New ole 2022 Flashcards
(249 cards)
1
Q
And a cat three approach to continue blow a H what conditions must be met.
A
No auto throttle faults.
Triple or land 3 must be displayed on the flight mode annunciation.
2
Q
Where is theDoD flight information publication (flip )DVD stored on the aircraft.
A
Storage compartment on the first Officer side wall consul right side of flight deck.
3
Q
Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF.
A
Yes the meter must show that the weather is at or above minimums and a reasonable trade shows that the weather will remain so
4
Q
The first officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation ATIS is reporting the Vizza Bility as 1100 m what must be considered
A
Auto brakes three or greater must be used.
the first officer may not conduct the approach and Landing.
5
Q
If the Director of operation delegates the functions of initiating continuing diverting and terminating flights to flight following personnel does flight bowling also bear responsibility for those functions
A
The Director of operations shall not delegate responsibility for those functions
6
Q
What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of the trip
A
Aircraft loading checklist weight and balance form all receipts ,and ,invoices fuel ticket receipts aircraft logbook pages yellow and pink engine monitoring data form flight release and flightplan hazmat form ground security
7
Q
Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what four factors
A
Destination fuel
alternate fuel
additional fuel
and reserve fuel
8
Q
What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under Terps criteria with no gradient is specified
A
200 ft. per nautical mile
9
Q
When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff which three weight limits must be considered
A
The captain must determine that the weight of the aircraft is it at the start of the takeoff roll is at or below all the following weights .
maximum structural takeoff gross weight
the TOGW limit for takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff .
TOGW, considering the anticipated feel burned before landing which will permit a landing at or below maximum landing gross weight
10
Q
When is a new TLR required prior to departure
A
The TLR is void when the actual QNH is more than .10 below the planned QNH.
The TLR is void when the actual OAT is greater than the maximum temperature for the takeoff runway.
The TLR is void when the actual OA tea is more than 10° less than the planed oat.
The TLR is void when the actual takeoff weight is greater than the weight listed in the PTOW plus table.
The TLR is void when the actual takeoff weight is more than 10,000 pounds below the plan takeoff weight.
The TLR is void when a performance limiting MEL exist that is not shown in the remarks section.
11
Q
When requesting your live calculation what ,must be provided to flight following
A
Desired runway runway surface condition ATIS,ZFW, fuel on board ,takeoff gross weight CG
12
Q
Your TLR has a notation slushlevel two in the remarks section what depth of slush has been planned by the flight Following.
A
More than 1/8 inch up to 1/4 inch
13
Q
After entering the thrust limit from the arrow data there are dashed lines present on the takeoff page what do you do
A
The presence of the dashes in place of reference speeds in the CDU is indication that the FMS cannot generate speeds for the entered thrust limit ZFW and flop settings all data entries should stop in the crew reconfirm all performance data entries
14
Q
Who may perform the exterior safety check
A
The FO will complex the exterior safety check however the IRP may accomplish the check if the crew member arrives separately the first crew member at the aircraft will complete the extreme safety check and establish electric power if not already established
15
Q
When is the exterior safety check accomplished
A
Exterior safety check is performed on every flight before entering the airplane to ascertain that no obvious unsafe conditions exist
16
Q
What is the maximum MIS alignment permitted on the pylon alignments drape when conducting the exterior inspection
A
The maximum misalignment is 1/2 of the stripe
17
Q
What is the minimum amount of break we’re pin that can be visible when conducting the exterior inspection
A
Checking the brake wear pens is not part of the exterior inspection
18
Q
When conducting an exterior inspection once the flashlight be carried during daylight
A
Yes
19
Q
For DHL flights who assumes responsibility for accomplishing final walk around
A
The loadmaster shall soon responsibly for accomplishing the final walk around to ensure that all cargo doors are closed and secured and no damage around the cargo area which may have been caused by loaders and may not have been visible when the IRP did his walk around inspection
20
Q
What are the memorandums for engine fire on ground
A
Fuel control switch affected engine cut off.
Note,Warning do not proceed until engine shut down has occurred if the engine indication persist after shut down.
Engine fire switch affected engine pull.
Engine fire which affected engine rotate.
After momentarily delay…..
Engine first which affected engine rotate to the other bottle
21
Q
What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight.
A
PW only contains ignition switches on
Fuel control switch affected engine confirm cut off then run.
EGT monitor if EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff limit EGT limit repeat step two as necessary.
22
Q
You have arrived and stand broken breaker set engines 12 and three are shut down engine for is running as he waits for connection of ground power suddenly the Marshall gives you a signal for a fire on engine four with no master fire warning illuminated what recall items should be accomplished.
A
Fuel control switch affected engine cut off.
