Neuroscience Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

What uptake pathway does cocaine block?

A
  • neuronal uptake pathway (high affinity pathway)
  • blocks uptake of NA, DA and 5-HT
  • also blocks NA channels (local anaesthetic drugs)
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2
Q

Describe the effect of amphetamine on noradrenergic transmission in the CNS

A
  • displaces noradrenaline from storage vesicles
  • increased NA in synapse
  • increased response
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3
Q

Describe the biosynthesis pathway of catecholamines

A
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4
Q

Describe the anatomical directions in the NS

A

Brain

Brainstem

Spinal cord

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5
Q

Describe the structure and function of the cerebrum

A
  • 2 hemispheres separated by a longitudinal fissure
  • ridges= gyri
  • grooves= sulci
  • surface is the cortex
    • superficial layer of grey matter
    • core of white matter (many layers)
    • has pyramidal and interneurons
    • left and right cortices linked by corpus callosum
  • its the site of language, memory, emotions and self awareness
  • organised into 4 lobes
    • Frontal
    • Parietal
    • Occipital
    • Temporal
  • each sulci and gyri has a name
  • Brodmanns areas= areas that have differences in organisation
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6
Q

Describe the structure and function of the cerebellum

A
  • function= motor control, refines execution of motor program, compares what you are doing to what you want to do
  • contains half of all neurons in the brain
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7
Q

Describe the structure and function of the basal ganglia

A
  • located in the telencephalon
  • function= motor control, selects and initiates voluntary movements
  • forms loops with the cortex
  • damage–> Parkinsons and HD
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8
Q

Describe the structure and function of the thalamus

A
  • part of the diencephalon
  • function= major sensory relay to cortex
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9
Q

What are the 3 ways the thalamic subnuclei project?

A
  1. relays sensory info to specific areas in the cortex
  2. relays non-sensory info from cortex and basal ganglia to specific areas of the cortex
  3. project globally to cortex (arousal, sleep)
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10
Q

Describe the structure and function of the hypothalamus

A
  • Part of the diencephalon
  • function= homeostasis and controls the pituitary
    • homeostasis of: temp, blood vol and P, ion concentration, Ph, O2 and glucose)
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11
Q

What are some general functions of the brainstem?

A
  • controls
    • facial muscles
    • sensation from face and head
    • cardiorespiratory control
    • arousal, sleep/wake cycle
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12
Q

Describe the basic anatomy of the spinal cord

A
  • inner core of grey matter
  • outer layer of white matter
  • dorsal/posterior horn–> dorsal root (sensory axons)
  • ventral/anterior horn–> ventral root (motor axons)
  • intermediate zone
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13
Q

Where are the 2 important spinal cord enlargments located? and what is their significance?

A
  • enlarged and lower cervical and lumbar regions
  • to support limbs
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14
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate?

A

at L1/2

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15
Q

What is a dorsal root ganglia?

A
  • collection of neuronal cell bodies (in this case from sensory neurons)
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16
Q

Describe the structure of a DRG neuron

A
  • has branches to it
    • one branch in the peripheral nerve that detects the stimulus
    • one branch enters dorsal horn via dorsal root
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17
Q

Does a pheripheral nerve have sensory or motor input?

A

it has BOTH

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18
Q

What is a dermatome?

A
  • a region of the body innervated by a bilateral pair of DRG
  • note: dermatomes line up when you hunch over on all 4s like a quadraped
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19
Q

Describe the structure and function of ventricles

A
  • = hollow centre of the brain
  • two lateral
    • divided into anterior horn, body, lateral horn, inferior horn
  • one 3rd ventricle
  • one 4th ventricle
    • where CSF flows out
  • cerebral aqueduct
    • connnects 3rd to 4th ventricle
  • full of CSF
    • made from vascular choroid plexus
    • acts as a shock absorber
  • used as a landmark in CTs and MRIs
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20
Q

Describe the meningeal layers of the brain

A
  • they are the second level of defence for the brain following on from the skull
  • 3 layers
    • Dura Mater
      • thickest
      • outer layer
      • splits into 2
      • forms dural projections (flax, tentorium)
    • Arachnoid
      • fibrous
      • middle layer
      • contains arachnoid granulations that absorb CSF
    • Pia Mater
      • thinnest layer
      • inner layer
      • closely associated with the brain (stuck to it)
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21
Q

Describe the structure and function of the BBB

A
  • formed by endothelial cells of capillaries
  • lack pinocytic transfer function
  • have tight junctions
  • most transport is active
  • function= protects brain becuase neurons are highly sensitive to fluctuations in ion concentrations
  • the more lipid solubule a substance is the more likely it is able to cross the BBB
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22
Q

What are glial cells?

