thickening of small blood vessels (Ellison, pp. 262-269).
38
What is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with meningiomas? A. Allelic loss of 1p B. Monosomy 22 C. Allelic loss of 10 D. Allelic loss of 22q E. Monosomy 2
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Monosomy 22 is by far the most common cytogenetic abnormality of meningiomas, and greater than 75% of all meningiomas exhibit loss of heterozygosity for chromosome 22q markers. Allelic losses of chromosomes 1p, 10, and 14q are associated with progression to more aggressive meningiomas (atypical and anaplastic). Despite the occurrence of (multiple) meningiomas with NF-2, which also localizes to chromosome 22, the tumor suppressor gene that is responsible for tumorigenesis with meningiomas in patients without neurofibromatosis is separate from the NF-2 gene locus (Ellison, p. 715; Kaye and Laws, p. 78).
39
What is the inheritance pattern of Sturge-Weber syndrome? A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Mitochondrial E. Sporadic
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Sturge-Weber syndrome (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis) is a neurocutaneous disorder that occurs sporadically. The disorder is characterized by port wine stains i the distribution of the sensory fibers of the trigeminal nerve, with associated ocular angiomas and leptomeningeal venous angiomas of the ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere. Occasionally the cerebral hemispheres are involved bilaterally. Most patients with Sturge-\Veber syndrome develop epilepsy over time, and many exhibit progressive neurologic deficits such as hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopsia. On microscopic analysis, there is widespread gliosis and dystrophic calcification of the involved brain parenchyma, with iron and calcium deposition in large, tortuous meningeal vessels. The treatment of this disorder is largely symptomatic (Ellison, pp. 107-108).
40
Which of the following disorders is associated with the lesion depicted in this photomicrograph? 1. I-IIV encephalitis 2. Toxoplasmosis 3. ClvIVencephalitis 4. Neurosyphilis A. 1, 2, and3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above are correct
A B C D **E** ## Footnote This photomicrograph depicts a microglial nodule. Microglia typically have rod-shaped nuclei and are CD68- positive. Microglia proliferate in many chronic CNS infections and viral encephalitides. :Microglial nodules sometimes contain neurons with viral inclusion bodies, and they are commonly observed with neurosyphilis, toxoplasmosis, and many different viral infections of the CNS (e.g., CMV, HIV, arboviruses, polioviruses). The aggregation of microglia and macrophages around dying neurons is called "neuronophagia" (Ellison, pp. 273- 275, 277, 303-304, 319, 324).
41
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with HlIllter syndrome (mucopolysaccharidosis type II)? A. Lysosomal disorder B. X-linked recessive inheritance C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. Corneal clouding E. Mental retardation
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Hunter syndrome is a lysosomal disorder that results from deficiencies of the enzyme iduronate sulfatase . It is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and usually presents in the first 2 to 4 years of life . Clinical findings of Hunter syndrome include delayed growth (short stature), coarse facial features, joint stiffness, macrocephaly, progressive hearing loss, hepatosplenomegaly, and various degrees of mental retardation. Hurler syndrome (MPS I), not Hunter syndrome, is associated with corneal clouding (Ellison, pp. 445- 446)
42
What is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Intracranial abscess B. Intracranial metastases C. Multiple sclerosis plaque D. Acute infarction E. Fungal infection
A **B** C D E ## Footnote CNS metastatic lesions can occur anywhere but are typically located at the gray-white junction of the cerebral hemispheres. This H&E photomicrograph depicts a malignant metastatic melanoma characterized by areas of hemorrhage, prominent nucleoli (dark spot inside nucleus), and some tumor cells containing melanin pigment (brown). Grossly, metastases can be firm, or they can exhibit a soft, necrotic central region. Hemorrhage is often associated with metastatic melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma. Metastases rarely involve the brainstem or spinal cord. Intracranial abscesses can also occur at the gray-white junction as a result of hematogenous spread, and they usually occur in the MCA distribution. Grossly, abscesses usually exhibit a well-defined capsule that is thicker toward the cortical surface and thinner toward the deep surface. The center of a brain abscess contains purulent, necrotic debris. MS plaques are well-demarcated gray areas of discoloration that commonly occur at the lateral angles of the lateral ventricles. Foci of cavitation are rare with ~vIS plaques but can be observed with fulminant, acute plaques. Acute infarcts exhibit only slight blurring of the gray-white junction with dusky discoloration , often in major vascular territories (Ellison, pp. 197- 202,327- 334,389- 398,743- 750).
43
Which of the following disorders is associated with accommodation (ciliary) paralysis, facial paralysis, preservation of extraocular movements, and an ascending sensorimotor polyneuropathy? A. Neurosarcoidosis B. Neurosyphilis C. Diphtheria D. Lyme disease E. Guillain-Barre syndrome
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Diphtheria infections can result in paralysis of accommodation (ciliary ganglion), followed by facial and oropharyngeal paralysis with preservation of extraocular movements. The fifth to eighth week of the illness is associated with an ascending sensorimotor polyneuropathy in approximately 20% of all cases; this results in a mild to severe paralysis. The disease course is shortened by early treatment with antitoxin and antibiotics, and the majority of patients eventually make a full recovery. Symptoms of neurosarcoidosis include cranial nerve palsies (facial weakness, hearing loss, vertigo, optic atrophy), hypopituitarism, hydrocephalus, and ataxia . Neurosyphilis is associated with cranial nerve palsies, hydrocephalus, arteritis, seizures, and eventually psychosis and cognitive decline. Lyme disease results in an enlarging maculopapular rash with central clearing (erythema chronicum migrans) , followed by the development of axonal neuropathies, lymphocytic meningitis, encephalopathy, polyradiculitis, and cranial nerve palsies. Lyme disease can also affect the joints and cardiovascular system. Ouillain-Barre syndrome (OBS) is an acute ascending monophasic motor polyneuropathy that can involve the face , limbs, and even respiratory musculature. OBS is not typically associated with any sensory loss or ciliary paralYSiS, however (Ellison, pp. 342- 349; Merritt, pp. 613- 615)
44
The most common cause of intraventricular hemorrhage in term infants A. 8ubependymal germinal matrL'( hemorrhage B. Choroid plexus hemorrhage C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
A **B** C D ## Footnote Subependymal germinal matrix hemorrhage is usually observed in low-birth-weight premature infants and can result in intraventricular hemorrhage. The microcirculation of the peri ventricular matrix zone is extremely fragile and persists in the neonate until 34 weel(s of gestation. This microcirculation is prone to hemorrhage , with hypoxia and secondary failures of autoregulation. Choroid plexus hemorrhage is the most common cause of intraventricular hemorrhage in the term infant and can result in anything from minimal (asymptomatic) hemorrhage to massive intraventricular hemorrhage (Ellison, pp. 34-37).
45
The most common cause of intraventricular hemorrhage in premature infants A. 8ubependymal germinal matrL'( hemorrhage B. Choroid plexus hemorrhage C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
**A** B C D ## Footnote Subependymal germinal matrix hemorrhage is usually observed in low-birth-weight premature infants and can result in intraventricular hemorrhage. The microcirculation of the peri ventricular matrix zone is extremely fragile and persists in the neonate until 34 weel(s of gestation. This microcirculation is prone to hemorrhage , with hypoxia and secondary failures of autoregulation. Choroid plexus hemorrhage is the most common cause of intraventricular hemorrhage in the term infant and can result in anything from minimal (asymptomatic) hemorrhage to massive intraventricular hemorrhage (Ellison, pp. 34-37).
46
Which of the following disorders are secondary to defective neuronal migration? 1. Polymicrogyria 2. 8chizencephaly 3. Focal nodular heterotopia 4. Holoprosencephaly A. 1,2, and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above are correct
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Disorders of abnormal neuronal migration include agyria, pachygyria, polymicrogyria, cortical dysplasia, and focal and diffuse heterotopias. Schizencephaly and porencephaly are fetal hypoxic-ischemic leSions, and holoprosencephaly results from a failure of the normal growth and cleavage of the prosencephalic vesicles (Ellison, pp. 29- 32, 62-68, 71-80,82-85,87-89).
