NK MASTER QUESTION FILE Flashcards
1
Q
What happens when a pilot presses and holds the MECH pb on the CALLS panel?
A
It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn
2
Q
How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?
A
Press the FWD button the Calls Panel
3
Q
When would a pilot push the EMER pb on the CALLS panel?
A
When there is an emergency and the Pilot would like to speak with Flight Attendant A
4
Q
What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PB?
A
Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the masks
5
Q
How does the passenger fixed oxygen system work and how long does it last?
A
Chemical oxygen generators last for approximately 15 minutes
6
Q
What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?
A
The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually
7
Q
What causes the automatic deployment of the masks?
A
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet
8
Q
How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?
A
The RESET control slide will accomplish this - it does not happen automatically
9
Q
What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?
A
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing
10
Q
Could the passenger oxygen mask provide oxygen for anything other than depressurization?
A
No
11
Q
On the ground, if there is an amber half frame around the CKPT OXY PSI box, where would you look to see if you have enough oxygen for the flight?
A
FCOM - Limitations - Oxygen
12
Q
Why is the GND CTL pb selected to ON during preflight?
A
To record preflight activities in the cockpit
13
Q
If the pb was not selected ON the GND CTL, how would the system work in automatic mode?
A
1, On the ground during the first 5 minutes after the aircraft electrical network is energized
- On the ground after the first engine start
- In flight, (whether the engines are running or not)
- On the ground, it is stopped automatically 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown provided the CVR jack is not used
14
Q
What allows the cabin PA’s to be recorded?
A
ACP 3 PA volume knob out and set at or above the medium range (12 o’clock position)
15
Q
What does pressing the SYS button on the GPWS do?
A
All basic GPWS alters (mode 1 to 5) are inhibited
16
Q
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate
A
Any failure of the GPWS mode 1 through 5
17
Q
What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb have on the TERR mode?
A
No effect at all
18
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3
A
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
- FLAP SYS 1(2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off
19
Q
What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?
A
No effect whatsoever
20
Q
What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?
A
AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power
21
Q
When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?
A
The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approx. 8 seconds)
22
Q
How can the RAT be deployed?
A
- Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR Panel) or RAT MAN ON (Hydraulic Panel)
- Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
23
Q
What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?
A
RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic pressure only, no electrical generation
24
Q
After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pb on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?
A
By pressing the MAN ON pb on the EMER ELEC PWR
25
What does the RAT supply?
Blue hydraulic system pressure and the emergency electrical generator
26
What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?
Smoke detectors (particle detectors) in the avionics ventilation ducting
27
Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be the other indications of avionics smoke?
1. ECAM warning
| 2. Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pb on the VENT panel
28
If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE pb sw to OFF, what will be accomplished?
1. GEN 1 line contactor (GLC) opens (white OFF light illuminates)
2. AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors
3. GEN 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank
29
Why do we select the CAPT position using the CAPT and CAPT/PURS sw?
1. The alert may be only activated from the cockpit
| 2. If one of the cabin CMD pb is pressed, only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds
30
While conducting the Emergency Evacuation Checklist, the pilots determine that evacuation is required. How should the pilots command an evacuation?
1. Make a PA announcement ("EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE")
| 2. Press the EVAC COMMAND pb
31
What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
Fly-by-Wire system
32
Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated
33
How is normal law indicated on the PFD?
Green "=" for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
| Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
34
How is alternate law indicated on the PFD?
Amber X's (indicating lack of normal law protections)
35
How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?
1. Amber "USE MAN PITCH TRIM"
| 2. Amber Xs (indicating lack of normal law protections
36
How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?
1. RED "MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY"
| 2. Amber Xs (indicating lack of normal law protections)
37
When operating in NORMAL LAW in flight mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?
Pitch - G Load
| Bank - Roll Rate
38
What is the significance of the side stick priority (red arrow) light?
The other pilot has gained side stick authority
39
Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each
ELAC - Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
SEC - Spoiler Elevator (3)
FAC - Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
40
What does SEC 3 control?