23
Q
A hung start occurred after starter cut out as indicated by the engine filling to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel controls which place to run what recalling should be accomplished
A
Fuel control switch affected engine cut off
24
Q
An engine has failed in flight N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated but Eicas message engine one fail appears what recall items should be accomplished.
A
None there are no recall items associated with engine failure the appropriate QR it should be called for by the PF
25
What are the memorandums for EICAS message ENG 1 auto start.
Fuel control switch affected engine cut off
26
What are the memorandums for engine limit surge stalled condition
Thrust lever affected engine retard.
27
What are the memory items for the EICAS message fire main deck
O2 mask don
| Establish communication
28
What are the memory items for the message fire main deck.
Don O2 mask
| Establish communications.
29
What are the memory items for EICAS message cabin altitude
Don oxygen mask
| establish crew communications
30
What are the memorandums for EICAS message fire wheel well
When extending or retracting the landing gear do not exceed the gear extend speed 270K/.8 2M Landing gear lever down.
31
Who is responsible for notifying the FAA with a PIC utilizes his emergency authority
Director of operations
32
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency
Pan pan pan pan
33
What is the radio phrase to indicate condition of distress
mayday Mayday
34
What are the indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight
No the smoky or accurate order that smells like electric smoke burnt dust sulfur
See he’s developed within the airplane dust on the surface
Decreased or erratic fluctuations of airspeed experience changes in cabin pressure including loss of cabin pressure
see a phenomenon similar to Saint Elmo‘s fire
or a glow landing lights will cast sharp distinct shadows
35
What was the person consider before using a halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area
PBE must be donned prior to discharging fire halon extinguisher in a confined space
36
What is the time of useful consciousness at 35,000 feet without using supplemental O2
30 to 60 seconds
37
What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing
Aircraft weight and rate of descent at touchdown
38
Should supernumerary O2 be deployed for smoke in the cabin
No unless the cabin altitude is greater than 14,000 feet
39
You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30 day. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30 day.
100
40
To whom can the Director of operations delegate his responsibility for initiation operation diversion and termination of a flight
He cannot delegate his responsibility
41
When operating outside of the United States international civil aviation organization I see a O standard procedures apply except where the country files a statement of differences with the I CAO where can these differences be found
These differences are found in the jobs airway manuals knowing these differences is only useful if the standard is known the country with the largest number of differences is probably the US the consequences of applying US standards outside of the US can be fatal and will at the very least cost frustration
42
What Are B-44 fuel requirements.
Fly to and land at the airport to which it is released there after to fly for. 10% of the total time from the point of re-release to the airport to which it is released there after to fly in line at the most distant alternate specified in the release in there after to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 feet above the alternate airport on your standard temperature conditions
43
What are the 43 fuel requirements
To fly and land at airport which is released thereafter to fly for a period of 10% of the portion of the en route time between the departure airport and airport which it is released where the aircraft position cannot be reliably fixed at least once each our classroom navigation area thereafter to fly in line at the most distant alternate specified in the flight release and there after for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
44
May flight be released under the rules for no suitable alternate if there is alternate available within two hours that is usable because of weather forecast
No clutter air does not utilize the fuel provision if your one to one decimal 645C
45
B 43 and B 44 what deviations from the flight plan must be reported to the following
Any time the ETA at the destinations exceeds 15 minutes Jan the flight plan GTA or the cruise out to varies by 4000 feet or more from the flight plan or the airplane deviates more than 100 nautical miles from the flight plan in route
46
When are you considered established on course
Establishes considered being within half full scale deflection for the ILS and VOR or within plus or +-5 of the required bearing for the NDB.
47
Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country
Pic
48
Where can the entry requirements required permits customs and immigration procedures etc. for a particular host country be found
Jeffps airway manual (pubs /Europe airway )manual (for Europe )/entry requirements
49
When do you need a permit to proceed
The permit proceed is used by US customer Fishel’s too loud aircraft to text stop for crew fuel etc. at US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry the detail entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination
50
How was the flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country
Jeffs airway manual jet jet pubs Europe general airway manual air traffic control flight procedures holding procedures dock 8168
51
When operating outside US in cleared to a point with no routing specified what action must be taken by the flight crew
Caution when uncleared to any point with no routing specified ,clarify the routing or if cleared direct use specific phraseology indicating cleared present position direct to_______
52
When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of class to segments what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights
For all class to segments of flight verify that the computer flightplan coordinates agree with the actual coordinates from Jepson Highlow charts or the nat track message as appropriate
53
There’s three examples of observed or encountered phenomenon requiring a special air report to ATC.