47
lvIatch the following meningitis-causative organisms with the age group most likely to be afflicted: Children 1 to 5 years of age A. Streptococcus ]Jneu'I7loniae B. Haemophiltls'irifluenzae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Proteus mimbilis E. S. epidennidis
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Pediatric patients with bacterial meningitis are usually due to infection by StreptococCllS pneu.moniC/e, Neisseria meningiticiis, or Hael7lophilllS il1fhlellzae. The incidence of I-I . j'11fl'llellzae meningitis in the pediatric population has decreased significantly in the past decade because of the widespread use of the H. injl'llenzae B vaccination. Bacterial meningitis in the adult population is usually secondary to infection by S. 'Pnell11loniae or N. 11leningitidis. Meningitis in the elderly commonly results from S. pne ll11loniae and gram-negative rods. Listeria 11l01Wcytogenes can also afflict this older population. Neonatal bacterial meningitis is usually a result of infection by group B streptococci and Escherichia coli; however, Citrobacter (liVerSlls and Protells mIrabilis-relatedmeningitis are associated with the development of concomitant cerebral abscesses in this population (Ellison, pp. 327- 330; Merritt, pp. 103-107)
48
lvIatch the following meningitis-causative organisms with the age group most likely to be afflicted: Adults A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Haemophiltls'irifluenzae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Proteus mimbilis E. S. epidennidis
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Pediatric patients with bacterial meningitis are usually due to infection by StreptococCllS pneu.moniC/e, Neisseria meningiticiis, or Hael7lophilllS il1fhlellzae. The incidence of I-I . j'11fl'llellzae meningitis in the pediatric population has decreased significantly in the past decade because of the widespread use of the H. injl'llenzae B vaccination. Bacterial meningitis in the adult population is usually secondary to infection by S. 'Pnell11loniae or N. 11leningitidis. Meningitis in the elderly commonly results from S. pne ll11loniae and gram-negative rods. Listeria 11l01Wcytogenes can also afflict this older population. Neonatal bacterial meningitis is usually a result of infection by group B streptococci and Escherichia coli; however, Citrobacter (liVerSlls and Protells mIrabilis-relatedmeningitis are associated with the development of concomitant cerebral abscesses in this population (Ellison, pp. 327- 330; Merritt, pp. 103-107)
49
lvIatch the following meningitis-causative organisms with the age group most likely to be afflicted: Unique to the elderly population A. Streptococcus ]Jneu'I7loniae B. Haemophiltls'irifluenzae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Proteus mimbilis E. S. epidennidis
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Pediatric patients with bacterial meningitis are usually due to infection by StreptococCllS pneu.moniC/e, Neisseria meningiticiis, or Hael7lophilllS il1fhlellzae. The incidence of I-I . j'11fl'llellzae meningitis in the pediatric population has decreased significantly in the past decade because of the widespread use of the H. injl'llenzae B vaccination. Bacterial meningitis in the adult population is usually secondary to infection by S. 'Pnell11loniae or N. 11leningitidis. Meningitis in the elderly commonly results from S. pne ll11loniae and gram-negative rods. Listeria 11l01Wcytogenes can also afflict this older population. Neonatal bacterial meningitis is usually a result of infection by group B streptococci and Escherichia coli; however, Citrobacter (liVerSlls and Protells mIrabilis-relatedmeningitis are associated with the development of concomitant cerebral abscesses in this population (Ellison, pp. 327- 330; Merritt, pp. 103-107)
50
lvIatch the following meningitis-causative organisms with the age group most likely to be afflicted: Associated with ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections A. Streptococcus ]Jneu'I7loniae B. Haemophiltls'irifluenzae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Proteus mimbilis E. S. epidennidis
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Pediatric patients with bacterial meningitis are usually due to infection by StreptococCllS pneu.moniC/e, Neisseria meningiticiis, or Hael7lophilllS il1fhlellzae. The incidence of I-I . j'11fl'llellzae meningitis in the pediatric population has decreased significantly in the past decade because of the widespread use of the H. injl'llenzae B vaccination. Bacterial meningitis in the adult population is usually secondary to infection by S. 'Pnell11loniae or N. 11leningitidis. Meningitis in the elderly commonly results from S. pne ll11loniae and gram-negative rods. Listeria 11l01Wcytogenes can also afflict this older population. Neonatal bacterial meningitis is usually a result of infection by group B streptococci and Escherichia coli; however, Citrobacter (liVerSlls and Protells mIrabilis-relatedmeningitis are associated with the development of concomitant cerebral abscesses in this population (Ellison, pp. 327- 330; Merritt, pp. 103-107)
51
lvIatch the following meningitis-causative organisms with the age group most likely to be afflicted: Associated with coexistent cerebral abscesses in neonates A. Streptococcus ]Jneu'I7loniae B. Haemophiltls'irifluenzae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Proteus mimbilis E. S. epidennidis
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Pediatric patients with bacterial meningitis are usually due to infection by StreptococCllS pneu.moniC/e, Neisseria meningiticiis, or Hael7lophilllS il1fhlellzae. The incidence of I-I . j'11fl'llellzae meningitis in the pediatric population has decreased significantly in the past decade because of the widespread use of the H. injl'llenzae B vaccination. Bacterial meningitis in the adult population is usually secondary to infection by S. 'Pnell11loniae or N. 11leningitidis. Meningitis in the elderly commonly results from S. pne ll11loniae and gram-negative rods. Listeria 11l01Wcytogenes can also afflict this older population. Neonatal bacterial meningitis is usually a result of infection by group B streptococci and Escherichia coli; however, Citrobacter (liVerSlls and Protells mIrabilis-relatedmeningitis are associated with the development of concomitant cerebral abscesses in this population (Ellison, pp. 327- 330; Merritt, pp. 103-107)
52
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. lvIedulloblastoma B. Ganglion cell tumor C. Central neurocytoma D. Ependymoma E. Anaplastic astrocytoma
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Ganglion cell tumors (gangliocytomas and gangliogliomas) are characterized by neoplastic ganglion cells, with or without a component of neoplastic glial tissue (usually with an astrocytic morphology). Neoplastic ganglion cells resemble normal neurons but are abnormally large and round, arranged in clusters, and contain an eccentric nucleus with a prominent nucleolus. The classic finding is binuclea tion, seen in one of the ganglion cells here, which never occurs in normal neurons. Gangliogliomas occasionally exhibit nuclear pleomorphism, but mitoses are absent. Ganglion cells exhibit immunoreactivity for synaptophysin and neurofilaments. J\'ledulloblastomas are characterized by a uniform population of small blue cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, minimal cytoplasm, mitoses, and occasional foci of necrosis. Central neurocytoma consists of uniform round cells with few mitoses. Ependymomas also contain uniform cells with round nuclei that often form pseudorosettes and rarely form true (ependymal) rosettes (Ellison, pp. 645- 647, 653- 657,667- 672; WHO, pp. 72- 77, 96- 98,129-137)
53
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Neurofibroma B. Schwannoma C. Fibrous meningioma D. MaUgnant nerve sheath tumor E. None of the above
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Schwanllomas are characterized by compact arrangements of interwoven fascicl es of cells (Antoni A areas) and spindle-shaped cells arranged in a loose myxoid stroma (Antoni B areas). The Antoni A areas often exhibit sequential palisading nuclei (Verocay bodies), shown here. Thickened blood vessels with hyaline walls may be seen . Neurofibromas are characterized by spindle-shaped cells with wavy nuclei arranged haphazardly within a mucoid matrLx with interspersed bundles of collagen ("shredded carrots" appearance). Fibrous meningiomas consist of spindle-shaped cells with inte rmixed collagen and lack a mucoid matrLx and Verocay bodies. Malignant nerve sheath tumors can also exhibit a fascicular pattern; however, this tumor is highly cellular and contains frequent mitoses and necrosis. The presence of Verocay bodies in this specimen is consistent with a schwannoma (Ellison, pp. 695- 702, 707, 715; WHO, pp. 164- 166, 172-174, 176- 184).
54
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Dermoid cyst (mature teratoma) B. Craniopharyngioma C. Ependymoma D. Yolk sac tumor E. None of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Mature teratomas, the most common of which is the dermoid cyst depicted here , exhibit a mixture of ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal components. These neoplasms are well circumscribed and rarely associated with malignant transformation into carcinomas or sarcomas. Dermoid cysts are lined by squamous epitheliu111 and contain adnexal structures such as sebaceous glands (shown in this example). Craniopharyngiomas (adamantinomatous) are characterized by collections of squamous cells with intermingled clusters of keratini zed ghost cells, calCification, and cholesterol clefts (Ellison, pp. 683-684,724- 727,737- 739).
55
Which of the following conditions is associated with Sprengel's deformity ? A. Hallervorden-Spatz disease B. Leigh's disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Tuberous sclerosis E. IGippel-Feil anomaly
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Klippel-Feil anomaly results from the failure of cervical vertebral (somite) segmentation. Klippel-Feil anomaly is classically associated with the triad of short neck, low posterior hairline, and limited cervical motion. Approximately one-third of all Klippel-Feil cases are associated with congenital elevation of the scapula, which is known as Sprengel's deformity. IGippel-Feil is also associated with diastema tomyelia, Chiari I malformations, basilar impression, and genitourinary abnormalities (Merritt, p. 490).
56
Which of the following lesions is thought to develop as a consequence of premature disjunction? A. Rathke's cleft cyst B. Diastematomyelia C. Neurenteric cyst D. Spinal lipoma E. Dandy-Walker malformation
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Disjll.llction refers to the separation of superfiCial ectodenll from neural ectoderm during development. It is thought that premature disjunction allows cells of mesodermal origin to migrate between these two layers of ectoderm, which can lead to the formation of lipomas (Will
57
Which of the following neoplasms is/are associated with von Hippel-Linclau syndrome? 1. Pheochromocytomas 2. Renal cell carcinoma 3. Cerebellar hemangioblastomas 4. Enclolymphatic sac tumors A. 1,2, and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above are correct
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome (VEL) is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder that is associated with chromosome 3p. VHL patients deve lop hemangioblastomas of the brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord. VHL is also associated with the development of retinal angiomas, paragangliomas, endolymphatic sac tumors, pheochromocytoma, epididymal cystadenoma, renal and pancreatic cysts, and renal cell carcinoma . The production of erythropoietin by hemangioblastomas can occur with VHL and result in polycythemia (Ellison, pp. 736- 738; WHO, pp. 223-226; Kaye and Laws, pp. 75- 76)
58
What disorder is associated with the following photomicrograph? A. Parkinson's disease B. Corticobasal degeneration C. Rabies encephalitis D. Alzheimer's disease E. None of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote The Lewy body is an intracellular neuronal inclusion characterized by the presence of a hyaline eosinophilic core and a pale halo. Lewy bodies are observed within the substantia nigra in Parkinson's disease and within the cerebral cortex in certain forms of dementia (e.g., "dementia with Lewy bodies"). Rabies encephalitis is characterized by the presence of Negri bodies, which are intracellular inclusions resembling red blood cells, and Babes' nodules, which are clusters of microglia. Corticobasal degeneration is characterized by the presence of swollen cortical neurons (ballooned neurons), gliosiS, and microvacuolation (Ellison, pp. 287- 289,512- 514).
59
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Pilocytic astrocytoma B. Subependymoma C. Myxopapillaryependymoma D. Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor E. None of the above
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Subependymomas are characterized by the presence of clusters of cells with round nuclei and interspersed regions of very low cellularity ("islands of blue in a sea of pink"). Sllbependymomas often exhibit microcysts; however, nuclear pleomorphism and mitoses are universally absent. Myxopapillary ependymomas claSSically exhibit collars of epithelioid cells surrounding pools of mucin with central blood vessels. Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (D~TET) is a supratentorial cortical neoplasm of children and young adults that is usually located in the temporal lobe and presents with seizures. ;vIicroscopically, DNETs exhibit nodules of oligodendrocyte-like cells, mucinous cysts, and neurons that appear to "float" in the mucinous cysts (Ellison, pp. 651, 659- 661; WHO, pp. 78- 81, 103-106).