Name some examples

A
  • support cells
  • e.g.
    • astrocytes
    • oligodendrocytes
    • ependymal cells
    • satellite cells of the ganglia
  • they express glutamate transports to uptake circulating neurotransmitters in the synapse
  • they are excitable (increase intracellular Ca= calcium waves) by
    • neurostransitters (e,g ATP, glut)
    • trauma
    • spontaneous
    • inflammatory mediators
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23
Q

What is the function of ependymal cells?

A
  • they are low columnar or cuboidal epithelial cells that line the central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricle
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24
Q

What is the function of astrocytes?

A
  • neurotransmitter uptake and degradation (passive function)
  • K+ homeostasis (passive function)
  • neuronal E supply (passive function)
  • maintenance of BBB (passive function)
  • injury response and recovery (passive function)
  • modulation of neuronal function and BF (active function)
    • inhibits neurons by calcium waves because it–> ATP release from astrocytes
    • regulates BF bc they surrround vv
    • regulate vascular tone via Ca2+ waves
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25
What is the function of oligodendrocytes?
* function= myelinate axons in the **CNS** * there are lots of them in the white matter * each one extends its processes to wrap around parts of **several** axons * NB: diff to schwann cells which meylinate single axons in the PNS
26
What is the function of Schwann cells?
* myelinate axons in the **PNS** * one wraps around **one axon**
27
Describe the structure of peripheral nerves
* contains nerve fibres * composed of * axon * schwann cell * endoneurium * 1 or \> bundles/fasicles/nerve fibres * perineurium * epineurium
28
What cells does the term macroglial cells refer to?
* astrocytes * oligodendrocytes * schwann cells
29
What is the function of satellite cells of ganglia?
* support cells in ganglia
30
What is the function of microglia
* immune cell * resembles macrophages (has phagocytic function) * constantly surveying CNS * changes rapidly in response to inflammatory or injury * upregulates cytokines and GFs * has a role in development and disease * prunes synapses
31
What are the 2 types of ganglia?
sensory ganglia * house the cell bodies of sensory neurons e.g. DRG autonomic ganglia * house the cell bodies of post ganglionic neurons * both bontain cell bodies of neurons outside the CNS and satelite cells (support cells)
32
List some reasons for how neurons differ to other cells
* neurons are specialsed for signalling * morphologically distinct * actin, intermediate filaments, microtubules * electrically active * membrane contains Na, ATPase pumps, ion channels * rapid communication * long distance * specialised * high level of protein synthesis * metabolically limited * terminally differentiated * they don't divide with age
33
What are the 3 components that make up a neurons cytoskeleton? And what are their functions.
* actin * **dynamic** assembly/disassembly * allows shape changes and movement * e.g. spines and growth cones * intermediate filaments * in all processes * **permanent** * maintain the shape of the cell * changes in disease sates * microtubules * **dynamic** * composed of tubulin * **axon transport**
34
Describe 2 diseases where dopamine is involved but in different pathways
* parkinsons * movement disorder * depletion of DA in basal ganglia * schizophrenia * behavioural disorder * changes in DA rich areas in frontal cortex, basal ganglia and temporal lobe
35
Describe the extrapyramidal motor system organisation
36
Can a synapse be excitatory AND inhibitory?
No. A synapse can only be excitatory or inhibitory, not both!.
37
Can a neurotransmitter be excitatory and inhibitory?
yes some neurotransmitters are excitatory (glutamate) and some are inhibitory (GABA) and some are both (dopamine/serotonin) it depends on what receptor is present.
38
The cranium is divided into:
* Upper part of the cranium= cranial vault * Lower part of the cranium= cranial floor
39
Name the different sutures on the cranium
* Coronal suture * Frontal bone and parietal bones meet * Anteriorly * In the coronal plane * Sagittal suture * In sagittal plane * Where the 2 parietal bones unite * Lambdoid suture * Where the occipital and parietal bones unite * In coronal plane * Pterion suture * H shaped suture * Seen in lateral view * Frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bone unite * Bones are particularly thin here * Deep to it is the middle meningeal artery * Dangerous area to get a fracture here!
40
What are the 2 parts to the frontal bone?
* Vertical part * Forms the forrid * Horizontal part aka orbital plate * Supraorbital margins (top of the eye socket) there is a 90degree angle where the rest of the frontal bone projects backwards * Forms the roof of the orbit which is why its called the orbital plate