- moderate turbulence
- severe turbulence modernizing severe icing
- severe mountain wave
- thunderstorms with or without hail heavy dust or sand storm
- Volcanic ash cloud and or pre-eruption volcanic activity or volcanic eruption
54
When would you not use CMV
When reported RVR is available
For calculating takeoff minima for calculating takeoff minima
For other RV are minima less than 800 m
55
What does the term NOSIG mean when found in a meter
No significant change for the next two hours
56
Can a flight be released based on a metar
Yes when the weather conditions forecast in the TAF prevent the release of a flight but the METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above minimums required the flight must be coordinated with flight following to ensure the takeoff approach in Lannen can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next normal scheduled METAR report.
57
You’re unable to see the required visual cues at a decision on an approach are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate
No as with any listed alternate the destinations alternate is just a planning exercise to ensure that you have available fuel to divert to a suitable airport
58
You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of Track what do you do
Turn at least 30° off-track maintain your altitude within 5 miles south of Trac then climb to 300 feet of your signed cruise level.SAND =south of Asend,north descend.
59
You are unable to maintain your healthy while in oceanic or space and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude what do you do
Turn at least 30° off track
Turn on all available lighting
Broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45
Maintain altitude as long as possible to five nautical mile Officer maintain altitude as long as possible tofive nautical mile Offset.
Select engine out on the FMS cruise pageBay Beach when the status on your off set track maintain an O2 that is vertically offset by 500 feet from normal levels.
Watch your TCAS in if possible keep your eyes outside for other aircrafT.
Squawk 7700 try to talk to ATC via voice or CPDLC and Claire a pan pan pan or mayday.
60
You were at your release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your release when dispatched under the 44 what
Divert to your release airport intermediate airport after coordinating with ATC.
61
In the event he missed approach is an issue prior to arriving at the best approach for what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering
It is expected that the pilot will normally proceed to missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to maintain within the protected airspace this does not preclude flying over MAP and a note to higher then that required by the procedure.
62
Unless otherwise listed on the chart the maximum speed for IFR training departure is _____with a minimum bank angle of_____.
Purchase are we protected for the turn radius of 299s or less with a minimum bank and go on 15°
63
Whenever clearances received in route during non-radar operations what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew
The flight crew shall write down the clearance on the flight plan along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency when you reroute is necessary the flight crew shall clearly cross out the old waypoints and enter the new way points in their place.
64
Certain locations in the world have been identified by I 88 has having less than reliable air traffic control services is there any additional procedure required
The IATA in-flight broadcast procedures should be followed at each mandatory reporting point.
65
Describe the check required after passing a waypoint class to aerospace what is being determined by this check.
Proximately 10 minutes after passing Beachway point steering LRN unit position should be planted and all LRN units chat against each other to insure your no significant deviation proximately 10 minutes after passing Beachway point steering LRN unit position should be planted and all LRN units chat against each other to insure your no significant deviation.
Record the time UTC
Verify on course tracking.
The check is designed to ensure that the proper coordinates are inserted in the next position that the aircraft is tracking to that position the check does not verify the aircraft is in the proper position.
.
.
66
In several areas such as over Andes in South America the NBA’s for en route savings may be well above the Internet capabilities of the particular aircraft and wait is Kalitta air authorize to traverse such route if so are there any special provisions that must be met explain.
The aircraft must be capable of meeting obstacle clearance requirements along a particular route with an engine in operative if diversions procedures or escape routes are not available or defined these routes should not be flown unless weights are reduced to allow compliance with general obstruction clearance criteria as described in the GOM 6–41FAR121 .191 , far 121.193.
67
Off-line and last of all. After receiving a direct via off their way routing what Elton should be considered on the route chart to ensure obstacle clearance required can be met what type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford.
In such instances special attention must be paid to the grid minimum off route altitude MORA grid MOR A’s provide a minimum of 1000 feet obstacle clearance or 2000 feet in mountain terrain.
68
What is the engine so your procedure at VMC if an engine fails after the
In VMC you must fly the runway heading to thousand feet then maneuver as necessary unless a special engine failure procedure dictates otherwise.
69
Often the transition level is shown on jobs approach charts as by ATC although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances often they do not what are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through the transition level
The flight crew may know they have been cleared through the transition level (descending) when clear to maintain an altitude instead of flight level. additionally ,a flight should be given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level.
70
When conducting a curse reversal procedure outside of the United States what must be done to assure obstruction clearance
Unlike the United States were a holding pattern can be used as a course reversal the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted unlike the United States were a holding pattern can be used as a course reversal the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted.
71
Generally speaking to which Altons should now to correction procedure of GOM chapter 6 be applied . What altitudes should not be corrected.
Apply corrections to all published minimum,enroute and approach altitudes according to the GOM chapter 6.