60
Which of the following lesions is depicted in these two photomicrographs (two areas of the same lesion)? A. Malignant nerve sheath tumor B. Fibrous meningioma C. Gliosarcoma D. Embryonal carcinoma E. None of the above
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Gliosarcoma is a variant of glioblastoma multifonne. The presenting features, demographic characteristics, cytogenetic changes, and prognosis of the gliosarcoma (Feigin tumor) are all similar to that of the glioblastoma. Microscopically, the gliosarcoma consists of two distinct cell populations: sarcomatous areas containing spindle-shaped cells arranged in a streaming fashion (left photomicrograph) and areas of conventional glioblastoma (right photomicrograph). Malignant nerve sheath tumors also contain spindle-shaped neoplastic cells; however, areas of conventional glioblastoma are not observed. Embryonal carcinoma exhibits large cells with slight pleomorphism arranged in solid, glandular, papillary, or cribriform patterns. Spindle-shaped cells are absent in embryonal carcinoma (Ellison, pp. 628-632, 682, 700- 702; WHO, pp. 42- 44)
61
What is the most likely presentation of the following neoplasm? A. Supratentorial mass in a 55-year-old male with a lung mass B. Complex partial epilepsy in a 12-year-old male C. Hypopituitarism in a 19-year-old female D. Nausea, vomiting, and ataxia in a 5-year-old male E. Hearing loss in a patient with neurofibromatosis type 2
A B C **D** E ## Footnote This photomicrograph illustrates a medulloblastoma, which is characterized by a population of undifferentiated cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and minimal cytoplasm. Medulloblastomas exhibit prominent mitoses, with focal regions of necrosis and apoptosis. Occasionally cells may form rosettes that lack a central canal or blood vessel (HomerWright rosettes). Medulloblastomas often spread throughout the CNS via CSF pathways. Approximately 50% of all medulloblastomas present in children less than 10 years of age; they are usually located in the cerebellar vermis in children. Therefore this tumor could lead to ataxia and hydrocephalus, which is consistent with answer D (Ellison, pp. 667-672; WHO, pp. 129-137)
62
The following answers are in reference to: Complete penetrance A. Neurofibromatosis type 1 B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF·l) is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder that localizes to chromo· some 17. The NF·l gene is very large and associated with a high spontaneous mutation rate. Approximately 50% of all NF·l cases are secondary to spontaneous mutations. NF·l is associated with 100% penetrance and variable expressivity. Tuberous sclerosis (TS) is also an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder that is associated with a high spon· taneous mutation rate. TS can result from mutations at two different lOCi, one located on chromosome 9 and the other on chromosome 11. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with approXimately 80% penetrance and variable expressivity (Kaye and Laws, pp. 69- 72, 75; WHO, pp. 216- 222; Ellison, pp. 695-697).
63
The following answers are in reference to: Incomplete penetrance A. Neurofibromatosis type 1 B. Tuberous sclerosis C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF·l) is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder that localizes to chromo· some 17. The NF·l gene is very large and associated with a high spontaneous mutation rate. Approximately 50% of all NF·l cases are secondary to spontaneous mutations. NF·l is associated with 100% penetrance and variable expressivity. Tuberous sclerosis (TS) is also an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder that is associated with a high spon· taneous mutation rate. TS can result from mutations at two different lOCi, one located on chromosome 9 and the other on chromosome 11. Tuberous sclerosis is associated with approXimately 80% penetrance and variable expressivity (Kaye and Laws, pp. 69- 72, 75; WHO, pp. 216- 222; Ellison, pp. 695-697).
64
Which of the following scenarios is the most likely presentation of the disorder depicted below in this gross specimen? A. Optic neuritis and Uhthoff's sign in a 32-year-old female B. Ataxia , confusion, and lateral gaze palsy in a 48-year old male alcoholic C. Headache, nausea , and vomiting in a 62-year-old female with a systemic malignancy D. Right hemiparesis in a 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension E. None of the above
A **B** C D E ## Footnote This gross specimen exhibits bilateral petechial hemorrhages within the mamillary bodies, which is associated with Wernicke's encephalopathy. Wernicke's encephalopathy is associated with thiamine defiCiency and is cOl11monly observed in chronic alcoholics and some patients with gastrointestinal disorders. Patients with Wernicl(e's encephalopathy exhibit ataxia, gaze pa lsies, confUSion, and apathy, which is often reversible with the administration of thiamine. The chronic form of the disease is Imown as I<,orsakoff's psychosis and is associated with retrograde and anterograde amnesia , with concomitant confabulation, usually irreversible (Ellison, pp. 415- 418).
65
Match the following questions with the appropriate syndrome: Autosomal dominant inheritance A. Crouzon's disease B. Apert's syndrome C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A B **C** D ## Footnote Crouzon's disease is an autosomal dominant condition that results in bilateral coronal, frontosphenoid, and frontoetlunoid synostosis. Patients with Crouzon's disease have a high incidence of hydrocephalus; however, the vast majority achieve normal IQ's with adequate treatment of the hydrocephalus. Facial features of Crouzon's disease include proptosis, maxillary hypoplasia, and a "parrot's beak" nose. Apert's syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that involves premature closure of all cranial sutures. These patients have facies that resemble those of Crouzon's disease and also have a high incidence of hydrocephalus. Apert's syndrome is associated with syndactyly, short thumbs, and a uniformly decreased IQ even with adequate treatment of the hydrocephalus (Will
66
Match the following questions with the appropriate syndrome: Uniformly associated with mental retardation A. Crouzon's disease B. Apert's syndrome C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Crouzon's disease is an autosomal dominant condition that results in bilateral coronal, frontosphenoid, and frontoetlunoid synostosis. Patients with Crouzon's disease have a high incidence of hydrocephalus; however, the vast majority achieve normal IQ's with adequate treatment of the hydrocephalus. Facial features of Crouzon's disease include proptosis, maxillary hypoplasia, and a "parrot's beak" nose. Apert's syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that involves premature closure of all cranial sutures. These patients have facies that resemble those of Crouzon's disease and also have a high incidence of hydrocephalus. Apert's syndrome is associated with syndactyly, short thumbs, and a uniformly decreased IQ even with adequate treatment of the hydrocephalus (Will
67
Match the following questions with the appropriate syndrome: Associated with frontoethmoid synostosis A. Crouzon's disease B. Apert's syndrome C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A B **C** D ## Footnote Crouzon's disease is an autosomal dominant condition that results in bilateral coronal, frontosphenoid, and frontoetlunoid synostosis. Patients with Crouzon's disease have a high incidence of hydrocephalus; however, the vast majority achieve normal IQ's with adequate treatment of the hydrocephalus. Facial features of Crouzon's disease include proptosis, maxillary hypoplasia, and a "parrot's beak" nose. Apert's syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that involves premature closure of all cranial sutures. These patients have facies that resemble those of Crouzon's disease and also have a high incidence of hydrocephalus. Apert's syndrome is associated with syndactyly, short thumbs, and a uniformly decreased IQ even with adequate treatment of the hydrocephalus (Will
68
Craniosynostosis is associated with mutations in which of the following genes ? A. p53 B. Fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGF-R) C. In terleukin 6 (IL-6) D. Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) E. None of the above
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Oraniosynostosis refers to the premature closure of cranial sutures; this condition is often associated with Crouzon's disease and Apert's syndrome, although many cases are isolated and sporadic as well. Many cases of craniosynostosis are associated with mutations of the fibroblast growth factor receptor gene. Craniosynostosis is more common in males, and isolated sagittal synostosis (scaphocephaly) accounts for approximately 50% of all cases (most common type of synostosis) (Will
69
Which of the following clinical presentations is most consistent with the lesion depicted below in this gross specimen? A. Bilateral facial and abducens palsies in the neonate B. Ipsilateral port wine stain in the distribution of V1 in a S-yea r-old C. Developmental delay in a 1-year-old D. Sepsis in the preterm infant E. Epilepsy in a 6-month-old
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Tuberous sclerosis (TS) often presents in children between the ages of 1 and 6 months with seizures, which usually consists of infantile spasms. Approximately 90% of all patients with TS experience seizures, and the vast majority also exhibit various degrees of mental retardation. TS is associated with the development of cortical tubers, which are firm, pale nodules that project from the cortical surface, as depicted in this gross specimen. TS is also associated with subependymal nodules and the development of subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (Ellison, pp. 108-110; WHO, pp.227-230).
70
What is the most likely etiology of the abnormality depicted below? A. Elevated intracranial pressure B. Atherosclerotic disease C. CNS infection D. Neurodegenerative disorder E. None of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Prolonged elevations in intracranial pressure can result in various herniation syndromes. Transtentorial herniation of the uncus through the tentorial incisura can result in compression of the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve, midbrain, and ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery, with subsequent infarction. Prolonged herniation can result in the development of hemorrhagiC necrosis within the pons and midbrain (Duret hemorrhages) as a consequence of penetrating arteriolar compression and ischemia. This gross specimen illustrates transtentorial herniation of the uncus, with notable indentation of the surrounding cerebrum by the tentorium cerebelli (Ellison, pp. 257-259).
71
Which of the following structures are often involved with diffuse axonal injuries? 1. Parasagittal deep white matter 2. Superior cerebellar peduncles 3. Corpus callosum 4. Rostral brainstem A. 1,2, and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above are correct
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Diffuse axonal injury (DA1) results from acceleration/ deceleration injuries of the brain. DAI can exhibit prominent petechial hemorrhages within the corpus callosum, interventricular septum, dorsolateral brainstem, superior cerebellar peduncles, and parasagittal deep white matter on gross specimens. IvIicroscopically, DAl specimens exhibit prominent axonal spheroids, especially with silver stains. DAI varies in severity from minimal disturbances in level of consciousness to vegetative states with subsequent death (Ellison, pp. 249- 253).
