Neurophysiology Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
What is the somatic NS?
A
Voluntary motor system that is under conscious control
Consists of single motoneuron and skeletal muscle fiber (ACh)
2
Q
What is the autonomic NS?
A
Involuntary system - Controls visceral organs
Two neurons: Preganglionic neuron (ACh) and postganglionic neuron (ACh, norepi, other)
3
Q
What are the 2 main divisions of the autonomic NS?
A
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic (also the ENS in the GIT)
4
Q
What type of nerves are preganglionic nerves?
A
All are cholinergic - Release ACh (interact with nicotinic receptors)
5
Q
Name two areas that are involved in wakefulness/awareness.
A
ARAS (brainstem) and cerebral cortex
6
Q
What area is involved in behavior?
A
Limbic system
7
Q
What is scoliosis?
A
Lateral deviation of spine
8
Q
What is lordosis?
A
Ventral curvature of spine
9
Q
What is kyphosis?
A
Dorsal curvation of spine
10
Q
What is torticollis?
A
Twisting of neck
11
Q
When an animal has extension of all limbs, opsithotonus, stupor/coma, if has?
A
Decrebrate rigidity (rostral brainstem lesion)
12
Q
What is Schiff-Scherrington posture?
A
Thoracic limb extension with NORMAL voluntary movements and CPs, pelvic limb paralysis, normal mentation
Occurs with acute severe TL spinal cord lesion (interferes with inhibitory ascending neurons (border cells) that inhibits TL extensor tone)
13
Q
What are the 3 types of ataxia?
A
- Proprioceptive ataxia: Lesion in proprioceptive pathway (peripheral n, spinal cord, brainstem, cerebral cortex) = Abnormal posural reactions, limb paresis
- Vestibular ataxia: Vestibular nuclei (central) , CN VIII or peripheral vestibular receptors = Head tilit, leaning, falling, nystagmus
- Cerebellar Ataxia: Wide based stance, intention tremors, truncal sway, dysmeteria
14
Q
What is diffferent about circiling in animals with vestibular dz compared to forebrain dz?
A
Vestibular dz = Tight circles, other vestibular signs
Forebrain = Wide circles”
15
Q
What is a nerve root signature?
A
Referred pain down limb causing lamenss/elevation of limb dt entrapment of spinal nerve (lateral disc, nerve root tumor)
16
Q
Name two dog breeds that have idiopathic head bobbing?
A
Bulldogs and Dobermans
17
Q
What is CN I?
A
Olfactory n.
18
Q
What is CN II?
A
Optic n.
19
Q
Which CN is not a true cranial n. but rather an extension of the brain?
A
CN II - Optic n.
20
Q
What percentage of dogs and cats have crossing over at optic chiasm?
A
About 75% of dogs and 66% of cats
21
Q
What does it mean when you have dilated and unresponsive pupils?
A
Dysfunction in CN II (Optic n.)
22
Q
What is CN III?
A
Oculomotor n.
23
Q
Which CN controls pupillary constriction for PLRs?
A
CN III - Oculomotor n.
24
Q
If ventrolateral strabismus is noted, which CN is affected?
A
CN III - Oculomotor n.
25
What is CN IV?
Trochlear n.
26
What does trochlear n. (CN IV) do?
Contralateral dorsal oblique muscle (inward rotation of eye)
27
If dorsolateral strabismus is noted, which CN is affected?
Trochlear n. (CN IV)
28
What is CN V?
Trigeminal n.
29
What are the functions of CN V, trigeminal n?
Sensory innervation to face and motor inveration to masticatory muscle (manidbular)
30
What are the 3 branches of CN V?
1. Ophthalmic
2. Maxillary
3. Mandibular
31
What is CN VI?
Abducent n.
32
What is the function of CN VI?
Ipsilateral lateral rectusnad retractor bulbi muscles
33
If a patient has ipsilateral medial strabismus you should consider dysfunction of which CN?
Abducent n. (CN VI)
34
If a patient is unable to retract globe when CS dysfunction should be considered?
Abducent n. (CN VI)
35
What is CN VII?
Facial n.
36
If a patient has dryness in mouth, one should consider dysfunction with which CN?
Facial n. (CN VII)
37
What is the function of CN VII?
Motor to muscles of facial expression, lacrimal glands (PNS)
38
What is CN VIII?
Vestibulocochlear n.
39
What branch of CN VIII is responsible for hearing?
Cochlear branch of CN VIII
40
If a patient has wide head excursions, wide based stance, asymmetric ataxia you should consider?
Vestibulocochlear n. (CN VIII) Dysfunction = Bilateral vesibular disease
41
What is CN IX?
Glossopharyngeal n. (CN IX)
42
What is CN X?
Vagus n. (CN X)
43
What is the oculocardiac refelx?
Vagal reflex = eyeball pressure
44
If a patient has dysphagia and absent gag you should consider dysfunction in which CN?
Glossopharyngeal n. (CN IX)
45
If a patient has laryngeal paralysis, dysphonia, and regurgitation you should consider dysfunction in which CN?
