Neurospine Flashcards
(100 cards)
A 65-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening gait instability over 4 weeks. She has 4/5 strength in bilateral iliopsoas, 3+ patellar tendon reflexes, and difficulty with tandem gait. MRI of the thoracic spine is depicted (Figure 1). Selective spinal angiography of the right T11 intercostal artery is shown in the early (Figure 2A) and delayed (Figure 2B) phases. What is the goal of surgery?
A. Decompression of the spinal cord via expansile duraplasty
B. Coagulate the abnormal dilated pial veins
C. Gross total resection of the nidus
D. Divide the arteriovenous connection at the nerve root sleeve
E. Sacrifice the feeding vessel to the anterior spinal artery
D. Divide the arteriovenous connection at the nerve root sleeve
Immediately after closing the osteotomy for correction of a thoracolumbar scoliosis, the intraoperative monitoring technician informs you that there has been a sudden > 50% decrease in amplitude on the motor evoked potentials. What is the first step in management?
A. Decrease inhalant anesthetic
B. Check MEP leads and connections
C. Reverse the osteotomy closure
D. Perform a wake-up test
E. Fluoroscopy to confirm pedicle screw position
C. Reverse the osteotomy closure
During a retroperitoneal approach to the lumbar spine, what structure runs along the medial aspect of the psoas muscle and lateral aspect of the spine?
A. Sympathetic trunk
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Genitofemoral nerve
D. Ureter
E. Aorta
A. Sympathetic trunk
The radiographic and magnetic resonance imaging findings at L2-L3 (shown in Figures 1-3) are most consistent with a diagnosis of:
A. Metastatic carcinoma
B. Chordoma
C. Degenerative disc disease
D. Discitis/osteomyelitis
E. Fracture
D. Discitis/osteomyelitis
During lateral osteophyte removal in an anterior decompressive discectomy, you encounter brisk bleeding in the region of the nerve root. What is the best next step?
A. Apply Gelfoam and pressure
B. Call interventional radiology
C. Order blood for transfusion
D. Explore the vertebral artery
E. Abort the procedure
A. Apply Gelfoam and pressure
What is the definitive treatment of atlanto-occipital dislocation (AOD)?
A. Cervical traction
B. Halo vest immobilization
C. Observation with serial radiographs
D. Rigid cranio-cervico-thoracic orthosis
E. Cranio-cervical internal fixation and fusion
E. Cranio-cervical internal fixation and fusion
What proportion of pediatric patients who undergo temporal lobectomy for intractable epilepsy have a favorable outcome (seizure freedom or substantial decrease in seizure frequency)?
A. 35-50%
B. 65-80%
C. 50-65%
D. 80-95%
B. 65-80%
A 60-year-old man presents with 3 months of worsening diffuse severe unremitting left upper extremity pain, paresthesias, and hand weakness. Exam shows 4/5 weakness of hand muscles including abductor pollicis brevis and all intrinsics, scattered sensory loss on the ulnar side of the forearm, normal deep tendon reflexes, and no evidence of myelopathy. MRI of the cervical spine shows mild degenerative changes throughout the neck. What imaging study would assist in the diagnosis?
A. Thermogram
B. Scoliosis survey
C. Chest CT
D. Bone scan
E. Cervical spine flexion-extension x-rays
C. Chest CT
A 56-year-old man presents with rheumatoid arthritis and a several-month history of progressively severe neck pain, numbness in all four extremities, and gait disturbance. Cervical MRI reveals myelomalacia at C1-2. Dynamic radiographs reveal an atlanto-dental interval of 3mm in extension and 12mm in flexion. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate surgical intervention?
A. C2-3 lateral mass fixation
B. C1-2 fixation
C. Posterior C1 ring resection
D. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
E. Transoral odontoid resection
B. C1-2 fixation
A patient presents with a classic type II odontoid fracture. A magnetic resonance image and flexion-extension dynamic radiographs of the cervical spine are consistent with disruption of the transverse ligament. The MOST appropriate treatment is:
A. Halo immobilization
B. Posterior C1-C2 fixation
C. Occipital-cervical fusion
D. Anterior odontoid screw fixation
E. Hard cervical collar
B. Posterior C1-C2 fixation
A 47-year-old woman underwent a C5-6 ACDF via a left-sided approach. Postoperatively, she has a weak, drooping eyelid and a constricted pupil. What technique reduces the risk of this complication?
A. Minimize excessive traction on the shoulders when positioning
B. Perform surgical approach from the patient’s right side
C. Place retractors under the medial edge of the longus coli muscles during periosteal dissection
D. Minimize distraction of the vertebral bodies
E. Deflate and re-inflate the endotracheal balloon after retractor placement
C. Place retractors under the medial edge of the longus coli muscles during periosteal dissection
A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with fever, back pain, and <24 hours of acute onset 2/5 motor weakness in the lower extremities. Thoracic MRI (Figure 1) and CT (Figure 2) imaging is performed. What is the most appropriate management for this patient’s acute neurologic deficits?