72
What infection is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Aspergillosis B. Mucormycosis C. Cryptococcosis D. Candidiasis E. None of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Cerebral aspergillosis is usually secondary to hematogenous dissemination from the lungs or local spread from the paranasal sinuses of Aspergillus fum:igatus or Aspergillus f/avus. Symptoms of cerebral aspergillosis are variable and include headache, seizures, cranial nerve palsies, hemiparesis, and elevated intracranial pressure. Aspergilltls has a tendency to exhibit prominent vascular invasion, with subsequent vascular thrombosis, infarction, and hemorrhage. Aspergilltls is characterized by septate hyphae that are readily demonstrated on silver stains. In contrast, mucormycosis exhibits broad nonseptate hyphae , candidiasis exhibits budding yeasts and pseudohyphae, and cryptococcosis exhibits only a yeast form with CNS infections (Ellison, pp. 351-355, 357- 362).
73
What disorder is depicted in the following low-power photomicrograph of a section stained for myelin? A. Subacute combined degeneration B. Multiple sclerosis C. Tabes dorsalis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis E. Friedreich's ataxia
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) affects primarily the anterior and lateral corticospinal tracts of the spinal cord, as evidenced by the loss of myelinated a.'wns (as depicted in the specimen). Subacute combined degeneration (SACD) results from vitamin BI2 (cobalamin) deficiency and exhibits symmetric demyelination in the posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord. In severe cases of SACD, the anterior columns can also be involved. Tabes dorsalis results from chronic inflammation of the dorsal roots and dOl'sal root ganglia and is usually observed 15 to 20 years after initial infection with syphilis. The posterior columns are primarily affected in tabes dorsalis. Friedreich's ata.\:ia (FA) is an autosomal recessive disorder that localizes to chromosome 9 and results in deterioration of the posterior columns, spinocerebellar tracts, Clarke's nucleus, and distal (thoracolumbar) corticospinal tracts (Ellison, pp. 344- 345, 417- 420,501-508,533- 534).
74
Match the following questions with the appropriate demyelinating disease: Monophasic A. Multiple scle rosis B. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), also known as postinfectious encephalomyelitis, is a monophasic demyelinating disorder that usually follows a viral infection or vaccination (especially rabies vaccine). ADEM results from T-cell autoimmune attacks against myelin basic protein and usually presents with fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and focal neurologic deficits. ADEM is characterized by perivenular inflammation and demyelination on microscopic analysis. Patients with ADEM lIsually exhibit a full recovery (10 to 20% have permanent neurologic deficits), and the disease course is generally shorter with the administration of IV steroids. Experimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE) is a monophasic autoimmune response that occurs in genetically susceptible animals after immunization with myelin basic protein. EAE is actually the animal model of ADEM, although there is a chronic relapsing form of the disease that resembles J\-IS and has provided much of the immunologic information that there is about MS in humans. MS is typically a chronic relapsing/remitting demyelinating disorder that affects adults between the third to fifth decades of life and is more common in women than men. Approximately 85% of acute MS exacerbations improve with the administration of IV methylprednisolone. Acute MS plaques can exhibit perivascular inflammation; however, arterioles are involved (as well as venules). Interferon P-1b Betaserone), interferon p-1a (Avonex), and Copaxone are generally utilized to deCl'ease the frequency of MS attacl(s (Ellison, pp. 389- 404, 405-407; Merritt, pp. 151-153, 773-791; Greenberg, pp. 69-71).
75
Match the following questions with the appropriate demyelinating disease: Experimental allergiC encephalomyelitis represents the animal model of this disorder A. Multiple scle rosis B. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), also known as postinfectious encephalomyelitis, is a monophasic demyelinating disorder that usually follows a viral infection or vaccination (especially rabies vaccine). ADEM results from T-cell autoimmune attacks against myelin basic protein and usually presents with fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and focal neurologic deficits. ADEM is characterized by perivenular inflammation and demyelination on microscopic analysis. Patients with ADEM lIsually exhibit a full recovery (10 to 20% have permanent neurologic deficits), and the disease course is generally shorter with the administration of IV steroids. Experimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE) is a monophasic autoimmune response that occurs in genetically susceptible animals after immunization with myelin basic protein. EAE is actually the animal model of ADEM, although there is a chronic relapsing form of the disease that resembles J\-IS and has provided much of the immunologic information that there is about MS in humans. MS is typically a chronic relapsing/remitting demyelinating disorder that affects adults between the third to fifth decades of life and is more common in women than men. Approximately 85% of acute MS exacerbations improve with the administration of IV methylprednisolone. Acute MS plaques can exhibit perivascular inflammation; however, arterioles are involved (as well as venules). Interferon P-1b Betaserone), interferon p-1a (Avonex), and Copaxone are generally utilized to deCl'ease the frequency of MS attacl(s (Ellison, pp. 389- 404, 405-407; Merritt, pp. 151-153, 773-791; Greenberg, pp. 69-71).
76
Match the following questions with the appropriate demyelinating disease: Symptoms usually improve with administration of IV steroids A. Multiple scle rosis B. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A B **C** D ## Footnote Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), also known as postinfectious encephalomyelitis, is a monophasic demyelinating disorder that usually follows a viral infection or vaccination (especially rabies vaccine). ADEM results from T-cell autoimmune attacks against myelin basic protein and usually presents with fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and focal neurologic deficits. ADEM is characterized by perivenular inflammation and demyelination on microscopic analysis. Patients with ADEM lIsually exhibit a full recovery (10 to 20% have permanent neurologic deficits), and the disease course is generally shorter with the administration of IV steroids. Experimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE) is a monophasic autoimmune response that occurs in genetically susceptible animals after immunization with myelin basic protein. EAE is actually the animal model of ADEM, although there is a chronic relapsing form of the disease that resembles J\-IS and has provided much of the immunologic information that there is about MS in humans. MS is typically a chronic relapsing/remitting demyelinating disorder that affects adults between the third to fifth decades of life and is more common in women than men. Approximately 85% of acute MS exacerbations improve with the administration of IV methylprednisolone. Acute MS plaques can exhibit perivascular inflammation; however, arterioles are involved (as well as venules). Interferon P-1b Betaserone), interferon p-1a (Avonex), and Copaxone are generally utilized to deCl'ease the frequency of MS attacl(s (Ellison, pp. 389- 404, 405-407; Merritt, pp. 151-153, 773-791; Greenberg, pp. 69-71).
77
Match the following questions with the appropriate demyelinating disease: Is associated with perivenular inllammation on microscopic examination A. Multiple scle rosis B. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), also known as postinfectious encephalomyelitis, is a monophasic demyelinating disorder that usually follows a viral infection or vaccination (especially rabies vaccine). ADEM results from T-cell autoimmune attacks against myelin basic protein and usually presents with fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and focal neurologic deficits. ADEM is characterized by perivenular inflammation and demyelination on microscopic analysis. Patients with ADEM lIsually exhibit a full recovery (10 to 20% have permanent neurologic deficits), and the disease course is generally shorter with the administration of IV steroids. Experimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE) is a monophasic autoimmune response that occurs in genetically susceptible animals after immunization with myelin basic protein. EAE is actually the animal model of ADEM, although there is a chronic relapsing form of the disease that resembles J\-IS and has provided much of the immunologic information that there is about MS in humans. MS is typically a chronic relapsing/remitting demyelinating disorder that affects adults between the third to fifth decades of life and is more common in women than men. Approximately 85% of acute MS exacerbations improve with the administration of IV methylprednisolone. Acute MS plaques can exhibit perivascular inflammation; however, arterioles are involved (as well as venules). Interferon P-1b Betaserone), interferon p-1a (Avonex), and Copaxone are generally utilized to deCl'ease the frequency of MS attacl(s (Ellison, pp. 389- 404, 405-407; Merritt, pp. 151-153, 773-791; Greenberg, pp. 69-71).
78
What disorder is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis B. CNS lymphoma C. Viral encephalitis D. Active MS plaque E. None of the above
A **B** C D E ## Footnote CNS lymphoma is characterized by numerous malignant lymphocytes that tend to invade the walls of blood vessels. Lymphoma cells are prominent in the perivascular spaces, and they diffusely invade brain parenchyma toward the periphery of the lesion. More than 80% of these tumors are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas. The surrounding brain often exhibits reactive astrocytosis, which can resemble other inflammatory disorders. Interspersed small reactive (nonneoplastic) lymphocytes are usually observed as well and provide contrast to the larger, polymorphous malignant lymphocytes, which facilitates distinguishing lymphoma from other inflammatory conditions. B-celllymphomas are positive for CD20 (Ellison, pp. 689-694; WHO, pp. 198- 203).
79
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Papilla ry craniopharyngioma B. Papillary meningioma C. Colloid cyst D. Choroid plexus papilloma E. Pineocytoma
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Choroid plexus papillomas (CPPs) exhibit a columnar epithelium with an underlying fibrovascular network and prominent papillary projections. CPPs exhibit slight nuclear crowding and loss of the normal "cobblestone" surface, which differentiates them from normal choroid plexus. CPPs are generally positive for S-100, transthyretin, and cytokeratin. Papillary meningiomas are aggressive tumors that exhibit prominent mitoses, a high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio, and poorly defined papillary structures. Papillary craniopharyngiomas are composed of papillae of squamous cells without fibrovascular cores. Colloid cysts are lined by a single layer of columnar cells. Many of the cells of a colloid cyst wall are ciliated, and mucin-containing goblet cells may also be located within the epithelial layer (WHO, pp. 84-86, 180, 244-246; Ellison, pp. 685-688,713,724- 727,738-740).