Vagus n. (CN X)
46
What is CN XI?
Accessory n (CNXI)
47
What is CN XII?
Hypoglossal n. (CN XII)
48
If a patient has problems with prehension, tongus atropy or deviation, dysfunction in which CN should be considered?
Hypoglossal n. (CN XII)
49
Palpebral Reflex: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: V (trigeminal) = Opthalmic (medial) or maxillary (lateral)
Efferent CN: VII (facial)
Effect: Blink elicited by touching medial or lateral canthus of eye
50
Corneal Sensation: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: V (trigeminal) = Ophtalmic branch
Efferent CN: VII(facial) and VI (abducent)
Effect: Blink and glob retraction elicited by touching cornea
51
Vestibulo-ocular Reflex: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: VII (vestibulocochlear)
Efferent CN: III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), VI (abducent)
Effect: Nystagmus induced by moving head
52
Menace Response: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: II (Optic)
Efferent CN: VII (Facial)
Effect: Blink elicited by menacing gesture
53
Nasal Stimulation: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: V (trigeminal ) = Opthalmic branch
Efferent CN: None
Effect: Withdrawal of head elicited by touching nasal mucosa
54
PLR: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: II (Optic)
Efferent CN: III (Oculomotor)
Effect: Pupillary constriction elicited by shining light into eye
55
Gag Reflex: Name afferent CN, efferent CN, and principal effect.
Afferent CN: IX (Glossopharyngeal) and X (Vagus)
Efferent CN: IX (Glossopharyngeal) and X (Vagus)
Effect: Contraction of pharynx elicited by its palpation
56
When you are testing withdrawal reflex on the thoracic limbs what are you testing?
Spinal segments, C6-T2 (Brachial plexus), peripheral n (axillary, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar)
57
When you are testing withdrawal reflex on the pelvic limbs what are you testing?
Spinal segments (L4-S2), femoral and sciatic nerves
58
What would you expect for a brain lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?
Thoracic limbs: UMN
| Pelvic Limbs: UMN
59
What would you expect for a C1-C5 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?
Thoracic limbs: UMN
| Pelvic Limbs: UMN
60
What would you expect for a C6-T2 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?
Thoracic limbs: LMN
| Pelvic Limbs: UMN
61
What would you expect for a T3-L3 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?
Thoracic limbs: Normal
| Pelvic Limbs: UMN
62
What would you expect for a L4-S3 lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?
Thoracic limbs: Normal
| Pelvic Limbs: LMN
63
What would you expect for a polyneuropathy, polyradiculopathy lesion. Thoracic limbs? Pelvic Limbs?
Thoracic limbs: LMN
| Pelvic Limbs: LMN
64
What does the patellar reflex test?
L4-L6, femoral n.
65
What does the perineal reflex test?
S1-Cd5, caudal tail nerves, pudenal n.
66
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the medial antebrachium?
Musculocuteanous (C6-C8)
67
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the cranial antebrachium, except digit 5?
Radial (C7-T2)
68
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sensory distribution of the caudal antebrachium, entire digit 5?
Median and ulnar (C8-T2)
69
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the medial aspect of HL and first digit?
Femoral (L4-L6)
70
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the craniolateral aspect of HL to stifle?
Sciatic = Peroneal (L6-S2)
71
What does the cutanous truci (panniculus) reflex test?
C8-T1 to lateral thoracic n. that innervates cutanous trunci muscle
72
If your panniculus is lost ipsilaterally, this sugests what?
Disease of the brachial plexus only
73
What is the prosencephalon?
Forebrain
74
What is the telencephalon?
Cerebrum
75
What is the mesechcephalon?
Midbrain part of brainstem
76
What is the metencephalon?
Pons (part of brainstem) and cerebellum
77
What is the myelencephalon?
Medulla oblongata (part of brainstem)
78
If you have seizure this indicated neurolocalization of?
Forebrain
79
If you have nacrolepsy-cataplexy this indicated neurolocalization of?
Diencephalon
80
If you have hemi-neglect syndrome this indicated neurolocalization of?
Forebrain
81
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the caudal aspect of HL to stifle?
Sciatic = Tibial (L6-S2)
82
If you have abnormal behavior this indicated neurolocalization of?
Forebrain
83
If you have visual dysfunction this indicated neurolocalization of?
Eye, optic n. optic chiasm, forebrain
84
If you have head pressing this indicated neurolocalization of?
Forebrain
85
If you have circling this indicated neurolocalization of?
Vestibular dz = Tight circles, other vestibular signs
| Forebrain = Wide circles
86
If you have head tilit, nystagmus, falling, rolling this indicated neurolocalization of?
Vestibular disease
87
If you have Strabismus this indicated neurolocalization of?
Vestibular disease, CNs III, IV, VI
88
If you have depression, stupor, coma this indicated neurolocalization of?
Brainstem or forebrain
89
If you have abnormal prehension this indicated neurolocalization of?
CN V and XII, caudal brainstem
90
If you have dysphagia this indicated neurolocalization of?