ATC assign altitudes or flight levels should not be adjusted for temperature
72
Cording to chapter 6 of the GOM what are some of the effects of operating at the higher end of normal TrueSpeed associate with high-altitude airport operations.
Greater turn radius
Higher takeoff and landing speeds
Potential for hot brakes
Missed approach climb capability problems
Aircraft may seam fast visually
Higher rate of descent (near the GPWS sync rate warning activation).
Pressurization scheduling may differ from normal .
73
What is the minimum fuel temperature in what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit
3° see above the fuel freeze point
Increased aircraft airspeed change in altitude or deviate to warmer air mass or all three to achieve a TAT equal to or higher fuel temp limit
74
How do you identify the fuel freeze point for the type of fuel being used
Consult of feel free stable in chapter L or the QRH chapter 12.
75
Describe the I CAO ground handling signal for brick fire.
Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire
76
If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating the constant listening watch.
Verify proper selcal code
Verify selcal VHF/HF selectors are set to HF.
Verify that HF squelch is set to min or off.
Verify the HF gain set to max or Incr and
Request new test.
77
In regards to communicating with controller outside of the US was for recommendations should be used by crewmembers in order to avoid miscommunication
Proper ICAO phraseology
Speaking slowly and clearly
Anticipating controller on fixes and routes ,Sid’s
Ask acm’s other crewmen for help or understanding
Practice sterile cockpit from decent to parking.
78
Death receipt of a conditional clearance the PNF should
Print the ATC uplink page and place the print out we’re both pilots can see it and told the clearance has been complied with
Leave the ATC appoint page displayed until the clearance has been complied with
79
What is the correct response to a cleared route clearance uplink
Send a standby download message
Print the uplink message
After review of the message accept or reject the clearance
If accepted, load Fms
80
Except on the north Atlantic what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADSC
Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADSC services
81
Under what condition would you select A.DS off.
Unless ATC has requested you to select it off it is Kalitta air policy not to select ADS off.
82
When reporting by a DSC only can flight crews remove noncompulsory ATC waypoints
Although physically possible it is not permitted
83
What does ADSB stand for.
Automatic dependent surveillance broadcast
84
How do you turn ADSB off
Select the transponder to standby.
85
What must supernumeraries be briefed on and who must brief them.
Supernumeraries must be briefed by flight crew member on use of cabin emergency equipment and emergency scape provisions.
86
What will cause the main deck signaling system to activate automatically
Depressurization event
| main deck cargo smoke/fire.
87
What must supernumeraries do prior to entering the main deck.
Carry a portable oxygen bottle with a smoke combat mask
Notify the operating crew
88
What is indicated by the EICAS message ,EM ER lights.
The emergency light switch is not armed .
The emergency light switch is armed and the lights have activated.
89
What are the wind limits when operating the main cargo door
Door operating 40kts.
| Door open 65kts
90
When do the no smoking in fasten seatbelt sign is automatically illuminate regardless of switch positions
When O2 is on.
91
What is the maximum differential pressure (relief valve )takeoff and landing.
9. 4psi
| 0. 11psi
92
The aft cargo heat switch temp legend is illuminated is the aft cargo heat available
Yes it will cycle at a higher temperature
93
Turn the app you provide bleed air in flight if so to what altitude
Yes for one pack up to 15,000 feet
94
What will cause an engine bleed air system fault light to illuminate
Bleed overheat
bleed overpressure
HP bleed open when commanded close
PRV open when command close
95
What will cause the cabin altitude indicator on the primary EICAS to turn amber
Cabin altitude in the caution range
96
The LLCAFR switch is in forward low and the customer has requested a temperature of 4° C to 8° C for perishable cargo what is the condition of the equipment cooling system
Closed loop
97
What systems are available with the engine blade valve closed and no fault is detected
Engine reversing
Nacelle anti ice.
98
Under what condition may the number one or number two window heat be an operative
Provided operation is not predicated on flights and known-or forecast icing conditions
Windshield air anti-fogging system is operative and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative.
99
While in flight the cell anti-ice must be on when.
When icing conditions are anticipated except OAT is below-40c
With a TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture is in any form is present such as clouds fog visibly of 1 mile or less rain sleet ice crystals
Prior to reducing thrust when TAT is 10C or below invisible moisture in any form is present even when OAT is below minus 40C
100
While in flight wing anti-ice must be on when?
In-flight when in icing conditions ice is actually accumulating in the leading edge flaps are not extended
When the TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form his presence such as clouds fog with visibility is 1 mile or less ,the leading edge flaps are not extended and the aircraft is below 22,000 feet
101
Where is the windshield washer reservoir located
In the left side wall behind the captain seat
102
When are the 4 pitot static probes heated.