80
All of the following are features of paragangliomas EXCEPT? A. Conta in synaptophysin positive chief cells B. Contai n GFAP positive sustentacular cells C. Arise from the cauda equina or glomus jugulare D. WIlO grade I lesion E. Dense core granules on ultrastructural examination
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Paragangliomas usually arise from the cauda equina or jugular bulb (glomus jugulare tumors) and consist of lobules of chief cells (Zellballen) surrounded by a single layer of sustentacular cells. Chief cells are labeled with synaptophysin, neurofilamen t, and chromogranin immunostains. Sustentacular cells are S-IOO-positive. ll'lyxopapillary ependymomas can also originate frol11 the cauda equina region; however, they are GFAP-positive, whereas paragangliomas are GFAP-negative. Paragangliomas are WHO grade I lesions (Ellison, pp. 651, 658-659; WHO, pp. 78- 79, 112- 114).
81
What abnormality is depicted in the following gross specimen? A. Subacute infarct B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy C. Adrenoleukodystrophy D. Fat embolism E. Multiple sclerosis plaques
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Fat embolism is usually observed in trauma patients with multisystem injuries and is often associated with long bone fractures. Grossly, fat embolism is characterized by multiple petechial hemorrhages that affect both the gray and white matter of the cerebral hemispheres diffusely, with concomitant regions of perivascular (gray) discoloration. J\Hcroscopically, fat embolism exhibits hemorrhagic lesions surrounding capillaries with signs of fibrinoid necrosis. Lipid globules can be demonstrated in necrotic regions with oil red o stains. Progressive multifocalleukoencephalopathy (PML) results from JC virus (polyomavirus) reactivation in the CNS of immunocompromised patients. PML exhibits foci of gray discoloration with regions of necrosis and cavitation, primarily in the deep white matter. Adrenoleukodystrophy is characterized by extensive white matter demyelination with sparing of the subcortical U fibers, and involves the parietoOCCipital regions more extensively than the frontotemporal region. This specimen exJ1ibits multiple petechial hemorrhages in both the cortical gray and deep white matter, which is most consistent with fat embolism (Ellison, pp. 254-256, 298- 300,454- 456).
82
Which of the following are useful myelin stains? 1. Weigert 2. Sudan 3. Marchi 4. Phosphotungstic acid/hematoxylin (PTAI-I) A. 1,2, and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only4 E. All of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote PTAH stains for collagen, while the Sudan, Weigert, and lvlm'chi are useful myelin stains (Wheater, pp. 102, 149, 309).
83
What neoplasm is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Ependymoma B. Neuroblastoma C. Central neurocytoma D. Subependymoma E. Pilocytic astrocytoma
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Ependymomas are characterized by the presence of uniform cells with round nuclei, mild nuclear pleomorphism, and indistinct cytoplasmic borders. Pseudorosettes (with a central blood vessel) are commonly observed in ependymomas; however, true rosettes with a central lumen (shown in the mid-upper portion of the picture) are less frequent. Some ependymomas exJ1ibit epithelial differentiation and the presence of true gland-like canals. Ependymomas are GFAPpositive. The presence of numerous perivascular pseudorosettes in the above specimen is most consistent with an ependymoma (Ellison , pp. 645-651; WHO, pp. 72-77).
84
Which of the following CNS neoplasms can exhibit prominent melanin? 1. Schwannomas 2. Embryonal neoplasms 3. Primary malignant melanoma 4. Ependymomas A. 1,2, and3 are correct B. 1 and3 are correct C. 2 and4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above are correct
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Melanocytes are present within the leptomeninges of the CNS and can lead to the formation of malignant melanoma, diffuse melanosis, and melanocytomas. All of these neoplasms exhibit prominent melanin. Occasionally, schwannomas, ependymomas, pineal neoplasms, and embryonal neoplasms can also exhibit prominent melanin (Ellison, pp. 734-737).
85
Which of the following disorders is associated with prominent iron deposition within the globus pallidus? A. Wilson's disease B. Hallervorden-Spatz disease C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Pick's disease E. Ataxia-telangiectasia
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Hallervorden-Spatz disease (I-ISO) is an autosomal recessive disorder that presents with progressive gait disturbance, dystonia, dysarthria, and choreoathetosis in children and young adults. An adult variant of I-ISO presents with progressive cognitive decline and extrapyramidal signs. '1'2- weighted MRI exhibits prominent hypointensity within the globus pallidus in patients with HSO ("eye of the tiger" sign), which is secondary to the accumulation of iron pigment. Microscopically, HSO is characterized by the presence of gliOSis, axonal spheroids, and occasional Lewy bodies and neurofibrillary tangles within the globus pallidus and substantia nigra (pars reticulata). Wilson's disease (hepatolenticular degeneration) is also characterized by abnormalities of the pallidum; however, prominent iron deposition is not observed (Ellison, pp. 134- 136,603-605).
86
lvlatch the hormone production with the associated germ cell neoplasm (numbered items), using each answer once [(+) = immunoreactive; (- ) = not immunoreac tive ; (+/-) = may be immunoreactive]. Teratoma A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E
A B C D **E**
87
lvlatch the hormone production with the associated germ cell neoplasm (numbered items), using each answer once [(+) = immunoreactive; (- ) = not immunoreac tive ; (+/-) = may be immunoreactive]. Yolk sac tumor A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E
A B **C** D E
88
lvlatch the hormone production with the associated germ cell neoplasm (numbered items), using each answer once [(+) = immunoreactive; (- ) = not immunoreac tive ; (+/-) = may be immunoreactive]. Embryonal carcinoma A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E
A **B** C D E
89
lvlatch the hormone production with the associated germ cell neoplasm (numbered items), using each answer once [(+) = immunoreactive; (- ) = not immunoreac tive ; (+/-) = may be immunoreactive]. Germinoma A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E
**A** B C D E
90
lvlatch the hormone production with the associated germ cell neoplasm (numbered items), using each answer once [(+) = immunoreactive; (- ) = not immunoreac tive ; (+/-) = may be immunoreactive]. Choriocarcinoma A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E
A B C **D** E
91
What is the ultrastructural homologue of the miniature endplate potential ? A. Vimentin B. Synaptic vesicle C. Postsynaptic membrane D. Gap .iunctions E. Sarcomere
A **B** C D E ## Footnote The ultrastructural homologue of the miniature endplate potential (MEPP) is the synaptic vesicle, which produces a MEPP after being released from the presynaptic terminal (Kandel, pp. 258-262).
92
What neoplasm is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Psammomatous meningioma B. Microcystic meningioma C. PUocytic astrocytoma D. Craniopharyngioma E. Ependymoma
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the presence of psammoma bodies intermingled with whorling meningothelial cells in this photomiCrograph, depicting a psammomatous meningioma (Ellison, pp.708-709).
93
What neoplasm is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma B. Choroid plexus papilloma C. Dermoid tumor D. Papillary meningioma E. Myxopapillaryependymoma
A B C D **E** ## Footnote This photomicrograph depic ts a myxopapillary ependymoma with markedly thickened blood vessel walls and cells with a delicate fibrillary cytoplasm surrounding mucin-rich areas (Ellison, pp. 646-651).
94
Which of the following meningioma variants is a World Health Organization (WHO) grade II neoplasm? A. Psammomatous B. Microcystic C. Papillary D. Secretory E. Clear cell
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Anaplastic, rhabdOid, and papillary meningiomas are WHO grade III neoplasms and carry the worst prognosis, while atypical, chordoid, and clea r cell meningiomas are \\THO grade II variants. The best prognosis is seen with WHO grade I meningiomas, which include the psammomatous,angiomatous, microcystic, secretory, metaplastic, and lymphoplasmacytic variants (Ellison, pp. 709-712).
95
Patients with homocystinuria often present with all of the following clinical features EXCEPT? A. Marfa/lOid appearance B. Ectopia lentis C. Seizures D. Biconcave (codfish) vertebrae E. Diabetes insipidus
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Patients with homocystinuria (autosomal recessive, chromosome 21) have a variable onset and may present with a marfanoid habitus, codfish vertebrae (biconcave), eye anomalies (ectopia lentis, myopia , glaucoma, optic atrophy), mental retardation, seizures, behavioral disorders, and strokes (beginning at age 5 to 9 months). The pathophysiology includes intimal thickening and fibrosis of blood vessels, which may lead to arterial and venous thrombosis. It is the result of cystathionine ~-synthase deficiency, which leads to the accumulation of homocysteine and methionine. There is also impaired methylation of homocysteine to methionine from enzyme defiCiency or cofactor B1 2 deficiency. Treatment may include restriction of dietary methionine as well as pyridoxine, vitamin B12 , and cysteine supplements. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase defiCiency results in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, phenylalanine hydroxylase defiCiency results in phenyllcetonuria, and alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency can produce maple syrup urine disease (Merritt, p. 256; Geyer, pp. 102- 106).
96
What is the enzyme abnormality of this disorder? A. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Cystathionine p-synthase deficiency D. Alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency E. None of the above
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Patients with homocystinuria (autosomal recessive, chromosome 21) have a variable onset and may present with a marfanoid habitus, codfish vertebrae (biconcave), eye anomalies (ectopia lentis, myopia , glaucoma, optic atrophy), mental retardation, seizures, behavioral disorders, and strokes (beginning at age 5 to 9 months). The pathophysiology includes intimal thickening and fibrosis of blood vessels, which may lead to arterial and venous thrombosis. It is the result of cystathionine ~-synthase deficiency, which leads to the accumulation of homocysteine and methionine. There is also impaired methylation of homocysteine to methionine from enzyme defiCiency or cofactor B1 2 deficiency. Treatment may include restriction of dietary methionine as well as pyridoxine, vitamin B12 , and cysteine supplements. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase defiCiency results in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, phenylalanine hydroxylase defiCiency results in phenyllcetonuria, and alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency can produce maple syrup urine disease (Merritt, p. 256; Geyer, pp. 102- 106).