41
What are some characteristics of the Parietal bone?
* Flat and rectangular * Moulded to the shape of the brain * Anteriorly unites with frontal bone at coronal suture * Both parietal bones meet at the sagittal suture
42
What are some characteristics of the occipital bone?
* Relatively flat and moulded to the shape of the brain * Has a prominent bulge posteriorly called the external occipital protuberance (EOP)
43
What are some characteristics of the temporal bone?
Squamous part * Similar to the parietal bone * Flat, moulded to brain contour * Unites superiorly with the parietal bone * 3 processes come off it * Anterior projection= zygomatic process of the temporal bone * Articulates with the cheek bone/zygoma * *Depressed fracture of the cheek bone refers to a fracture of the zygomatic arch and process* * Posterior projection= Mastoid process of the temporal bone * Full of air cells (bone that isn’t solid but filled with air) * Projects inferiorly downwards * Gives rise to muscles in the neck e.g. sternocleidomastoid * Its relatively superficial * Styloid process * Deeply placed * Muscles associated with midline structures e.g. the tongue, pharynx * Sharp spike/point Another part of the temporal bone=petrous bone * Only see it when the cranial vault has been removed * Wedge/pyramidal shaped * Forming part of the cranial floor
44
What are some characteristics of the sphenoid bone?
* Very little can be seen of it on the external aspect of the brain * Looks like a bat with outstretched wings * Has a body * depression in it (where the pituitary gland sits) * Pair of outstretched wings with a split/fissure in them called the superior orbital fissure * Splits the wings into a lesser part anteriorly and a larger part called the greater wing posteriorly * 2 legs hanging down called the Pterygoid plates * Involved with muscles of mastication
45
Describe the 3 cranial fossa
* anterior cranial fossa * formed by horizontal plates of frontal bones and lesser wings of sphenoid * also has ethmoid bone that has the cribiform plate in it * middle cranial fossa * formed by greater wings of sphenoid anteriorly and petrous part of temporal bone posteriorly * posterior cranial fossa * formed by the occipital bones
46
What goes through the cribiform plate?
* olfactory nerve fibres
47
What is associated with the hypophysial fossa?
* (its in the body of the sphenoid) * the pituitary gland
48
What is associated with the optic canal?
* optic nerve * opthalamic artery
49
What is associated with the superior orbital fissure?
* nerves to extra-ocular muslces * branches of the trigemnial nerve
50
What is associated with the foramen rotundum
* maxillary nerve
51
What is associated with foramen ovale?
* Mandibular nerve
52
What is associated with foramen spinosum?
* middle meningeal artery
53
What is associated with the internal acoustic meatus?
* (Hole in the petruos part of the temporal bone) * (‘In the step itself’) * Facial nerve * vestibulocochlear nerve
54
What is associated with the jugular foramen?
* (Irregularly shaped) * (In the split between petrus part of the temporal bone and occipital bone) * CNs IX,X,XI * internal jugular vein
55
What is associated with the hypoglossal canal?
* (In the occipital bone) * (Seen better when the skull is turned upside down on the bottom outside surface of the skull) * Holds the hypoglossal nerve
56
What is associated with the foramen magnum?
the brain stem
57
Describe the dural partitions/projections
* Falx cerebri * Sickle shaped * Lies in the sagittal plane/in midline * Projects beneath the sagittal suture * Lodges between the right and left hemispheres but doesn’t go all of the way through * Tentorium cerebelli * Mostly Horizontal orientated (its tented) * Crescent shaped * Separates cerebral hemispheres above from cerebellum below * It’s a roof over the posterior cranial fossa * Falx cerebelli * Tiny * Seperates the cerebelli hemispheres * From behind * Diaphragm sellae * Roofs over the pit of the sphenoid where the pituitary sits
58
What are dural venous sinuses?
* Endothelial lines space containing venous blood where the outer and inner layer of dura has split * Collects venous blood from the brain (cerebral veins), diploe veins (drain spongy/middle table/component of skull bones), Emissary veins (from the scalp outside the skull through the outer plate of compact bone), Superior cerebral veins
59
Name the dural venous sinuses