When any engine is operating
103
Are the TAT probes heated ?when?
Yes ,in-flight only
104
When can the auto pilot be engaged after takeoff
Not below a minimum engage altitude of 400 feet
105
Vina have his arm for takeoff ,at 400 AFE ,the autothrottle mode changes to THR REF. what changes occur to the N1 indicators on the primary EICAS.
The reference N1 line changes from green to magenta.
106
With a pitch mode is VNAV PTH, what changes will occur to the autothrottle and pitch modes when speed intervene is selected with the legacy FMC? With NG FMC?
Legacy SMC will change the pitch mode to VNAV SPD and auto throttle will go to Idle then hold.
NG FMC will remain in the NAV PTH and SPD
107
Will aileron trim operate with an auto pilot engaged
Yes, but it is prohibited
108
What are the minimum and maximum glideslope angles
2.5 and 3.25 degrees
109
What will occur in cruise flight with an auto pilot engaged and the PM inadvertently touches the trim switch instead of the push to talk switch
The auto pilot will disengage
110
When using FLCH SPD as the pitch mode on takeoff the (NAV did not capture )it is necessary to push the THR button to select climb thrust.
No. The change will occur at the specific point (flaps or altitude) programmed on the Takeoff page of the FMC.
111
If the NAV is armed for takeoff what would be the indicated FMA pitch mode change at 400 feet AFE
NAV SPD
112
If LNAV is armed in flight at what cross track distance will it become active
2.5nm
113
What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system
The center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications
114
When is ACARS in range report required to be manually sent
30 minutes prior to arrival when unable to contact the ground station on an AMC charter flight
30 minutes prior to arrival when a maintenance item is or will be entered into the logbook
115
When should HF radios not be used
During refueling
116
How would you verify that the ACARS state is begin or wait
```
Close the L1door
Set the parking break
Open the L1 door
Select return in
select proceed with returning
```
117
What must be done to communicate directly with the mechanic who is operating the start valve for a manual start
Mechanic must plug into the headset jacks at the nacelle
Service center phone must be selected on
FLT must be selected on the audio panel
118
With 121.5 selected in the R VHF can the receiver volume control for the radio be turned off
No
119
What is indicated by the EICAS advisory radio transmit
AVHF or HF radio has been continuously keyed for 30 seconds
120
How can we turn data into the C VHF
Dial past 136.000 or below 118.000 select transfer switch
121
What buses are powered with #1 and 2 external power available but not on
Ground handling bus
| maindeck cargo handling
122
The battery switch is on and the standby battery switch is on and the standby power selector is an auto . no external power is available. you are starting the APU is the APU stand by bus powered
No starting the APU removes power from the APU stand by bus.
123
What battery is required to start the app
Both batteries are required to start the apu.
124
How can a DCIR be opened.
By opening the AC bus Tie switch.
125
While conducting the interior preflight you notice that the number 2 generator field off light is illuminated how can you reset it
Cycled the generator control switch off then on
Turn off the generator control switch and then use the guarded field switch on the overhead maintenance panel to close the field switch on the overhead maintenance panel to close the field.
126
What electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland
AC bus 1,2 and 3are isolated AC bus 4 powers the sync
127
The number for generator is deferred can a category three approach be conducted
Yes
128
The number one APU generator is inoperative external . External power is not available what must be done to power the refueling panel.
The refilling panel cannot be powered the ground handling bus is required The refilling panel cannot be powered the ground handling bus is required.
129
Before starting engines with the #1APU generator inop,what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system.
Turn on the #4 demand pump.
130
When must continuous ignition be used
```
Heavy rain
severe turbulence
volcanic ash
icing conditions
standing water or slush on runway
```
131
With an EEC in alternate mode (ALTN),when should takeoff thrust be set
After break release
132
What does the EICAS memo message APU running mean
APU is at 95% RPM
| Electrical and pneumatics are available
133
With the auto ignition selector in single (GE )what happens on the ground
The EEC will alternate igniters 1 and 2 after every second engine start
134
With the auto ignition selector in single (GE )what happens in flight
Both igniters will activate when into drops below 50% in affected engine
both igniters will activate in all engines when the flaps are all out of up.
135
When will stand by ignition turn on if the switch is in norm.
With loss of AC power
| power supply to both igniters continuously
136
Under what conditions should a start attempt be aborted (P&W)
```
No N2
No oil pressure
no EGT rise within 10 seconds
rapidly in creasing EGT
no N1 or idle N2
no acceleration after 90 seconds
```
137
What is the maximum continuous EGT limit is exceeded what is indicated on takeoff
Entire EGT gauge turns amber inhibited for five seconds after TOGAis pushed.