97
Treatment of this disease may include all of the following EXCEPT which? A. Restriction of dietary methionine B. Pyridoxine supplements C. Vitamin BI 2 supplements D. Cysteine supplements E. L-S-hydroxytryptophan supplements
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Patients with homocystinuria (autosomal recessive, chromosome 21) have a variable onset and may present with a marfanoid habitus, codfish vertebrae (biconcave), eye anomalies (ectopia lentis, myopia , glaucoma, optic atrophy), mental retardation, seizures, behavioral disorders, and strokes (beginning at age 5 to 9 months). The pathophysiology includes intimal thickening and fibrosis of blood vessels, which may lead to arterial and venous thrombosis. It is the result of cystathionine ~-synthase deficiency, which leads to the accumulation of homocysteine and methionine. There is also impaired methylation of homocysteine to methionine from enzyme defiCiency or cofactor B1 2 deficiency. Treatment may include restriction of dietary methionine as well as pyridoxine, vitamin B12 , and cysteine supplements. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase defiCiency results in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, phenylalanine hydroxylase defiCiency results in phenyllcetonuria, and alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency can produce maple syrup urine disease (Merritt, p. 256; Geyer, pp. 102- 106).
98
A photomicrograph from a patient with AIDS is depicted below (Figure 4.116Q). What is the diagnosis? A. Lymphoma B. Cryptococcal infection C. HIVencephalopathy D. Progressive multifocalleukoencephalopathy E. Toxoplasmosis
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Note the prominent pleomorphic astrocyte and oligodendrocytes with viral inclusions in this immunocompromised patient with PML. Patients with this disease present with focal neurologic deficits including dysarthria, limb weakness, visual disturbances, ataxia, personality changes, and occasionally seizures. PML usually progresses rapidly over the course of weeks to months, resulting in increasing neurologic impairment, coma, and death. Treatment of the underlying immunocompromised state can lead to remission (Ellison, pp. 298-300).
99
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Neurofibroma B. Pilocytic astrocytoma C. Skeletal muscle D. Schwannoma E. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the haphazardly arranged spindle cells with wavy nuclei and a prominent matrL'( of mucin and collagen in this photomicrograph depicting a neurofibroma (Ellison, pp.699- 701).
100
The neoplasm depicted in the photomicrograph below is typically positive for which imll1unostains? 1. Synaptophysin 2. S-100 3. Chromogranin 4. GFAP A. 1,2, and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct E. All of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the nests of chief cells (Zellballen) surrounded by a fibrovascular stroma and sustentacular cells in this photomicrograph depicting a paraganglioma of the tilum terminale. These neoplasms show immunoreactivity to synaptophysin and chrolllograninj ultrastructural examination reveals dense-core granules. Sustentacular cells are immunoreactive to S-100 protein (Ellison, pp. 658-659).
101
For the neoplasm depicted in the photomicrograph below, what is the diagnosis? A. Pituitary adenoma B. Paraganglioma of the filum terminale C. Ganglioglioma D. Germinoma E. Astrocytoma
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Note the nests of chief cells (Zellballen) surrounded by a fibrovascular stroma and sustentacular cells in this photomicrograph depicting a paraganglioma of the tilum terminale. These neoplasms show immunoreactivity to synaptophysin and chrolllograninj ultrastructural examination reveals dense-core granules. Sustentacular cells are immunoreactive to S-100 protein (Ellison, pp. 658-659).
102
What neoplasm is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Lymphoma B. SubependymomH C. Melanoma D. Medulloblastoma E. Central neurocytom
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Note the sheets of cells with uniform round nuclei, which is characteristic of central neurocytomas. These neoplasms most often show synaptophysin immunoreactivity, although a small astrocytic component is often present that is GFAP-positive. Ultrastructural features include dense-core and clear vesicles, microtubules, and intermediate filaments (Ellison, pp. 656-658; WHO, pp. 107-109).
103
Which of the following is correct about a grade II subependymal germinal matrix hemorrhage? A. Confined to the germinalmatrL'l: region B. Involves the germinal matrLx and ventricle without ventricular dilation C. Involves the germinal matrix, ventricle, and adjacent brain parenchyma D. Involves the germinal matrix, ventricle, adjacent parenchyma , and basal cisterns E. Involves the germinal matrix and brain parenchyma only
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Subependymal germinal matrix hemorrhage (SEE) usually occurs in premature infants (less than 34 weeks' gestation) with low birth weight and is usually located adjacent to the head of the caudate nucleus or thalamus. SEE is the most common cause of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVI-I) in premature infants. Grade I SEE is confined to the germinal matrLx, grade 2 extends into the lateral ventricle from the germinalmatrLx, grade 3 consists of IVE with hydrocephalus, and grade IV involves extension into the brain parenchyma (Ellison, pp. 34-37).
104
What is depicted by the gross specimen below (Figure 4.122Q)? A. lvlultiple sclerosis B. Kernicterus C. Laminar necrosis D. Heterotopic gray matter E. Fat emboli
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Laminar necrosis can be related to intrapartum difficulties, congenital heart disease, and vascular collapse in an infant. It often involves the depths of the sulci (as depicted here), and the necrosis can be in a laminar or pseudolaminar pattern (Ellison, pp. 37- 43).
105
What is depicted by the gross specimen below? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber syndrome C. Occipital encephalocele D. Agyria E. Subdural empyema
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Note the absence of sulci and gyri along the cerebral convexities of this specimen depicting agyria, which results from abnormal cellular migration during embryologic development (Ellison, pp. 71- 76).
106
What is depicted by the gross specimen below? This abnormality often results from faulty A. Primary neurulation B. Secondary neurulation C. Diverticulation and cleavage D. Cellular migration E. Myelination
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Note the absence of sulci and gyri along the cerebral convexities of this specimen depicting agyria, which results from abnormal cellular migration during embryologic development (Ellison, pp. 71- 76).
107
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Pick bodies B. Chronic multiple sclerosis plaque C. Cortical dysplasia D. Siderocalcinosis E. Neurofibrillary tangles
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Note the prominent calcifications of residual neurons adjacent to a chronic infarct in this photomicrograph depicting siderocalcinosis (Ellison, pp. 190- 191)
108
The finding in this photomicrograph may have resulted from what pathologic event? A. An autoimmune disorder B. Neurodegeneration C. Viral infection D. Developmental anomaly E. Chronic infarct
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Note the prominent calcifications of residual neurons adjacent to a chronic infarct in this photomicrograph depicting siderocalcinosis (Ellison, pp. 190- 191)
109
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Bacterial meningitis B. Ependymoma C. Anaplastic astrocytoma D. Amyloid angiopathy E. None of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the presence of a prominent inflammatory infiltrate within the lumen of this blood vessel with concomitant vascular thrombosis in this photomicrograph depicting bacterial meningitis (Ellison, pp. 327-331).
110
What infectious process is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Aspergillosis B. J'l'lucormycosis C. Rabies D. Histoplasmosis E. Toxoplasmosis
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Note the presence of broad, nonseptate hyphae in this photomicrograph depicting mucormycosis, a fungal infection most often seen in diabetic patients with ketoacidosis. It most commonly enters the cranial cavity from the nasal mucosa via the cribriform plate. Mucormycosis is often fatal within a few days unless surgical debridement and antifungal therapy is initiated early (Ellison, pp. 353-355).
111
This infection most commonly spreads to the brain by what route? A. Hematogenous spread from the lungs B. Through the trigeminal nerve from the skin C. Through the cribriform plate from the nasal mucosa D. From the facial vein secondary to a tooth abscess E. From the middle ear canal
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Note the presence of broad, nonseptate hyphae in this photomicrograph depicting mucormycosis, a fungal infection most often seen in diabetic patients with ketoacidosis. It most commonly enters the cranial cavity from the nasal mucosa via the cribriform plate. Mucormycosis is often fatal within a few days unless surgical debridement and antifungal therapy is initiated early (Ellison, pp. 353-355).
112
What patients have an increased risk of acquiring this infection? A. Those with HIV B. Pregnant patients C. Diabetic patients with ketoacidosis D. Coal miners E. Veterinarians
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Note the presence of broad, nonseptate hyphae in this photomicrograph depicting mucormycosis, a fungal infection most often seen in diabetic patients with ketoacidosis. It most commonly enters the cranial cavity from the nasal mucosa via the cribriform plate. Mucormycosis is often fatal within a few days unless surgical debridement and antifungal therapy is initiated early (Ellison, pp. 353-355).
113
What neoplasm is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Pilocytic astrocytoma B. Transitionalmeningioma C. Malignant nerve sheath tumor D. Acoustic neuroma E. Pituitary adenoma
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Note the fascicular arrangement of these neoplastic cells that exhibit a high nuclear-cytoplasmic r and prominent mitosis in this photomicrograph depicting a malignant nerve sheath tumor (MNST). This neoplasm usually involves the trigeminal nerve intracranially but most often originates from the cervical or brachial plexi. MNST carries a poor prognosis, and approximately SO% of patients harboring this lesion have NFl (Ellison, pp. 700- 702).
114
This neoplasm most often involves which cranial nerve? A. Oculomotor (CN III) B. Trigeminal nerve (CNV) C. Facial nerve (CN VII) D. Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) E. Spinal accessory nerve (Xl)
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Note the fascicular arrangement of these neoplastic cells that exhibit a high nuclear-cytoplasmic r and prominent mitosis in this photomicrograph depicting a malignant nerve sheath tumor (MNST). This neoplasm usually involves the trigeminal nerve intracranially but most often originates from the cervical or brachial plexi. MNST carries a poor prognosis, and approximately SO% of patients harboring this lesion have NFl (Ellison, pp. 700- 702).