A. Kyphoplasty
B. Corpectomy and instrumented fusion
C. Antibiotic therapy and external orthosis
D. Percutaneous aspiration
E. Thoracic laminectomy
B. Corpectomy and instrumented fusion
A 46-year-old IV drug abuser presents with a 2-week history of fever and progressive low back pain. He is neurologically intact. MRI reveals increased T2 signal in the L3-4 disc space with endplate destruction without an appreciable fluid collection. There is no evidence of instability or segmental kyphosis. Blood cultures are negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Anterior discectomy and interbody fusion
B. Empiric antibiotics
C. Needle biopsy of disc space
D. Laminectomy for surgical debridement
E. Posterior instrumentation and fusion without laminectomy
C. Needle biopsy of disc space
A 50-year-old male has cervical myelopathy. Imaging shows cervical disc osteophyte complexes at C4-5, C5-6, and C6-7 with severe canal stenosis at these levels and cord signal. Standing x-rays show mild kyphosis of the cervical spine centered at C5-6. Which surgical approach would most likely result in a worsening clinical picture post-operatively?
A. C5 and C6 corpectomies, C4-C7 anterior reconstruction and fusion with cage and plating, with supplemental posterior instrumented fusion from C4-C7
B. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion at C4-5, C5-6, C6-7
C. C5 and C6 corpectomies and C4-C7 anterior reconstruction and fusion with cage and plating
D. C4-C6 laminectomies and C4-C7 posterior instrumented fusion/fixation
E. C4-C6 laminectomies and decompression
D. C4-C6 laminectomies and C4-C7 posterior instrumented fusion/fixation
A 56-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of progressive lower extremity numbness, paresthesias, weakness, and spastic gait. MRI and CT Myelogram of the thoracic spine is shown (Figure 1 & 2). What is the most appropriate treatment option?
A. Thoracic laminectomy and posterior fusion
B. Thoracotomy for thoracic discectomy
C. Intradural exploration and detethering of ventral spinal cord
D. Observation and physical therapy
E. Fenestration of dorsal arachnoid cyst
C. Intradural exploration and detethering of ventral spinal cord
A 12-year-old with Down syndrome has abnormal flexion-extension cervical spine x-rays. The child has no significant neurologic complaints or neck pain. On exam, the child has full range of motion and no tenderness to palpation. The flexion-extension x-rays show a 7-8 mm atlantodental interval in flexion, which reduces to 4 mm in extension. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Observation with no repeat imaging necessary
B. C1-2 wiring with halo placement and autologous fusion
C. Observation with repeat flexion-extension in the future
D. C1-2 transarticular screw placement and autologous fusion
E. Occipital cervical fusion with sublaminar wires
C. Observation with repeat flexion-extension in the future
A 50-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of low back pain radiating down the postero-lateral thigh, lateral shin, dorsum of the foot, and great toe on the right side. His neurologic exam is intact except for a (+) right straight leg raise at 30 degrees and 4-/5 EHL strength on the right. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. L5-S1 paracentral disc herniation
B. L3-4 central disc herniation
C. L4-L5 far lateral disc herniation
D. L3-L4 paracentral disc herniation
E. L5-S1 foraminal disc herniation
E. L5-S1 foraminal disc herniation
You are seeing a patient with left leg pain and foraminal stenosis at four lumbar levels on the left side. You are considering decompressive surgery but want to identify the symptomatic level(s) prior to operating. Which procedure would be best suited to identify the nerve root(s) responsible for the pain?
A. Interlaminar epidural steroid injection
B. Sacroiliac joint injection
C. Facet joint injection
D. Selective nerve root block
E. Provocative discography
D. Selective nerve root block
A 28-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe low back and right leg pain after an injury while working as a carpenter the previous day. He denies weakness, numbness, gait, or bowel/bladder disturbance. Examination reveals trace weakness of dorsiflexion on the right associated with pain. What is the best initial management strategy for this patient?
A. Seven-day course of bed rest
B. Posterior lumbar interbody fusion
C. Epidural steroid injection
D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
E. Lumbar discectomy
D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
For which spinal disorder are children of mothers with diabetes mellitus at risk?
A. Intraspinal lipomas
B. Spinal dysraphism
C. Sacral agenesis
D. Meningocele manque
E. Thoracic hemivertebrae
C. Sacral agenesis
A 71-year-old man with cervical myelopathy underwent C4-6 laminoplasty. On postoperative day 2, he develops deltoid and biceps 3/5 weakness and sensory loss in a C5 dermatomal pattern. Postoperative CT and MRI are unremarkable. What is the most likely outcome?
A. Complete resolution of motor and sensory deficit
B. Chronic C5 neuropathic pain
C. Recovery of sensory function but permanent motor deficit
D. Recovery of motor function but permanent sensory deficit
E. Permanent motor and sensory deficit
A. Complete resolution of motor and sensory deficit
A 51-year-old woman presents to the ED with a subcutaneous fluid collection in the lumbar area two days after undergoing a redo L4-5 laminectomy/discectomy at another institution. She is afebrile and has no neurological deficits but complains of a headache when she sits up or stands. What is the most likely etiology of her fluid collection?
A. Wound seroma
B. Cerebrospinal fluid leak
C. Wound infection
D. Subcutaneous foreign body
E. Wound hematoma
B. Cerebrospinal fluid leak
What radiographic finding is most commonly associated with Chiari I malformations?
A. Spina bifida
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Scoliosis
D. Syringomyelia
E. “Pigeon breast” deformity of the brainstem
D. Syringomyelia
What lateral plain film measurements of the cervical spine are used to make the diagnosis of atlanto-occipital dislocation (AOD)?
A. Combined C1 lateral mass displacement
B. Atlanto-dens interval
C. Basion-posterior axial line and basion-dens interval
D. Chamberlain’s line
E. McGregor’s line
C. Basion-posterior axial line and basion-dens interval