138
With main cargo fire arm in the main deck fire switch does what
Enables main deck fire suppression
turns off two packs
configures equipment cooling to close loop and turns off all air flow two main deck and airflow and heat to lower cargo compartments
closes master trim air valve
139
Is the engine fire detection system AND logic or OR logic
AND logic
140
What event will cause the engine fire detection system to configure itself to OR logic is there a cockpit indication
Failure of one of the detection loops during self test
status Cue on the primary EICAS
fire detect loop status message
141
What does the EICAS message DETFIRE/OHT 1 mean
Both loop a and B for engine 1 have failed
142
Describe what occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled
Closes the engine in spar fuel valve
closes the engine bleeder valve
trips off the related engine generator
shuts off hydraulic fluid to do the engine
engine driven hydraulic pump depressurizes the related engine driven hydraulic pump arms both related engine fire extinguishers
143
What conditions will unlock the engine fire switch
Pressing the unlock button on the fire panel
system since there’s a fire
fuel switch and cut off
fire test in progress
144
After a fire test pass what to systems are no longer being monitored by the AC
Wheelwell
| leading edge duct
145
How many overheat loops are installed for the APU
None
146
If the outboard ailerons fail to lock during approach are there any restrictions on Landing
20kt crosswind limit
147
What causes the outboard ailerons to
Low speed
148
How would you select flaps 1 using the alternate flap system
You cannot select flops one with the alternate system all leading edge flaps extend at the same time
149
Moving the flat panel to a select a position will cause the flaps to move as long as either hydraulic primary mode or electric secondary mode power is available to the aircraft having said that why is there an alternate flap system
In the event of the flat panel fails or all three flap control computers FCC’s are failed
150
What does the EICAS message speedbrake EXT mean
Speed brake lever aft of arm and
RA between 800 to 15 feet or
flaps in the landing configuration or
two or more thrust levers Forward of idle position
151
What occurs when the spring break lever is extended to the flight detent position
Two inboard spoilers on each wing extend to the mid position
twoMiddle spoilers on each wing extend Fully
152
The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude
20,000ft
153
When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited
Multiple auto pilots engage
154
In addition to attitude the vertical speed information what does the IRU selected by the captain provide
Reference information to the auto brake system
155
And what range of the ND can you display all airports ,all waypoints and ,all the VORs
40nm
156
Which of the instrument source electors will automatically transfer
EIU
157
Selecting the ARPT button on the EFIS control panel does what?
With the legacy FMC installed displays all airports within the selected range that have at least one hard surface runway of 7500 feet or greater .
with the NG FMC installed displays all airports within the selected range that have at least one hard surface runway of 6000 feet or greater
158
For all aircraft except N782CK what is the up orientation of the ND mode
Map is track up
plan is true north up
the VOR is heading up
APP is heading up
159
What is the maximum allowable on the ground altitude display differences for operating in RVSM.
Sea level to 5000 feet
35ft between CA. And FO
75ft between CA and FO and field elevation
10000ft and above
40 ft between ca and fo
75ft between ca and fo and field elevation
160
Operations for using QFE are?
Prohibited
161
What pages are available on the CDU with a dual FMC failure
Prog
legs
NAVRAD
162
Weather radar information can be displayed on all ND modes except.
Plan
VOR centered
APP centered
163
The NG FMC has a field on the VNAV CRZ page with the title RECMD what does it display
The most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 miles based on gross weight selected speed option and constant altitude based on entered wins in forecast temp
164
You have been given a clearance to fly a heading of 090 to intercept J 121 to HTO procedurally what were you enter into the FMC
On route page to put J1 21 @L1
On route page to put HTO on 1R
Verify route on legs page one
Push execute
165
When does the FMC have approach logic
After passing the first waypoint contained in the IAP
| within 25 miles when the runway is the waypoint displayed in 1L
166
What safeguard is applied when the FMC has approached logic in the pitch mode is the NAVPATH
Loss of the path will cause the aircraft to do a level fly off
167
Can class to navigation be conducted with a dual FMC failure.