115
Match the metastatic neoplasm with the corresponding photomicrograph depicted below, using each answer once: Renal cell carcinoma A.A B.B C.C
A B **C** ## Footnote The most common metastatic brain tumors originate from the lung, breast, skin, and kidney. Photomicrograph A depicts a lesion with an area of necrosis and branching as well as sharply angulated lobules, which is most consistent with metastatic breast carcinoma. Photomicrograph B depicts metastatic lung adenocarcinoma, which is thyroid transcription factor-l (TTF-l) positive, and thyroglobulin negative. Photomicrograph C shows a hypervascular tumor with lobules of clear cells, which is most consistent with renal cell carcinoma [EMA (+), CAM S.2 (+), CD 10 (+)] (Ellison, pp. 743-749; WHO, pp. 250-253).
116
Match the metastatic neoplasm with the corresponding photomicrograph depicted below, using each answer once: Breast cancer A.A B.B C.C
**A** B C ## Footnote The most common metastatic brain tumors originate from the lung, breast, skin, and kidney. Photomicrograph A depicts a lesion with an area of necrosis and branching as well as sharply angulated lobules, which is most consistent with metastatic breast carcinoma. Photomicrograph B depicts metastatic lung adenocarcinoma, which is thyroid transcription factor-l (TTF-l) positive, and thyroglobulin negative. Photomicrograph C shows a hypervascular tumor with lobules of clear cells, which is most consistent with renal cell carcinoma [EMA (+), CAM S.2 (+), CD 10 (+)] (Ellison, pp. 743-749; WHO, pp. 250-253).
117
Match the metastatic neoplasm with the corresponding photomicrograph depicted below, using each answer once: Lung adenocarcinoma A.A B.B C.C
A **B** C ## Footnote The most common metastatic brain tumors originate from the lung, breast, skin, and kidney. Photomicrograph A depicts a lesion with an area of necrosis and branching as well as sharply angulated lobules, which is most consistent with metastatic breast carcinoma. Photomicrograph B depicts metastatic lung adenocarcinoma, which is thyroid transcription factor-l (TTF-l) positive, and thyroglobulin negative. Photomicrograph C shows a hypervascular tumor with lobules of clear cells, which is most consistent with renal cell carcinoma [EMA (+), CAM S.2 (+), CD 10 (+)] (Ellison, pp. 743-749; WHO, pp. 250-253).
118
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Central pontine myelinosis B. Low-grade astrocytoma c. Subependymoma D. Radiation necrosis E. Microglial nodule
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Note the areas of necrosis without intact cells or nuclei and the hyalinized, necrotic vessel in this photomicrograph depicting radiation necrosis (Ellison , p. 632; Berger, pp. 471-474; Greenberg, pp. 507-515).
119
Wha t is depicted on this gross section? A. Multiple sclerosis plaque B. Pilocytic astrocytoma C. Lymphoma D. Cerebral abscess E. Embolic infarct
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Note the prominent capsule and central purulent region in this gross section depicting a brain abscess. The central area of necrosis and surrounding capsule formation are characteristic features of the fourth stage of abscess formation (capsular stage). Refer to Table S.97-S.100A for a sumnulry of the stages of abscess formation (Ellison, pp. 330-336).
120
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Amputation neuroma B. Noncaseating granuloma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Paraganglioma E. Chronic multiple sclerosis plaqu
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Note the noncaseating sarcoid granuloma containing prominent epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells. Tuberculosis is associated with caseating granulomas, whereas MS plaques, paragangliomas, amputation neuromas, and acoustic neuromas are not associated with granuloma formation (Ellison, pp. 346-348).
121
This finding would be most consistent with what diagnosis ? A. Acollstic neuroma B. Trauma C. Neurosarcoidosis D. Tuberculosis E. Leigh's disease
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Note the noncaseating sarcoid granuloma containing prominent epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells. Tuberculosis is associated with caseating granulomas, whereas MS plaques, paragangliomas, amputation neuromas, and acoustic neuromas are not associated with granuloma formation (Ellison, pp. 346-348).
122
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Thallium A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
123
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Thiamine A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
124
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Colchicine A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
125
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Nitrous oxide A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
126
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: HIV A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
127
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Chloramphenicol A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
128
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Phenytoin A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
129
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: AIDS A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
130
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Gold A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
**A** B C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
131
Match the following questions with the type of neuropathy produced using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Diphtheria A. Axonal B. Demyelinating C. Both D. None of the above
A **B** C D ## Footnote Patients with axonal neuropathies (most common) usually have symmetric distal sensory loss with weakness, atrophy, and loss of ankle jerks. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) studies show mild slowing without conduction block or temporal dispersion as well as decreased amplitudes of compound motor action potentials (CMAP) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAP). EJ\'IG studies show evidence of distal denervation. Demyelinating neuropathies typically present with sensory loss of larger fibers more than smaller fibers, and usually motor more than sensory involvement. NCV studies can show marked slowing, conduction block, temporal dispersion, prolonged F waves, and prolonged distal latencies with demyelinating diseases. EMG studies show denervation, based on chronicity. Of note, HIV-positive patients with neuropathy typically have a demyelinating process, whereas patients with AIDS rarely present with a demyelinating neuropathy but instead with an a:'Wnal neuropathy (Merritt, pp. 620- 624; Geyer, p. 164).
132
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Acute infarct B. Chronic infarct C. Progressive l11ultifocalleukoencephalopathy D. Amyloid angiopathy E. Neurofibrillary tangles
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Note the presence of hypocellularity, gliosis, demyelination, and a lack of inflammation in this photomicrograph depicting a chronic infarct (Ellison, pp. 197- 201)
133
Match the inclusion body with the associated photomicrograph using each answer once: Negri body A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E F.F
A B **C** D E F ## Footnote Lewy bodies (E), the hallmark of Parkinson's disease, are intracellular cytoplasmic inclusions containing an eosinophilic core surrounded by a pale halo. They are predominantly found in the substantia nigra and consist of ubiquitin, neurofilaments, CY.- synuclein, and CY.~ crystallin. Bunina bodies (F) are small eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in patients with ALS. They can be demonstrated with H&E stains; however, they are best identified with ubiquitin staining techniques. Hirano bodies (A) are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed of actin and actin-associated proteins; they are particularly prominent in the CAl sector of the hippocampus in patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Pick's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles (D) are intraneuronal inclusions composed of phosphorylated tau, which is a rnicrotubule-associated cytoskeletal protein. Phosphorylated tau forms helical filaments, which can be found within the neocortex and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus in patients with AD. The microscopic hallmark of Pick's disease is the Pick body (B), which is a spherical cytoplasmic inclusion (composed of phosphorylated tau) that is mildly basophilic and contains a well-demarcated margin. Negri bodies (C) are oval or round cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found throughout the CNS but are most prominent in Purkinje cells. The appearance of Negri bodies is similar to that of red blood cells (Ellison, pp. 288-289, 504, 513- 514, 552,556-559,570- 572).
134
Match the inclusion body with the associated photomicrograph using each answer once: Hirano body A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E F.F
**A** B C D E F ## Footnote Lewy bodies (E), the hallmark of Parkinson's disease, are intracellular cytoplasmic inclusions containing an eosinophilic core surrounded by a pale halo. They are predominantly found in the substantia nigra and consist of ubiquitin, neurofilaments, CY.- synuclein, and CY.~ crystallin. Bunina bodies (F) are small eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in patients with ALS. They can be demonstrated with H&E stains; however, they are best identified with ubiquitin staining techniques. Hirano bodies (A) are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed of actin and actin-associated proteins; they are particularly prominent in the CAl sector of the hippocampus in patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Pick's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles (D) are intraneuronal inclusions composed of phosphorylated tau, which is a rnicrotubule-associated cytoskeletal protein. Phosphorylated tau forms helical filaments, which can be found within the neocortex and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus in patients with AD. The microscopic hallmark of Pick's disease is the Pick body (B), which is a spherical cytoplasmic inclusion (composed of phosphorylated tau) that is mildly basophilic and contains a well-demarcated margin. Negri bodies (C) are oval or round cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found throughout the CNS but are most prominent in Purkinje cells. The appearance of Negri bodies is similar to that of red blood cells (Ellison, pp. 288-289, 504, 513- 514, 552,556-559,570- 572).
135
Match the inclusion body with the associated photomicrograph using each answer once: Lewy body A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E F.F
A B C D **E** F ## Footnote Lewy bodies (E), the hallmark of Parkinson's disease, are intracellular cytoplasmic inclusions containing an eosinophilic core surrounded by a pale halo. They are predominantly found in the substantia nigra and consist of ubiquitin, neurofilaments, CY.- synuclein, and CY.~ crystallin. Bunina bodies (F) are small eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in patients with ALS. They can be demonstrated with H&E stains; however, they are best identified with ubiquitin staining techniques. Hirano bodies (A) are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed of actin and actin-associated proteins; they are particularly prominent in the CAl sector of the hippocampus in patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Pick's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles (D) are intraneuronal inclusions composed of phosphorylated tau, which is a rnicrotubule-associated cytoskeletal protein. Phosphorylated tau forms helical filaments, which can be found within the neocortex and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus in patients with AD. The microscopic hallmark of Pick's disease is the Pick body (B), which is a spherical cytoplasmic inclusion (composed of phosphorylated tau) that is mildly basophilic and contains a well-demarcated margin. Negri bodies (C) are oval or round cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found throughout the CNS but are most prominent in Purkinje cells. The appearance of Negri bodies is similar to that of red blood cells (Ellison, pp. 288-289, 504, 513- 514, 552,556-559,570- 572).