* **superior sagittal sinus** * Extends from the falx cerebri anteriorly sticking up from the cribiform plate to posterior where it attaches to the internal aspect of the external occipital protubrence * Collects blood form the brain and some from the scalp * **Inferior sagittal sinus** * In the inferior aspect of the falx cerebri * **Straight sinus** * Where the inferior sagittal sinus gets to the point where the falx cerebri and the tentorium cerebelli and it mixes with the great cerebral vein to become straight * **Confluence of sinuses** * The superior sagittal sinus and straight sinus meet at the internal aspect of the EOP * **transverse sinus** * **sigmoid sinus** * At the edge of the middle cranial fossa (petrous part of the temporal bone) the transverse sinus then moves out in an S shaped bend =sigmoid sinus * then out the jugular foramen to now be called the **internal jugular vein** * **Cavernous sinus** * Pair of them * Sits on the lateral aspect of the body of the sphenoid * Receive blood from the cerebral, ophthalmic and emissory viens of the face * Structures that are heading for the superior orbital fissure lie underneath/through its lateral wall
60
Describe the meningeal artery supply
* There are many small meningeal arteries! * The middle meningeal artery is the largest and the most important * It’s a branch of the maxillary artery * external carotid artery--\> superficial temporal artery (goes to the temple) and the posterior auricular artery and the maxillary artery * middle meningeal artery enters the skull through the foramen spinosum then splits into an anterior and posterior branch that grooves the internal surface * anterior division runs directly to the pterion * middle meningeal artery lies in the extra-dural space often tears during trauma--\> bleeds quickly--\>blood pulses!--\>extradural haemorrhageà intracranial P rises quickly
61
Describe what happens in a fall especially in the elderly in relation to blood supply
* Commonly during a fall--\>tearing occurs where the cerebral veins enter the superior sagittal sinus--\>venous bleed into the subdural space--\>blood oozes! --\>clot can calcify and not be detected--\> no symptoms (and can be find later)--\>calcified clot can become an epileptic focus * cerebral veins draining into the superior sagittal sinus
62
Distinguish between general anaesthetics and local anaesthetics by commenting on sites of action, mechanism of action and name some compounds
Site of action * General anaesthetics act on the brain cortex (hence depresses cortical processing of pain, loss of consciousness) * Local anesthetics act on peripheral nerves (therefore they regulate pain pathways) Mechanism of action * General anaesthetics * lipid theory * anaesthesia is caused by volume expansion of membrane lipids and can be reveresed by pressure * receptor interaction theory * inhibition of excitatory receptors and enhancement of inhibitory receptors * Local anaesthetics * act on Na transmembrane channels * hydrophobic theory * fast * non use dependent (does NOT depend on firing of nerves) * non charged form of drug binds to channel * hydrophilic theory * slow * use dependent * non charged form crosses the membrane then reforms charged form and can bind when the channel opens * Examples * General anaesthetics * desflurane, sevofulrane, isoflurane * propofol, thiopentone * Local anaesthetics * procaine, lignocaine, bupivicaine, roprivicaine * tetrodotoxin, saxitoxin
63
Describe the toxicity of local anaesthetics
* generally safe * proportional to blood level * CVS effects * myocardial depression * depression of vasomotor centre * hypotension (except cocaine) * CNS effects * excitation * tremor * convulsion * resp arrest * not proportional to blood level * hyersensitivity/allergic rxns
64
Describe the topical application of local anaesthetics
* OTC * lozenges * sports gels * professional use only * eye drops for procedures * injections (lignocaine) for dysrhythmias
65
Name some examples of general anaesthetics
inhaled (to maintain you under) * desflurane * sevoflurane * isoflurane IV (to get you under quickly) * propofol * thiopentone Inhaled and IV are both LIQUIDS and they both AVOID 1ST PASS METABOLISM
66
Describe the toxicity/SEs of general anaesthetics
resp * impiared ventilation * depressed resp centre * obstruction of airways (retention of secretions bc of mucocillary escalator is inhibited) cvs * decreased vasomotor centre function * depressed contractility * peripheral vasodilation * cardiac arrhythmias * inadequate response to fall in BP or CO
67
What are some diseases that arise from failure of the neural fold to close?
* spina bifida * ancephaly
68
Describe the process of segmentation of the neural tube
* rostral end of neural tube starts to swell * forms 3 distinct vesicles * prosencephalon (forebrain) * mesencephalon (midbrain) * rhombencephalon (hindbrain) * prosencephalon splits into * telencephalon * diencephalon * Rhombencelphalon splits into 7 segments the rest is spinal cord * Rhombencephalon splits into * metencephalon (pons) * myeloencephalon (medulla)
69
What are some mature derivatives of the telencephalon?
* cortex * basal ganglia * hippocampus
70
What are some mature derivatives of the diencephalon?
* thalamus * hypothalamus
71