Yes
168
When programming the NGFMC prior to departure on what page in the update source reviewed and if desired disabled or enabled
The NAV OPTIONs page
169
When programming the NGFMC prior to departure what airports are entered in the AL TN page
ETP airports
| if no ETP airports the destinations alternate
170
When was the CWT override/ jettison pumps be switched off
If the fuel low CTR left/right messages displayed
if the fuel pressure CTR left/right message is displayed
171
Can you reset a trip fuel pump circuit breaker
Do not reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker
172
What is the fuel freeze point for jet A fuel
-40c
173
How can you verify the feeling panel door is closed from the cockpit
The pre-select fuel value will no longer appear in the fuel synoptic
174
What is the conditional minimum rent fuel excluding ballast
53000
175
What is the standard minimum Ramp fuel excluding ballast
72000
176
When is the only time that the fuel system will automatically balance the fuel tanks
During Fuel jettison
177
On aircraft equipped electric scavenge pump what causes the pump to activate
The pump activates when two and three reserve tanks transferred to the respective main tanks
178
Once activated how long will an electric scavenge pump operate
120 minutes or until the CTR tank is empty
179
With the loss of systems 2 and 3 why is there a speed additive for the approach
Loss of stabilizer trim
increased ability to flare
180
What would cause a #2 or #3 demand pump to operate when the switch is an auto
Low pressure output from the EDP
respective fuel control switch in cut off
181
What will cause a #1 or 4 demand pump to operate when the switch is an auto
Low pressure output from the EDP
respective field control switch is cut off
flaps are in transit on the ground
flaps are out of up in flight
182
Does unlatching the EDP switch clothes its respective shut off valve
No
183
They drop quantity on the status page shows 0.0 0 . EiCAS message hydraulic pressure eng is displayed the SYSFAULT light is not illuminated do you have any hydraulic pressure from the system available why
Yes
the hydraulic quantity indication disregards the fluid in the standpipe which is available to the EDP
184
What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch
0.80
185
Where can you confirm the hydraulic quantity
Status or hydraulic synoptic page
186
What does the EICAS message HYD CONTROL mean
The affected systems demand pump may not operate under high demand situations
the affected systems demand pump must be placed to on in order to ensure system pressure will be available during high demand situations
187
With the number for ox pump on in providing pressure will the HYDSYS fault light be off or on
Off
188
What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with the gear extended
720000
189
On takeoff roll when does RTO arm
85kts
190
Auto brakes operate using which brake control system
Normal brakes system
191
RTO Breaking will provide what deceleration rate
RTO is not rate based
Max braking
192
At what tiller angle will the body gear begin to aid in turning the aircraft
20 degrees tiller angle
193
Where can you read alternate brake pressure
Alternate brake pressure cannot be read
194
The number for hydraulic system is an operative how can the parking break be held until chocks are in place
Pressurized hydraulic system 1 with the ADP or AUX pump if installed
195
What does the brake torque limiting system do
The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to landing gear when excessive torque is detected a signal is sent to the anti-skid valve to release brake pressure to the wheel
196
From engine start to shut down what is the primary means of alerting crew to non-normal conditions or improper configurations
EICAS alert messages( warnings cautions advisory)
197
With multiple EICAS messages present what will assure that all memo messages are displayed.
Pushing the CANC button when the last page of EICAS alert messages is displayed.
198
When are the fire bell and master warning lights inhibited
The V1 until 400 feet or 25 sec after V1 which ever occurs first
199
When does it takeoff configuration warning activate
```
Either # 2or 3 N1 is 70% or more .airspeed less than V1:
Flaps not an takeoff
position body gear not centered
parking brake set
speed brake lever not in down detent
stabilizer trim not in takeoff range
```
200
What phase of flight would you receive the GPWS alert DONT SINK
Takeoff
| Go around
201
When is the wind shear alert system (not PWS )active.
VR – 1500 feet
202
What will cause the EICAS message config gear to display
The airplane is in flight:
Any gear is not down and locked any thrust lever is closed and radio altitude is less than 800 feet flap lever is in the landing position 25 or 30
203
What range must be selected do use the TAWS look ahead train alerting system for navigation
Do not use the terrain display for navigation
204
When caring class one explosive material on a DOD flight the captain must ensure what information is included in the remarks on the flight plan
Proper shipping name
classification
net explosive weight
205
Where is the DOD flight information publication (flip )DVD stored on the aircraft
Storage compartment on the first Officer side wall consul right side of flight deck
206
Who is the final authority when conducting simultaneously fueling and cargo load loading at a military installation
Wing or base commander
207
When operating an AMC contracted flight when must the destination airfield be notified
30 min prior to arrival
208
When operating the AMC contracted flight where is the appropriate facility and frequency for contact prior to arrival found
Flight plan
chart alert
white desk
209
Under operating fundamentals of clutter air flight operations will be conducted in a manner that ensures what four things
Maximum safety for personal cargo and equipment
schedule integrity and reliability
maximum customer satisfication
maximum efficiency economy
210
Prior to each departure of the PIC must obtain adequate knowledge of the following subjects
Pertinent air traffic control procedures ,including terminal areas ,arrival departure ,holding in all types of instrument approach procedures.