136
Match the inclusion body with the associated photomicrograph using each answer once: Pick body A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E F.F
A **B** C D E F ## Footnote Lewy bodies (E), the hallmark of Parkinson's disease, are intracellular cytoplasmic inclusions containing an eosinophilic core surrounded by a pale halo. They are predominantly found in the substantia nigra and consist of ubiquitin, neurofilaments, CY.- synuclein, and CY.~ crystallin. Bunina bodies (F) are small eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in patients with ALS. They can be demonstrated with H&E stains; however, they are best identified with ubiquitin staining techniques. Hirano bodies (A) are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed of actin and actin-associated proteins; they are particularly prominent in the CAl sector of the hippocampus in patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Pick's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles (D) are intraneuronal inclusions composed of phosphorylated tau, which is a rnicrotubule-associated cytoskeletal protein. Phosphorylated tau forms helical filaments, which can be found within the neocortex and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus in patients with AD. The microscopic hallmark of Pick's disease is the Pick body (B), which is a spherical cytoplasmic inclusion (composed of phosphorylated tau) that is mildly basophilic and contains a well-demarcated margin. Negri bodies (C) are oval or round cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found throughout the CNS but are most prominent in Purkinje cells. The appearance of Negri bodies is similar to that of red blood cells (Ellison, pp. 288-289, 504, 513- 514, 552,556-559,570- 572).
137
Match the inclusion body with the associated photomicrograph using each answer once: Neurofibrillary body A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E F.F
A B C **D** E F ## Footnote Lewy bodies (E), the hallmark of Parkinson's disease, are intracellular cytoplasmic inclusions containing an eosinophilic core surrounded by a pale halo. They are predominantly found in the substantia nigra and consist of ubiquitin, neurofilaments, CY.- synuclein, and CY.~ crystallin. Bunina bodies (F) are small eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in patients with ALS. They can be demonstrated with H&E stains; however, they are best identified with ubiquitin staining techniques. Hirano bodies (A) are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed of actin and actin-associated proteins; they are particularly prominent in the CAl sector of the hippocampus in patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Pick's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles (D) are intraneuronal inclusions composed of phosphorylated tau, which is a rnicrotubule-associated cytoskeletal protein. Phosphorylated tau forms helical filaments, which can be found within the neocortex and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus in patients with AD. The microscopic hallmark of Pick's disease is the Pick body (B), which is a spherical cytoplasmic inclusion (composed of phosphorylated tau) that is mildly basophilic and contains a well-demarcated margin. Negri bodies (C) are oval or round cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found throughout the CNS but are most prominent in Purkinje cells. The appearance of Negri bodies is similar to that of red blood cells (Ellison, pp. 288-289, 504, 513- 514, 552,556-559,570- 572).
138
Match the inclusion body with the associated photomicrograph using each answer once: Bunina body A.A B.B C.C D.D E.E F.F
A B C D E **F** ## Footnote Lewy bodies (E), the hallmark of Parkinson's disease, are intracellular cytoplasmic inclusions containing an eosinophilic core surrounded by a pale halo. They are predominantly found in the substantia nigra and consist of ubiquitin, neurofilaments, CY.- synuclein, and CY.~ crystallin. Bunina bodies (F) are small eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are observed in patients with ALS. They can be demonstrated with H&E stains; however, they are best identified with ubiquitin staining techniques. Hirano bodies (A) are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions composed of actin and actin-associated proteins; they are particularly prominent in the CAl sector of the hippocampus in patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and Pick's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles (D) are intraneuronal inclusions composed of phosphorylated tau, which is a rnicrotubule-associated cytoskeletal protein. Phosphorylated tau forms helical filaments, which can be found within the neocortex and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus in patients with AD. The microscopic hallmark of Pick's disease is the Pick body (B), which is a spherical cytoplasmic inclusion (composed of phosphorylated tau) that is mildly basophilic and contains a well-demarcated margin. Negri bodies (C) are oval or round cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found throughout the CNS but are most prominent in Purkinje cells. The appearance of Negri bodies is similar to that of red blood cells (Ellison, pp. 288-289, 504, 513- 514, 552,556-559,570- 572).
139
What neoplasm is associated with opsoclonus, myoclonus, and encephalopathy? A. Astroblastoma B. Teratoma C. Neuroblastoma D. Rhabdoid tumor E. Pilocytic astrocytoma
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Neuroblastoma most commonly occurs in the first decade of life and can present with opsoclonus, myoclonus, and encephalopathy. This lesion most commonly originates from the adrenal glands (40% of neuroblastic tumors), followed by the abdominal (25%), thoracic (15%), cervical (5%), and pelvic sympathetic ganglia (5%); it is associated with amplification of the N-myc gene. The cerebral form tends to favor the frontoparietal lobes, although it is rare. Treatment typically includes surgical resection and radiation therapy to the tumor bed. Recurrence is frequent after excision (WHO, pp. 153- 161; Merritt, p. 330; Geyer, p. 146).
140
This neoplasm most commonly originates from the A. Sympathetic chain B. Adrenal glands C. Ependymal cells D. Pineal gland E. Optic nerve
A **B** C D E ## Footnote Neuroblastoma most commonly occurs in the first decade of life and can present with opsoclonus, myoclonus, and encephalopathy. This lesion most commonly originates from the adrenal glands (40% of neuroblastic tumors), followed by the abdominal (25%), thoracic (15%), cervical (5%), and pelvic sympathetic ganglia (5%); it is associated with amplification of the N-myc gene. The cerebral form tends to favor the frontoparietal lobes, although it is rare. Treatment typically includes surgical resection and radiation therapy to the tumor bed. Recurrence is frequent after excision (WHO, pp. 153- 161; Merritt, p. 330; Geyer, p. 146).
141
What gene is most frequently amplified in patients harboring this lesion? A. N-myc B. Ras C. RBl D. MENl E. ])53
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Neuroblastoma most commonly occurs in the first decade of life and can present with opsoclonus, myoclonus, and encephalopathy. This lesion most commonly originates from the adrenal glands (40% of neuroblastic tumors), followed by the abdominal (25%), thoracic (15%), cervical (5%), and pelvic sympathetic ganglia (5%); it is associated with amplification of the N-myc gene. The cerebral form tends to favor the frontoparietal lobes, although it is rare. Treatment typically includes surgical resection and radiation therapy to the tumor bed. Recurrence is frequent after excision (WHO, pp. 153- 161; Merritt, p. 330; Geyer, p. 146).
142
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Muscle pain A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B C D E **F** G H I
143
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Pseudo tumor cerebri A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
**A** B C D E F G H I
144
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Decreased visual acuity A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A **B** C D E F G H I
145
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Peripheral neuropathy, hearing loss, cortical blindness A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B C D E F G **H** I
146
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Hypertrichosis A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B C **D** E F G H I
147
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Tremor A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B C **D** E F G H I
148
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Parkinsonism A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B **C** D E F G H I
149
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Decreased ADH secretion A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B C D E F **G** H I
150
Match the medication with the associated complication, using each answer once, more than once, or not at all: Primary CNS lymphoma A. Isotretinoin B. Tamoxifen C. Interleukin-2 D. Cyclosporine E. Al1ti-CD3 F. Vinblastine G. Vincristine H. Carboplatin I. None of the above
A B C **D** E F G H I
151
Hypertrophied nerves often accompany all of the following conditions EXCEPT? A. Amyloidosis B. Refsum's disease C. Leprosy D. Acromegaly E. Alcoholism
A B C D **E** ## Footnote Hypertrophied nerves may occur with neurofibromatosis, Refsum's disease, leprosy, hereditary sensory motor neuropathy (HSMN) III > II > I, acromegaly, neurofibromatosis, and amyloidosis. Hypertrophied nerves are not typically seen in patients with alcoholism (Merritt, p. 605).
152
What is depicted in this gross specimen? A. Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration B. Metastatic tumor C. Multiple sclerosis D. Chiari malformation E. Aqueductal stenosis
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the prominent atrophy of the cerebellar vermis in this gross specimen depicting alcoholic cerebellar degeneration (Ellison, pp. 488- 489).
153
What is depicted in this gross specimen? A. Acoustic neuroma B. Tuberculosis C. Epidermoid tumor D. Basilar apex aneurysm E. Optic nerve glioma
A B **C** D E ## Footnote Note the prominent epidermoid within the right cerebellopontine angle cistern in this gross specimen (Ellison, pp. 737- 739).
154
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Coccidioidomycosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Cryptococcalmeningitis E. Mucormycosis
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the prominent spherules containing endospores in this photomicrograph depicting coccidioidomycosis. The spherules and enclosed endospores usually appear basophilic when stained with H&E but are better demonstrated by methenamine silver impregnation. Pulmonary infection can occur in the absence of underlying disease and is generally self-limiting, although there may be residual fibrosis and calcification. Coccidioidomycosis is most often associated with occupations involving exposures to large amounts of dust. Hematogenous spread is rare and is most often seen in patients with diabetes, immunosuppression, or pregnancy. CNS involvement is usually a late, terminal event (Ellison, pp. 362 363) .
155
What is depicted in this gross specimen? A. Purulent meningitis B. Traumatic brain injury C. Embolic stroke D. Watershed infarct E. None of the above
**A** B C D E ## Footnote This gross section depicts prominent exudates along the cerebral convexities as well as focal areas of hemorrhage and thrombosed veins; these are characteristic of purulent meningitis (Ellison, pp. 328 330).
156
What fungal species is characterized by nonseptate hyphae? A. Ca'/1Clida B. Cryptococcus C. Blastomyces D. Mtlcor E. Cladosporium
A B C **D** E ## Footnote Forms of fungi in CNS infection include yeasts (Blastomycosis, Ccmclida, Coccidioides, C,yptococcus, Histoplasma, Paracoccidioides, Sporotrichum, and Torulopsis) as well as branching septate (Aspergilllls, Cladosporium, FllSarillm) and nonseptate hyphae (MIlCor) and pseudohyphae, which are larger than yeasts but smaller than true hyphae (some Canclida species) (Ellison, pp. 351 354).
157
What is depicted in the photomicrograph below? A. Glomeruloid vascular proliferation of a glioblastoma B. Homer-Wright rosette of a pinealcytoma C. Microglial nodule D. Angiomatous meningioma E. Neuronophagia
**A** B C D E ## Footnote Note the glomeruloid vascular proliferation in this photomicrograph depicting a glioblastoma (Ellison, p. 631)