What is the function of neuroepithelium during development?
* neuroepithelium covers the neural tube * it adds layers to generate the cortex * all new neurons are born at the ventricular surface which contains stem cells
72
What are radial glia? and what is their purpose?
* cells attached to both surface * they are stem cells and can produce neurons * they act as railway tracks
73
What are some developmental disorders that affect the cortex and cause it to be malformed?
* reelin mutation (one of the guide molecules to guide neurons across the layers) * Lissencephaly (DCX mutation)
74
What is the most common cause of male autism?
fragile X syndrome
75
Describe the development of the spinal cord
* signalling molecules set up gradients that define topography * floor plate induces ventral horn motor neurons * interneurons appear just dorsal to motor neurons * axonal growth initially via pioneer axons * axon is towed by growth cone * growth is steered up the chemical gradient * refinement/pruning of synaptic connections
76
Describe the establishment of the visual system
* if you temporarily cover 1 eye shortly after birth in a kitten, 6 months later the eye is blind * everything is normal in the retina, the blindness is cortical and permament * the cortex is dominated by the eye that was open * closure at 6 weeks has no effect. therefore as long as you have the first 6 weeks of vision, closing the eye has no effect * therefore there is a critical period * BUT if both eyes are closed there is no ocular dominance column disruption therefore there is no competition for cortical space therefore they arent blind * the critical period for humans is 10 years!! Therefore if you interput vision during this period impairment can occur
77
Distinguish between the 4 types of mechanoreceptors in glabrous skin
* Meissner encode rate of force * Merkel encode grip force * Pacinian encode vibrations * Ruffini encode hand posture
78
Describe the different receptor field sizes of the 4 different mechanoreceptors
79
What axon fibre type are the mechanoreceptors?
* A deta type * with large myelinated axons * with cell bodies in the DRG * note its a single long axon from the periphery to the CNS. i.e. big toe axon has to travel a long distance
80
Describe what a receptor field and two point discrimination thershold is?
* the size of the receptor field determines whether you can detect the number of stimuli applied * Left hand side graph * big activation of b even though it is touching all 3 receptive fields, the brain detects there is only 1 point of contact * right hand side graph * a and c repond strongly because you have put the blue point right in the middle of its field. b has a weak amount of firing because its on its very edge of its receptive field. therefore the brain thinks there are 2 points of contact being applied
81
T/F. C1 spinal nerve has a sensory and motor output.
FALSE C1 only has a motor output
82
Briefly describe the medial lemniscal (dorsal column) pathway aka the main tactile mechanoreceptive pathway
* 3 neuron sequence to reach the somatosensory cortex * **decussation in the caudal medulla**
83
Briefly describe the spinothalamic tract pathway
* transmits pain, temp and touch * as it enters the spinal cord it immediately forms a connection with interneurons * crosses at the level of the spinal cord then ascends * note: motor neurons are ventral in the spinal cord. sensory neurons are dorsal
84
Where in the spinal cord are the axons that innervate distal muscles and proximal muscles?
* axons that innervate Distal muscles are lateral * axons that innervate proximal muscles are more medial
85
What is a motor pool and how is it different to a motor unit?
* motor pool= all the motor neurons in the spinal cord that innervates a particular muscle. * motor unit= all the muscles that one motor neuron controls/innervates
86
Describe the structure of a muscle spindle
* specialised sensory receptorsin the belly of a muscle * they detect changes in length of the muscle * sensory fibres= group I and II afferent axons wrap around muscles and have a surrounding CT sheath * muscle spindles lie in parallel with the muscle
87
Describe the structure of a golgi tendon organ
* sensory receptor organ * detects changes in muscle tension/the amount of force that is being applied to the muscle * sensory nerve enters and interdigitates with the CT of muscle tendons * the golgi tendon lies in series with the muscle
88
Describe what the monosynaptic stretch reflex is
* aka tendon jerk reflex/deep tendon reflex * the most simple reflex * you can do it anywhere there is a tendon * giving a tap to the tendon gives the muscle a bit of a stretch--\> activates stretch receptors/muscle spindle is lengthened--\> neuronal activity enters spinal cord--\> excitatory synapse at the end of the afferent fibre--\> synapses with and excites motor neuron--\> increaes rate of AP--\> muscle contracts * the spindle also activates an inhibitory interneuron which inhibits the antagonist motor neuron * NB muscle spindles are the only sensory organ that synapses directly with motor neurons * muscle spindles are low threshold and therefore dont need a lot of change in activity to actiavte them