Spoiler Control - one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing
41
What should happen to the THS after landing?
Resets to zero
42
Describe some of the protections a pilot will have in normal law?
1. High Speed
2. High AOA
3. Load factor limitation
4. Pitch attitude protections (30°UP/15°DWN)
5. Bank Angle protections (67°)
43
Describe high speed protection
if VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed
44
What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?
It is not possible to override a protection while still in normal law. In this case, the aircraft would need to be forced into alternate law
45
What is ALPHA MAX?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in normal law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale
46
How does high angle of attack protections operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, nose up pitch ceases and AOA is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.
47
What protections and stabilities, if any, does a pilot have in alternate law?
Load Factor
High-speed stability
Low speed stability
48
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?
None
49
When, if at all, does flare mode activate in alternate law? describe the whole process
There is no flare mode if operating in alternate law. The aircraft proceeds directly from alternate to direct law when the gear is selected down and flare mode will not be available
50
If in alternate law, when will the aircraft revert to direct law?
If the controls degrade to alternate law for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, direct law automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.
51
When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?
1. When in direct law
| 2. On ground mode (Ground Mode)
52
It's common airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in normal law. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen
A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that any can happen. Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual AOA or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in normal law. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
53
How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits
54
What is the purpose of abnormal attitude law?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude
55
If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?
30°s up
56
If the pilot selects 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly if the autopilot and auto thrust are engaged?
VLS
57
Describe, in detail, what would happen if the pilot slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle in normal law (scenario 1 alpha prot)
1. As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
2. If the AOA increases to a threshold value, known as APLHA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement commands a specific angle of attack instead of a G load change.
3. Since nose up pitch trim ceases, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT
58
Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go? (Scenario 2 alpha prot)
1. The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
2. With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum safe AOA (ALPHA MAX). This maximum AOA, induced by the pilot. is slightly lower than the stall AOA; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW
59
At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work? (Scenario 3 alpha prot)
1. ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on AOA and automatically applies TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
2. ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in normal law.
3. AOA protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
4. On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M.06
60
Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in normal law?
1. Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs
2. If G loads becomes greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
3. When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
4. When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
61
What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the pilots?
1. An over speed causes flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
2. The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green "=" sign
3. An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO +4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pb.
4. If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed up to VMO +16/MMO+0.04 permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
5. Positive spiral static stability is introduced to 0 degrees ban angle (instead of 33 degree in normal law) so that with the side stick released the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0 degrees. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 degrees to 40 degrees.
6. If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero
7. It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed
62
When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by Flight Control Laws?
1. In "flight" mode of normal law, roll control is a roll rate demand. Side stick inputs commands the ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and dutch roll damping.
2. The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned maintain the roll rate at 0°s per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
3. When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15°s per second is commanded in normal law. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
4. The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual position of flight control surfaces.
5. In normal turns (up to 33°s) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintain altitude
6. If the bank is increased beyond 33°s and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33°s of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
7. Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle of attack protection is active
8. Beyond 33°s of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°s, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.
63
The pilots find themselves in alternate law. Describe the indications and available protections, and flight control logic.
1. In most cases, a single system component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation)
2. Indications would be amber Xs and an EW/D message. The ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuvering protection is still available.
3. Autopilot availability is alternate law depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures DO NOT affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.
4. Pitch is the same as normal law, roll is direct (not roll rate demand) and yaw loses coordination
5. Attitude, high speed, and AOA protections are lost. They are replaced by high speed and low speed stability, respectively.
6. High speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose down trim is inhibited.
7. Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited.
8. The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft
9. Instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection.
10. Bank angle protection is not available in alternate law. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification.
11. Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice what it was in normal law.
12. Attitude protection is lost and the green "=" signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost
13. In alternate law, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder trim limiting is available if a FAC is operational.
64
The pilots find themselves in direct law. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control logic.
