Nevrous System Flashcards

1
Q

Carbamazepine therapeutic range

A

10-20mg/L or 40-80 micromol/L

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2
Q

What types of seizures does carbamazepine exacerbate

A

Atonic, clonic and myoclonic

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3
Q

Signs of carbamazepine toxicity (I Handbag)

A
In coordination
Hyponatraemia
Ataxia
Nystamus- uncontrolled eye movements
Drowsiness
Blurred vision and double vision
Arrhythmias
Gastrointestinal disturbance
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4
Q

Carbamazepine side effects

A

Leucopenia or thrombocytopenia
Hepatotoxicity
Hypersensitivity- anti epileptic syndrome
Rashes- Han Chinese and Thai patient are at increased risk of Steven Johnson syndrome

Hyponatraemia

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5
Q

How can you reduce some side effects of carbamazepine

A

Use MR preparations

Side effects: headache, ataxia, jazziness, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, unsteadiness and allergic skin reactions

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6
Q

What drugs reduce seizure threshold with carbamazepine

A

Quinolones SSRIs antipsychotics, TCAs and related antidepressants

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7
Q

What drugs increase the risk of hepatotoxicity with carbamazepine

A

Tetracyclines sulphasalazine sodium valproate, methotrexate iron aside statins fluconazole and alcohol

Think what drugs affect the liver

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8
Q

What is the dose of citalopram in the elderly?

A

Max 20mg

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9
Q

What should you consider adding to citalopram

A

PPI as there is an increased risk of bleeding

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10
Q

When should a drug sample to check lithium is in range after initation

A

12 hours after first dose

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11
Q

Elderly patient comes in with a shaky tongue. What drug do you think it could be due to

Morphine
Furosemide
Haloperidol
Ramipril

A

Haleperiodol is a first gen antipsychotic

Thats are most likely to cause eps

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12
Q

Which medication is QT interval prolongation not a concern

Haloperidol
Citalopram
Alteplase
Sotalol
Amiodarone
A

Alteplase

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13
Q

Patient is due risperidone depot and has the following: muscle rigidity, tachycardia, sweating all day, times that they lose conciousness. What should you do?

Reduce dose
Stop medicine
Switch to oral
Continue but monitor

A

Stop
May have neuroleptic malignant syndrome which is fatal
May last 5-7 days after stopping oral but longer after stopping depot

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14
Q

Which of the following antipsychotic side effects are irreversible?

A. Tremors
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Dystonia
D. Akthsia

A

B. Tardive dyskinesia

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15
Q

A patient has been experiencing tremors, tongue wagging and a twitch in their check and they are on haloperidol? Which should you switch to?
Olanzapine, prochloperazine, flupentixol or citalopram

A

Olanzapine- 2nd gen are less likely to cause EPSEs

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16
Q
How often should FBCs be monitored for a patient taking quetiapine?
3 monthly
6 monthly
Yearly
At the start only
17
Q
Which of the following do not need to be monitored in patients taking antipyschotics?
Blood pressure
Lipids
Weight
ECG
TSH
18
Q
A patient is taking olanzapine which of the following medication is appropriate to prescribe the patient?
Ciprofloxacin
Ramipril
Metoclopramide
Domperidone
Citalopram
A

Domperidone
Assess clinical need but SSRIs, metoclopramide and SSRIs interact
SSRIs- prolong QT
Metoclopramide- EPS

19
Q

A patient is unhappy because they have being gaining weight they are taking the following…
Metformin
Glizide
Quetiapine

A

Metformin is weight neutral

20
Q

A patient has been taking clozapine for 32 weeks how often are they going in clozapine monitoring?

A

2 weekly

Every week for 18 weeks, then fortnightly up to one year then monthly

21
Q

A patient asks you for Senna as they have not open their bowels for 3 days. You ask and found out that they are on paracetamol, clozapine and cyclizine. What should you do?

A

Tell them to get medical attention asap as faecal impaction can be a fatal side effect from clozapine

22
Q
A 82 year old is starting on olanzapine and the doctor wants some advise on the starting dose. Which one should it be?
5mg
10mg
15mg
20mg
A

5mg as elderly patients should be started on half or lower than the usual dose. 20mg is the max dose dose. 10mg is the typically starting dose.

23
Q

Which of the following are most likely to cause hyperprolactinemia?
Amisulpride
Aripiprazole
Quetiapine

A

Amisulpride as does risperidone

Apripiprazole does not cause this side effect

24
Q

Patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting and can not swallow. They can not have medicines rectally. What would you give?

A

Prochlorperazine can be given as a buccal tablet

25
What are the contraindications of codeine? (3)
Ultra rapid metabolisers of CYP2D6 Kids that have undergone tonsils removal or adenoids for obstructive sleep aponea Kids with breathing problems
26
Which of the following routes can codeine not be given? IM PO IV
IV as it can cause a severe reaction
27
``` Which of the following can tramadol be given with? Warfarin Amitriptyline Citalopram Phenytoin Ramipril ```
Tramadol increases bleeding risk so not with warfarin it lowers seizure threshold Used with serotonergic drugs, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome
28
Which of these are less likely to cause GI effects? ``` Morphine Fentanyl Tapentadol Oxycodone Methadone ```
Tapentadol
29
``` Which of these are used for analgesia in labour? Pethidine Morphine Diamorphine Codeine ```
Pethidine Morphine and diamorphine is used for obstetric pain
30
A mother is breastfeeding and has a prescription for tramadol 50mg. What should you do?
Ask for an alternative like paracetamol or NSAID. Tramadol is not recommended for breastfeeding mums
31
What age range is sumatriptan indicated for OTC?
18-65