89
Describe what needs to happen in this situation so the cup doesn't fall
90
What bones make up the orbit and its margins?
* supraorbital margin * formed by the frontal bone * can see the supraorbital notch * infrorbital margin * zygomatic bone * maxilla * roof of orbit * frontal bone * lesser wing of sphenoid * floor * maxilla * zygomatic * palatine * lateral wall * zygomatic * greater wing of sphenoid * medial wall * maxilla * lacrimal bone (*most commonly fractured)**​* * ethmoid *(most commonly fractured)​* * body of sphenoid
91
Describe the structure and function of the sclera
* forms 5/6th of the eyeball * forms part of the outer coat of the eyeball * maintains the shape of the globe * offers R to internal and external forces * provides attachment for the EOMs * made of collagen organised into whirls therefore quite strong
92
Describe the structure and function of the cornea?
* anterior 1/6th of the eye * forms part of the outer coat of the eye * refracting component * avascular and transparent * has 5 layers * its collagen fibrils are uniform in diam and run parallel to each other in lamellae. each lamellae lie at angles to each other therefore it is transparent
93
What is the anterior chambre angle? Describe its function, and its components
* its the junction between the iris and the cornea * its where the aqueous humour drains out of the eye * key structures in there * cornea * trabecular meshwork * canal of schlemm * ciliary body
94
Describe the structure and function of the uvea
* its made up of the iris, choroid and ciliary body * lies between the sclera and the cornea * its the middle coat of the eye ball * function= provides nutrition to the eyeball
95
What are some functions of the ciliary body?
* formation of aqueous humour (ciliary epithelium) * tethers lens (ciliary processes) * accomodation (ciliary muscle)
96
What is the aqueous humour?
* its the substance made form the ciliary epithelium of the ciliary body * its important for maintaining the health of the lens and cornea * it creats the IOP * it passes through the pupil and drains via the anterior chambre angle into the venous supply
97
Describe the process of accomodation
* it involves * ciliary muscle * innernated by parasymp NS * important for focussing * circular muscle * zonules(ligaments) that attach between the ciliary porcesses and the lens * when the ciliary muscle contracts, the lens becomes fat, this takes the P off the zonules therefore you can see up close objects * when the ciliary muscle relaxes the lens becomes taught and thin, this increases the P on the zonules and contracts them therefore you can see far away objects
98
What is presbyopia?
* the loss of accomodation that occurs with age * caused by a reduction in the flexibility of the lens capsule and zonules * note: the nerves are still ok!
99
What 2 muscles control the iris? (dilate and constrict the pupil)
* sphincter pupillae * constricts the pupil * innervated by parasymp * has circular fibres so when it contracts it constricts the pupil * dilator pupillae * dilates the pupil * innervated by symp * has radial fibres so when it contracts it pulls the pupil open and dilates it
100
Describe the structure and function of the choroid
* underneath the retina * its the 3 layers of blood vessels * supplies nutrients to the retina
101
Describe the structure of the retina
* optic nerve/optic disc * formed by the axons of the ganglion cells as they exit the retina to pass visual info to higher cortical areas * fovea/foveola=small dot in the macular * avascular * high density of cones * no rods * macular=surrounds the fovea * posterior pole * orra serrata= edge of the retina and the ciliary body
102
What is the lamina cribrosa?
* band of dense CT that goes across the optic nerve from one side of the retina to the other * sieve hole that transmits nerve fibres
103
Describe the blood supply to the orbit and to the retina
to the orbit * tributaries of the ophthalmic artery which is a branch of the internal carotid artery * central retinal artery (its the one you see when you look via an ophthalamscope) * ciliary arteries * long posterior ciliary artery * short posterior ciliary artery * anterior ciliary artery to the retina * dual blood supply * central retinal artery * supplies the inner retina * posterior ciliary artery * supplies the outer retina (photoreceptors)
104
What muscles control the eyelid?
* orbicularis oculi * depresses the upper lid (eyelid closes) * innervated by CNVII * levator palpebrae superiorsis * elevates upper lid (eyelid opens) * innervated by CNIII