1. When in alternate law, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to direct law when the landing gear is extended and autopilot is off
2. Direct law is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in alternate law.
3. An ECAM message is generated and says "PROT LOST." Unlike in alternate law, this is now true. There are no protections or stabilities available in direct law.
4. The message "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost
5. Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount of flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as alternate law. (direct relationship with no protections)
65
The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP, what functions are available?
1. MECHANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure.
2. Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
3, Note the EW/D warning message and red "MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY" indication on the FMA. There isn't a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.
4. The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
5. Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
5, In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup. Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical.
66
What is the ADIRS?
Air Data Inertial Reference System
67
What type of information does the Air Data Reference System provide?
1. Barometric altitude
2. Flight Path Vector (FPV)
3. Track
4. Heading
5. Acceleration
6. Angular rates
7. Ground speed
8. Aircraft position
68
If there was an IR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
ATT/HDG to CAPT 3
69
If there was an ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
AIR DATA to CAPT 3
70
Explain the ADIRS Power-up and initialization
1. Switch from OFF to NAV
2. ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
3. White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on A319, 502-534)
4. In A319 535, 536, A320s, and A321s, the EW/D memo section displays IRS IN ALIGN during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel
71
What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?
1. An external horn sounds
2. The ON BAT light comes on
3. An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel
72
What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?
IR has failed and cannot be recovered
73
What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode
74
Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?
1. The pilot would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, mach, angle of attack, temperature, and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
2. The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate
3. At that point the affected pilot's side would return to normal
75
Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?
1. The pilot would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack,
temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
2. The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT
3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
3. At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal.
76
What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
1. There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older
panel with a keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR part
(Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track,
heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position,
along with all the ADR information. The ECAM instructs the pilot to select
the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the
affected pilot's side returns to normal.
2. The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn
off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and
the ADR information would still be available.
77
When would a pilot perform a full alignment versus a quick alignment?
Full Alignment:
1. If the IR mode selectors are currently off
2. First flight of the day
3. If there is a change of Flight Crew
4. If GPS is not available and the Flight Crew expects long segments in
poor NAVAID coverage
Quick Alignment
1. For all other flights, if the deviation of the IRS position from the FMGC is
greater than 5nm.
78
What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on
the ground?
1. An external horn sounds
2. The ON BAT light comes on
3. An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel.
79
What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the
ground?
1. PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-
alignment
2. Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered
position
3. Aircraft movement during alignment.
Difference
No align light on A320 – The E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN”
during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This
memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on
the other aircraft.
80
If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is
retracted.
81
What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle
Switch?
Separate bulbs
82
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the main landing gear is not compressed.
83
What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?
Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.
84
What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?
APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In
practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.
85
What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound on
the ground?
APU fire.
86
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on,
which system is powering the aircraft?
2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft.
87
If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool-
down cycle?
Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton.
88
When running the securing checklist why is it important to wait 2 minutes
after the APU avail light goes out before switching off the batteries?
Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke
in the cabin during the next flight.
89
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
1. All lights OFF
| 2. Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
90
Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?
It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries.
91
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
1. Captain’s instrument panel
2. Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
3. Standby compass
92
How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in
automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?
1. Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
2. Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
3. Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S
CTL toggle switch
93
What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?
Closes all openings below the waterline
Note: If you lose both cabin pressure systems 1 + 2, you have to manually
close the outflow valve.
94
When would a pilot push the ditching pushbutton?
1. When ditching
2. When directed by the deicing checklist
95
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.
96
How can a pilot manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
97
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty
98
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
Two pressure relief valves
99
What is accomplished if the WING anti ice pushbutton is selected ON while
the aircraft is on the ground?
The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until
the aircraft is airborne.
100
What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel
indicate?
1. Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
2. Low pressure
101
What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel
indicate?
Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
102
After selecting the probe/window heat pb on the ground to remove ice or fog
on the window. Would the pilot need to select it off before T/O?
Yes, so it can operate in the automatic mode.
103
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats.
104
In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical
power is lost?