211
Whom may determine whether a pre-departure briefing or a special airport is needed
Director of operations or assistant Director of operations
the chief pilot or assistant chief pilot
Director of safety
212
When is the loading checklist required
Any flight that requires a load master to be present or all but DHL flights
213
Where must cargo aircraft only dangerous goods be loaded
Maindeck accessible by crew
214
When operating on a special permit 7573 or 9551 who may be on board
Your persons other than required flight crew members in Mission Central personnel may be carried on the aircraft prior to takeoff all crew members must be instructed in proper procedures to be followed during an emergency involving hazardous material
215
After loading the final numbers in the CDU you getting EICAS message stab green band what are some reasons for this?
Nose gear pressure sensor disagrees with calculated stabilizer green band.
216
Can we depart before our ETD for DHL.
A flight should not depart prior to the departure time listed on the flight release without authorization of the flight Following
217
Are there any limitations for taxing out with three engines or two engines
The following weights are for guidance only .less than 726000 pounds start engines 4, 1 and 2 .
less than 660000 pounds start engines 4 and 1.
218
Can you be dispatched with less than 72,000 pounds of fuel
Yes but ramp fuel quantities less than 72,000 pounds excluding ballots require approval from the Director of operations chief pilot or the management designee
219
If the PAC uses his emergency authority in his request to submit a report to the requesting ATC facility when must this be done
48 hours
220
Are hazmat shipping labels required to be seen on ULD’s
No often the ULD tags are not visible
221
When in specked in the PBE what color is the indicator when is no longer serviceable
Pink
222
Who is responsible for ensuring the Doors page synoptic is displayed during pre-flight
Fo
223
When conducting a preflight ,when will the yaw damper switch inop light extinguish.
Until the first IRU aligns
224
The MDSS TURB switch remains illuminated for how long after being pushed
90secs
225
What should you see during the standby power check
Battery discharge mean
| battery discharge APU
226
What is the procedure for all the EFIS/EICAS screens going blank
On annunciated checklist in the QRH
227
When must the PIC declare a fuel emergency to ATC.
Fuel Atlantic predicted to be less than planned fuel reserve fuel
228
If the PAC rejects for a non-mechanical reason is a logbook entry required
Yes
229
What is ICAO emergency fuel.
The pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to the aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel
230
What is the difference between distress and urgency?
Distress – graven in a danger mayday Mayday Mayday
Urgency – urgency message concerning the safety of the ship. pan pan pan
231
What is the pilot response to a caution obstacle or caution terrain?
Correct flight path or airplane configuration
232
GPWS alerts are provided for what seven categories of events?
Altitude loss after takeoff or go around
excessive in severe descent rate
excessive terrain closing rate
unsafe trerrain clearance when not in landing configuration
excessive deviation below an ILS glideslope
altitude advisories
windshear
233
When directed by the cure egg push in the ground proximity flap override switch does what
Inhibits “too low flaps” oral warning.
234
TAWS green indicates what altitude ,Amber ,red?
Amber – terrain 500 feet below 2000 feet above aircraft.
Green – terrain 2000 feet to 500 feet below aircraft
Red – terrain more than 2000 feet above aircraft
235
Can crew members except another carriers NOTOC form
Yes
236
How much dry ice is allowed to be carried on board
See dry ice limits table in appendix H in GOM, max is 23,000 pounds but depends on sublimation rate impact configuration manager will notify company Notam.
237
What is the minimum RVR allowed for takeoff how many centerline lights should you see at 500 RVR
500ft (150)m
Runway centerline lights are 50ft apart 500/50=10
238
Under low visability conditions ,how would you determine when you have 2000 feet of runway remaining
Runway edge lights change from white to yellow for the last 2000 feet
239
Where can you find the complex special engine fill procedure for GUA/MGGTrunaway 02 if you wanted to study it before receiving the TLR.
Arrow data 747–400 performance handbook in comply 365
240
With packs in high flow how much extra fuel burn would you have
0.3% per pack compared to Econ mode
241
Why is it important to check fields 10 and 18 on the flight plan strip.
Certifies the navigation ,communication Survival equipment is authorized by ops specs LOA’s and approvals are all on board working .
aircraft will comply with PBN requirements
242
Who is responsible for determining aircraft disinfection procedures prior to entering a country
FME/loadmaster/flight crew/cargo services
243
Can you dispose of the insecticide canisters prior to landing if needed
No must be made available to the quarantine inspector upon arrival.
244
What code should never be put in the transponder.
7777
245
Can we do circling approaches
No
246
How close to the destination airport does one need to be to accept a visual approach
35nm
247
Where do we find authorized geographic area of in route operation
Ops specs B 050
248
Can we operate in no FYR areas
No
249
What are some considerations when operating in non-– WGS 84 compliant areas
Location of runways airport waypoints NAV aids may not be as depicted on the map display and may not agree with GPS positions.
does not affect required navigation during SIDS and stars in while in route however this potential can affect RNP during our and a V approaches