CN IX and X, caudal brainstem
91
If you have dropped jaw this indicated neurolocalization of?
Bilateral CN V
92
If you have paralysis of eyelides, lips, nostrils, and/or ears this indicated neurolocalization of?
CN VII
93
If you have megaesophagus this indicated neurolocalization of?
CN X
94
If you have laryngeal paralysis this indicated neurolocalization of?
CN X
95
If you have tongus paralysis this indicated neurolocalization of?
CN XII
96
If you have deafness this indicated neurolocalization of?
Auditory apparatus
97
What neurolocalization should be given for contralateral blindness and decreased/absent menace with normal PLRs?
Forebrain
98
What neurolocalization should be given for postrual reactions defs in contralateral limbs?
Forebrain
99
What neurolocalization should be given for abnormalities in CN III/XII?
Brainstem
100
What neurolocalization should be given for abnormalities in respiratory or cardiac function?
Brainstem
101
Which nerve controls the cuteanous sesnory distribution of the caudal aspect of HL to stifle?
Sciatic = Tibial (L6-S2)
102
What neurolocalization should be given for ipsilateral menace def with normal vision?
Cerebellum
103
What neurolocalization should be given for intention tremors?
Cerebellum
104
What neurolocalization should be given for hypermetria?
Cerebellum
105
What neurolocalization should be given for truncal sway?
Cerebellum
106
What neurolocalization should be given for increased freq of urination?
Cerebellum (inhibitory influence on urination)
107
How far does the spinal cord extend in dogs and cats?
L6 (dogs) and L7 (cats)
108
What makes up the central core of the spinal cord?
Grey matter = dorsal root ganglion too
109
What makes up the out portion of the spinal cord?
White matter = doral, lateral, and ventrla funiculus
110
What is the segmentation of the spinal cord?
8 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, and at least 2 caudal segments
111
What makes up the cervicothoracic intumescence?
C6-T2
112
What makes up the lumbosacral intumescence?
L4-S3
113
What is the typical order of loss of function in progressive spinal cord disease?
1. CPs
2. Motor Function
3. Bladder function
4. Nociception
114
What neurolocalization should be given for ipsilateral Horner's syndrome?
C1-C5 and C6-T2
115
What neurolocalization should be given for paresis or paralysis in ALL 4 limbs, with postural rxn defs in all 4 limbs, normal to increased spinal reflexes in all 4 limbs?
C1-C5
116
What neurolocalization should be given for paresis or paralysis in ALL 4 limbs or just 1 thoracic limb, with postural rxn defs in all 4 limbs or just one thoracic limb, normal to increased spinal reflexes in in HLs with decreased to absent spinal reflexes in TLs?
C6-T2
117
If you have a reduced or absent ipsilateral cutaneous trunci reflex which spinal cord segments are affected?
C6-T2
118
If you have Schiff-Sherrington, which spinal cord segment is affected?
T3-L3
119
What neurolocalization should be given for paresis/paralysis in HLs or 1 HL; normal spinal reflexes and postural reactions in FLs, and defs in postural rxn and normal to increased spinal reflexs in HLs?
T3-L3
120
When you have reduced to absent cutaneous trunci reflex caudal to level of last intact dermatome which spinal cord segments should be considered?
T3-L3
121
What neurolocalization should be given for paresis/paralysis in HLs or 1 HL; normal spinal reflexes and postural reactions in FLs, and defs in postural rxn and decreased to absent spinal reflexs in HLs?
L4-S3
122
What neurolocalization should be given for paresis/paralysis in HLs or 1 HL; normal spinal reflexes and postural reactions in FLs, and defs in postural rxn and decreased to absent spinal reflexs in HLs, with flaccid tail?
L6-S3
123
When fecal incontinence is present with neurolocalization should be considered?
L6-S3
124
In peripheral nerves were is the motor located?
Neurons in ventral horn of spinal cord/grey matter of brainstem
125
IN peripheral nerves were is the sensory located?
Cell bodies in dorsal root gnaglion and ganglia of CNs
126
What is the brachial plexus?
C6-T2 = FLs
127
What is the lumbosacral plexus?
L4-S3 = HLs
128
What CN are commonly affected with generalized neuropathies?
CN VII (Facial), IX (Glossopharygneal), X (Vagus)
129
What are the 3 types of neuromuscular disease?
1. Presynaptic
2. Postsynaptic
3. Enzymatic"
130
How does botulism or tick paralysis work?
Presynaptic neuromuscular disease = Decrease in ACh released = LMN signs in all 4 limbs (severe hypotonia and hyporeflexia)
131
How does myasthesia gravis work?
Postsynpatic neuromuscular disease = Interference of ACh receptor activation mechanism
Exercise-induced weakness, normal neuro exam with rest
132
How does organophosphates work?
Enzymatic neuromuscular disease = Chemical cmpound that interferes wit acetykcholinesterase (enzyme that inactivates ACh in synapse) = Stiff, rigid with muscle tremors and exercise intolerance