1. Wing – valves CLOSE
| 2. Engine – valves OPEN
105
What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice
accumulation?
The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach.
106
A flight crew is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice
that cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the flight crew do?
Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT on. This must be selected off prior to
takeoff in order to regain normal system logic.
107
The temperature outside is 2°C with visible moisture. What should the flight
crew turn on?
ENG anti ice after engine start.
108
What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel
indicate?
WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when
conditions warrant its use.
109
Starting a descent out of FL350 with visible moisture, the TAT is -32°C and
SAT is -53°C, what would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?
Engine anti-ice must be ON during the descent in icing conditions even if
SAT is below -40°C.
110
Descending through 10,000ft, the pilots notice ice accumulation on the
cockpit windshield blades. What should they do?
Turn on the WING anti ice. WING anti ice may either be used to prevent or
remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING
anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice
accumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located
between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wipers
blades.
111
Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?
Yes, but it should only be considered in severe icing because second
segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.
112
What is TAT?
```
Total Air Temperature is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram
Air Temperature (RAT)
```
113
What is SAT?
Static Air Temperature is also called: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or
True Air Temperature
114
Should a flight crew use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn anti
ice systems on?
Remember TAT indicates when to turn anti ice ON. SAT indicates when it
may be able to be turned OFF.
115
If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is
providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs
provide?
HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
116
If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control
system?
All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the
selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the
FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.
117
How are the PACKS controlled and operated?
Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
118
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
1. Valve position disagrees with selected
2. Compressor outlet overheat
3. Pack outlet overheat
119
What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
1. Bleed overpressure
2. Bleed overheat
3. Wing or engine leak on the related side
4. Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
5. Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON
120
What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?
1.SHUT = the valve is closed.
2. AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is
closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
3. OPEN = the valve is open.
121
What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
APU bleed leak.
122
What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?
Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.
123
What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?
1. Smoke/fumes removal in cabin
| 2. Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
124
How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?
If a Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over
temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on CEO.
125
When should you select LO pack flow?
1. On the 319, when the number of passengers is below 138.
2. On the 320, when the number of passengers is below 141.
3. On the 321, select ON ECON FLOW when the number of passengers is
below 168.
126
What is the minimum battery voltage?
25.6V
127
What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating
preflight?
Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to
AUTO
128
How long should the batteries be charged?
20 minutes, then recheck the voltage
129
Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?
1. Select ELEC on ECAM
2. Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
3. Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
4. If it fails the test, wait until the end of the charging cycle, and repeat the test
130
Describe the electrical power system.
1. The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-
hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC
2. Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then
transformed into direct current for certain applications.
3. Each of the aircraft's three generators can supply the whole network.
4. If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC
power.
5. If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the
batteries into AC power.
131
If all AC power is lost, what happens?
DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.
132
What would be an expected indication in the GEN pb’s prior to engine start?
Fault Indication
133
Define and describe an IDG
1. Integrated Drive Generator
| 2. Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output
134
How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?
Lift the red guard and push the IDG pb, being careful not to hold the pb for longer than 3 seconds
135
How would an IDG be reconnected?
This cannot be done by the flight crew — it is a maintenance function.
136
Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO
1. Allows a single source to power AC BUS 1 and 2
2. Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system
3. Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
137
If GEN 1 fails to supply AC BUS 1, what happens?
GEN 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie
138
How is the AC ESS BUS normally powered?
From AC BUS 1
139
If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS BUS powered?
AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS
140
What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS BUS?
AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminates only if the switch is manually selected
141
What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?
At least one generator load is above 100% rated output
142
Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY on
Shed main galley if only 1 GEN is available
143
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor
144
What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?
“RATS NEST”
1. AC ESS BUS
2. AC ESS SHES
3. DC ESS BUS by the ESS TR
4. DC ESS SHED
145
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
1. Battery charging current outside limits
| 2. BAT contactor opens
146
When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?
1. APU START
2. BAT charging
3. AC BUS 1/2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
147
Generally. What is the total fuel capacity?
42,000lbs (41,285)
